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Patho > Cells and Genetics > Flashcards

Cells and Genetics Flashcards

1
Q

Cellular injury

A

Result of a stimulus in excess of the cells adaptive response

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2
Q

Cellular adaptation

A

Compensation that occurs at the cellular level

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3
Q

Where will hyperplasia not take place?

A

Cells that can’t replicate (heart, neurons, muscle, etc)

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4
Q

Dysplasia

A

cells that are abnormal in size, shape, or organization. These are abnormal cells that are not necessarily cancer. Ex- wart

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5
Q

Cancers will be

A

dysplastic and neoplastic

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6
Q

Neoplasia

A

Abnormal, disorganized growth (a tumor). May or may not be cancer.

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7
Q

4 Themes of cellular injury

A

1) ATP depletion (often due to lack of O2)
2) Free radicals and reactive oxygen species (cause oxidation of membranes and other structures, often a problem with re-perfusion)
3) Increase in intracellular Ca++ (release of Ca from mitochondria, lack of ATP to remove it, activation of many enzymes from Ca, very high Ca levels signal apoptosis)
4) Defects in plasma membrane (loss of normal cell function, loss of Na+ gradient, activation of proteases and phospholpases)

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8
Q

Marker of cellular death

A

Creatine kinase

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9
Q

Result of intracellular decrease in pH

A

Nuclear chromatin clumping and swelling of lysosomes (this welling then causes a release of lysosomal enzymes that begin autodigestion)

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10
Q

2 key players in irreversible cell injury

A

Lack of ATP generation and major damage to membrane function

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11
Q

Most common cause of cellular injury

A

Hypoxia

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12
Q

Most common cause of hypoxia

A

Ischemia

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13
Q

Ischemia

A

Inefficient blood supply to tissue or ogan

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14
Q

Infarction

A

Ischemia with necrosis

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15
Q

How does a reperfusion injury occur?

A

Reperfusion with oxygen results in the production of xanthin oxidase, which goes on to make massive amounts of superoxide, H2O2, and nitric oxide (another free radical). Basically, the reperfusion results in formation of ROS that can cause necrosis.

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16
Q

Main oxidants in our bodies

A

Superoxide anion, hydrogen peroxide, and hydroxyl radical. We want to get rid of these ASAP!!

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17
Q

O2- is converted to _____ by ______

A 
O2 and H2O2
Superoxide dismutase (SOD)
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18
Q

Hydroxyl radical is converted to ______ by _____

A

H2O2

Glutathione peroxidase

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19
Q

H2O2 is converted to _______ by _____

A

H2O
Catalase
Interestingly, animals with more catalase tend to live longer

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20
Q

How is O2 converted into O2- (superoxide)?

A

By oxidative enzymes in the mitochondria, ER, plasma membrane, peroxisomes, and cytosol.

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21
Q

Process of apoptosis

A

Initial changes include nuclear chromatin condensation and fragmentation, followed by cellular shrinking & budding, and phagocytosis of those apoptotic bodies. No cytoplasm is released during apoptosis and it does not result in an inflammatory response!

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22
Q

Process of coagulation necrosis

A

Chromatin clumping, organelle swelling, and eventual membrane damage. Cytoplasm will leak and release intracellular enzymes. Immune system is recruited.

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23
Q

Point to note between necrosis and apoptosis

A

Apoptosis involves cellular shrinking and then budding. Necrosis involves swelling and lysis.

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24
Q

4 Types of Necrosis

A

Coagulative
Liquefactive
Caseous
Fat

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25
Q

Coagulative necrosis

A

Usually due to ischemic infarction anywhere except the brain. In this type of necrosis, everything is dead, but the cytoskeleton and general cellular structure remain intact

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26
Q

Liquefactive Necrosis

A

This involves enzymatic digestion of cells to form a liquid, viscous mass. Usually due to a bacterial or fungal infection d/t it’s ability to stimulate an inflammatory response. After removal of cellular debris by WBCs, a liquid filled space is left. This type of necrosis occurs in the brain because it has many digestive enzymes and little connective tissue. The cell architecture is lost in this type of necrosis, which is why it is liquid. Pus is also liquefactive necrosis.

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27
Q

Caseous necrosis

A

Happens as a result of TB infections. Looks like a yellow-white, cheesy debris. This is kind of like a combo between coagulative and liquefactive necrosis.

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28
Q

Fat necrosis

A

In this necrosis, lipases act on fats. This results in the release of ffas from triglycerides. These ffas then complex with calcium to form soaps, which appear as white, chalky deposits. This is often associated with pancreatitis. This is also why those with pancreatitis have low Ca levels.

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29
Q

Dry gangrene

A

A form of coagulative necrosis and is due to ischemia (lack of arterial blood flow).

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30
Q

Wet gangrene

A

This is coagulative necrosis progressing to liquefactive necrosis, and usually happens in parts of the body that are naturally moist. This is often characterized by thriving bacteria and has poor prognosis due to septicemia. As opposed to dry gangrene, this is often due to blockage of venous flow (the affected part is saturated with stagnant blood)

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31
Q

These cells have active telomerase activity

A

Germ cells and stem cells. However, only germ cells have sufficient levels of telomerase to maintain telomere length indefinitely.

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32
Q

Number of replications we have per telomere

A

40-60

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33
Q

BUN and creatinine are monitors of kidney function, but they can be influenced by

A

BUN- also reflects diet and hydration

Creatinine- can go up and down with how much muscle mass you have

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34
Q

Anion gap

A

Tells you if your acidosis is a gain of acid or a loss of base

35
Q

Why can’t you tell if you are calcium deficient or overloaded by looking at serum calcium levels?

A

Because we balance levels using bone calcium

36
Q

Function of uric acid in the blood

A

Antioxidant

37
Q

Alkaline phosphatase and Gamma-GT

A

Found in cells lining the bile ducts. Elevation will mean necrosis of these areas.

Alkaline phosphatase can also indicate bone problems such as bone cancer

38
Q

Problem with high phos

A

Can bind with calcium and cause ectopic calcifications

39
Q

Direct bilirubin

A

This is conjugated bilirubin (bilirubin that has been made water soluble by the liver)

40
Q

Total bilirubin

A

Conj + Unconj bilirubin. Can help you determine if the problem is before, with, or after the liver.

41
Q

Plasma albumin

A

Most common protein of the PLASMA (not of the blood). The liver will as much or as little albumin as it needs to make in order to get your plasma protein at the right level. Looked at in conjunction with total protein. If plasma protein is high, and albumin is low- this isn’t a problem with the liver, it means that someone else is making too much protein so the liver didn’t need to make much albumin. This could be caused by multiple myeloma (cancer of the plasma cells- causes antibody excess). If both levels are low, this could be a liver or kidney problem.

42
Q

LDH

A

Enzyme that converts pyruvate to lactate. It is found in every cell that does glycolysis, which is every cell in your body! It is a marker of cell death. Physical assessment will tell you where you should be looking for the cell death. There are various isozymes of LDH that are more tissue specific. The same LDH isoyme found in RBCs is also found in cardiomyocytes. Remember that if there is bad phlebotomy with lysis of RBCs, the lab values could falsely indicate an MI. Look at potassium in this case, if the K+ is excessively high, it points towards bad phlebotomy.

43
Q

We have this many times more RBCs than WBCs

A

1000x more

44
Q

Ivy method of bleeding time

A

10mmx1mm cut

45
Q

Duke method of bleeding time

A

Finger/earlobe stick

46
Q

Reticulocytes

A

Can help you assess the cause of anemia. Is it bleeding problem, marrow problem, etc

47
Q

Hematocrit should be about ___ times more than Hgb

A
  1. Tells you if the cells are larger or smaller than they should be
48
Q

MCV

A

tells you the average size of an RBC in your body

49
Q

Prothrombin Time

A

Measures clotting via the extrinsic pathway. We won’t see this as often as INR. This is dependent on Vitamin K. We measure this for those of warfarin (coumadin) therapy

50
Q

INR

A

International normalized rate. Your clotting rate compared to the “average” person’s clotting rate. Less than one = faster clotting. Larger than 1 = slower clotting. 1 = normal.

51
Q

APTT

A

Intrinsic clotting pathway

52
Q

Insertions and deletions result in this type of mutation

A

Frame-shift mutation

53
Q

SNP

A

Single nucleotide polymorphism. One base pair is substituted for another

54
Q

Dominant X-linked disorders are almost always _____ for males

A

fatal in utero

55
Q

Examples of x-linked recessive disorders

A

Hemophilia A (factor XIII), Hemophilia B (factor IX), duchenne muscular dystrophy

56
Q

Locus

A

location in the genome

57
Q

Penetrance

A

The chance that phenotype will follow the genotype

58
Q

Haplotype

A

Alleles on a single chromosome

59
Q

Cross-over/recombination

A

Gene rearrangement between homologous chromosomes

60
Q

Translocation

A

Swapping of genetic material between nonhomologous chromosomes

61
Q

Do we have more than two copies of any genes?

A

Yes. We have WAY more than 2 copies of the ATP pump for example

62
Q

Chromatid

A

One copy of a duplicated chromosome

63
Q

Each oocyte gives rise to

A

One egg and three polar bodies

64
Q

Aneuploidy is caused by

A

Nondisjunction (failure of chromosome pairs to separate properly during meiosis I or II)

65
Q

Manifestations of Turner’s Syndrome

A

Infertility, many cardiac problems, webbed neck, underdeveloped breasts and widely spaced nipples

66
Q

Manifestations of Klinefelter’s

A

Small testes, infertile, some breast development, sparse body hair, and long limbs. Can be XXY or XXXY. You get about a 15 point reduction in IQ for each extra X.

67
Q

Extra Y chromosome

A

Slightly bigger, dumber, and more aggressive.

68
Q

When does crossover happen?

A

Prophase I

69
Q

Cri du chat is caused by

A

a deletion of part of 5q

70
Q

Error that can occur during crossover

A

Duplication/deletion

71
Q

Effect of translocations

A

A child born with translocations will usually be totally fine because they have all the genetic material they need, it just might be in the wrong place. However, they may have issues with miscarriage later on in life due to risk of creating gametes with unbalances translocations

72
Q

Examples of dominant single-gene disorders

A 
Familial hypercholesterolemia (defective LDL receptors. If you are double negative for cholesterol receptors, you will most likely die in utero)
Huntington's disease
Achondroplasia
Marfan's
Retinoblastoma
Li-Fraumeni
73
Q

Examples of recessive single-gene disorders

A

Sickle cell anemia
Cystic fibrosis
Lysosomal storage diseases (Tay-sachs, gaucher, Niemann-Pick)
Glycogen storage diseases
Phenylketonuria (can’t convert phenylalanine to tyrosine)

74
Q

Li-fraumeni syndrome involves a defect in this gene

A

p52 tumor suppressor gene

75
Q

What is Tay-Sach’s disease?

A

Progressive deterioration of nerve cells and mental and physical abilities. Onset at 6mo, death usually by age 4. An enzyme is missing, resulting in collection of glycolipids in the brain.

76
Q

What is an autosome?

A

A chromosome that is not a sex chromosome

77
Q

Benefit of sickle cell anemia

A

Immune to malaria

78
Q

This country has the highest incidence of CF

A

Ireland

79
Q

How can we control if a gene will be used or not?

A

Methylation. By adding a methyl group to the 5 position of cytosine, chromatin condenses and inactivates the gene. This process is reversible. This process is called epigenetic modification.

80
Q

Markers of cell death

A

LDH (lactate dehydrogenase) and creatine kinase

81
Q

This lab value measures the extrinsic pathway

A

PT

82
Q

This value measures the intrinsic pathway

A

APTT

83
Q

The main problem in familial hypercholesterolemia is

A

Defective LDL receptors

84
Q

______-_____% of head injuries are not severe

A

75-90%

Patho (14 decks)

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