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Nick's MD1 > Nick's Foundation block > Flashcards

Nick's Foundation block Flashcards

1
Q

What does haematoxylin bind to?

A

Acidic or anionic structures

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1
Q

What are the 3 types of granulocytes?

A

Basophils, eosinophils, neutrophils

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1
Q

What is an immature RBC called?

A

Reticulocyte

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1
Q

What is the average lifespan of a platelet cell?

A

8-10 days

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1
Q

What type of WBC is this?

A

Basophil

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1
Q

What shape is the nucleus of a monocyte?

A

Kidney /bean shaped or eccentric oval

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1
Q

What type of WBC is this?

A

Neutrophil

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1
Q

List the 4 main function of connective tissue

A

Structural support

Metabolic support

Immune defence

Tissue repair

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1
Q

Name 7 locations where simple columnar, non-ciliated epithelial cells are found

A

Stomach

Small intestine

Large intestine

Gall bladder

Bile ducts

Endocervix

Endometrium

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1
Q

Name 2 locations where simple columnar, ciliated epithelial cells are found

A

Bronchioles

Fallopian tube

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1
Q

What are the 7 causes of celll injury?

A

Hypoxia
Chemicals and drugs
Micro-organisms
Metabolic
Immune
Nutritional
Genetic

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1
Q

Describe 3 steps in fibrinoid necrosis

A

1 Deposited immune cells in blood vessels

2 Fibrin leakage

3 Necrosis

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1
Q

Define metastatic calcification

A

Abnormal calcium deposits due to hypercalcaemia.

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1
Q

What type of tissue is this?

A

Smooth muscle

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1
Q

Name the 5 isotypes of Ig and what each is specialised for.

A

IgM - First responder. Activates classical pathway of complement cascade.
IgA - present in mucosa. Neutralises
IgG - Most common. Neutralises and opsonises. Antibody dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC); flag for NK cells
IgE - Elevated in parasitic infections and allergy. Degranulation.
IgD - rarest. Expressed on B cells

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2
Q

Which germ layer is muscle derived from?

A

Mesoderm

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2
Q

What type of ttissue is this?

A

Skeletal muscle

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3
Q

What colour does eosin stain?

A

Pink/orange

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3
Q

Which WBC has a kidney-shaped nucleus?

A

Basophils OR Monocytes

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3
Q

Which WBC has a bilobed nucleus?

A

Eosinophils and basophils

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3
Q

Which three substances mediate vasodilation in inflammation?

A

Histamine, NO, prostaglandin PGE2

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4
Q

What is the function of glycoproteins of the basemenbt membrane?

A

They anchor integrins of epithelial cells to ECM of the underlying connective tissue

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5
Q

What is the structure of elastin?

A

Made of an elastin core surrounded by network of fibrilin myofibrils

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6
Q

Name these ligaments

A

A Supraspinous ligament

B Ligamentum flavum

C Posterior longitudinal ligament

D Anterior longitudinal ligament

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7
Q

What are the 4 funcitons of surface epitheliia?

A

Protection

Selective barrier

Absorption

Secretion

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7
Q

Name these ligaments

A

A Supraspinous ligament

B Ligamentum flavum

C Posterior longitudinal ligament

D Anterior longitudinal ligament

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9
Q

What type of fibres is elastin made of?

A

Thin and branched

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10
Q

An acidophilic tissue will have an affinity for which dye?

A

Eosin

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10
Q

Name 6 locations where stratified squamous epithelium is found

A

Skin (keratinised)

Oral cavity

Oesophagus

Vagina

Anus

Ectocervix

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11
Q

Name 2 types of mononuclear monocyte

A

Lymphocyte and monocyte

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11
Q

What type of WBC is this?

A

Eosinophil

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13
Q

Define autolysis

Why is it relevant to a pathologist?

How is it remedied?

A

When cells are removed from body, they start to break down almost immediately (autolysis).

This would make it hard for pathologist to know whether the tissue was pathological before biopsy.

Treat with formalin to fix the tissue and prevent autolysis; or cool tissue to slow autolysis

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15
Q

What is type III collagen also known as?

A

Reticulin

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16
Q

What type of WBC is this?

A

Basophil

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17
Q

Which two forces (and in which direction) are responsible for oedema in inflammation?

A

1 Increased hydrostatic pressure

2 Decreased coloidal osmotic pressure

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18
Q

Define nucleocapsid

A

The capsid most closely associated with the viral nucleic acid.

Nucleic acid + capsid

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19
Q

What are transitional epithelia specialised for?

A

Stretch/elasticity

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19
Q

List 5 features of slow twitch fibres (Type I)

A

1 for running a marathon;

2 red because of many mitochondria;

3 aerobic respiration;

4 resist fatigue;

5 low tension developed.

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20
Q

What is the size of a virus?

A

0.02 - 0.04 um

= 20 - 40 nm

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20
Q

What is the function of myoepithelial cells?

A

surround some exocrine glands to squeeze out contents

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21
Q

What type of WBC is this?

A

Monocyte

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23
Q

Explain the physiologic basis of muscle contraction

A

Nerve impulse depolarises cell membrane.

T tubules conduct AP from membrane to SR.

AP causes SR to release Ca2+

Actin and myosin detach and reattach to each other, pulling Z discs closer together to shorten sarcomere.

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24
Q

What colour will an eosinophilic structure stain?

A

Pink/orange

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25
Q

What is the main function of elastin and give 3 examples of tissue it is found in

A

Provides recoil to certain tissues, esp skin, lungs and large arteries such as aorta

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26
Q

Which germ layer(s) is/are epithelia derived from?

A

All 3 (endoderm, mesoderm and ectoderm)

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26
Q

Which germ layer(s) is/are connective tissue derived from?

A

Mesoderm

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28
Q

What is the function of pericytes?

A

wrap around capillaries to regulate blood flow

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28
Q

What type of tissue is this?

A

Cardiac muscle

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29
Q

What is the maximum resolving power of a light microscope and of an electron microscope?

A
  1. 2 um
  2. 2 nm
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30
Q

What are the 3 features of dysentery?

A

Blood, pus and mucus in stool

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31
Q
A

A Levator scapulae

B Trapezius

C Rhomboid

D Latisimus dorsi

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32
Q

How many genes in the human genome?

A

21,000 to 25,000

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33
Q

CD4+ T cells are also known as what type of T cell?

A

Helper T cells

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33
Q

List 5 features of fast twitch (Type IIb) fibres

A

1 for sprinting/lifting weights;

2 white because few mitochondria;

3 anaerobic respiration;

4 fatigable;

5 high tension developed

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35
Q

Where is ciliated, pseudocstratified columnar epithelium found?

A

Respiratory tract

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36
Q

Where is bradykinin derived from?

A

Plasma proteins

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37
Q

What is the main function of collagen?

A

Provides tensile strength

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37
Q

Transaminases in the blood indicates what?

A

Liver damage

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38
Q

What are the 3 causes of hypoxia?

A

1 ischaemic,

1 failure of gas exchange at lung,

2 failure of blood carrying O2

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39
Q

Fatty necrosis is classically seen in which condition?

A

Acute pancreatitis

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41
Q

Where is type 4 collagen found?

A

Basement membrane

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42
Q

What are the 2 main differences between the gram positive and the gram negative bacterial cell wall?

A

Gram negative bacteria have a smaller/thinner peptidoglycan layer and they have an additional outer/superficial plasma membrane.

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43
Q

What is the difference between exudate and transudate?

What is the key pathophysiological reason for this difference?

A

Transudate is buidup of fluid in interstital compartment, whereas exudate is also rich in proteins and cells.

Key difference is that exudate is formed when interendothelial gaps develop and allow extravasation of proteins

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44
Q

What type of bacteria is this?

A

Spirochete

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45
Q

What type of cell is this?

A

Lymphocyte

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45
Q

What is the funciton of the bacterial flagella?

A

Locomotion

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46
Q

What are parenchymal cells of an organ?

A

The functional cells in an organ

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47
Q

A raised neutrophil count indicates what?

A

acute inflammation, especially seen in bacterial infections

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48
Q

What type of bacteria is this?

A

Diplococci

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49
Q

What is the diameter of a platelet cell?

A

2-4 um

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51
Q

Cerebral infarction typically shows which type of necrosis?

A

Liqueficative

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53
Q

Where will lymph from the back drain to?

A

Axillary lymph nodes

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54
Q

What are simple squamous epithelia specialised for?

A

Diffusion and protection from abrasion

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55
Q

Thoracic vertebrae: in what plane are their articular facets and what movement does this permit?

A

Coronal

Rotation in coronal plane

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57
Q
A

A Annulus fibrosus

B Nucleus pulposus

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58
Q

Caseouos necrosis is classically seen in which disease?

A

Tuberculosis

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59
Q
A
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60
Q

List 4 examples of PAMPs

A

Lipopolysaccharide

Flagellin

Peptidoglycan

Viral DNA

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61
Q

What colour does Haematoxylin stain?

A

Blue

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62
Q

Which are the only cells that can produce antibodies?

A

B cells/plasma cells

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63
Q

Lumbar vertebrae: in what plane are their articular facets and what movement does this permit?

A

Sagittal

Flexion/extension

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64
Q

What are the 3 most common sites of microbe entry?

A

The GI tract, skin and respiratory tracts

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65
Q

Which 3 criteria are used to define a virus family?

A

1 Kind of nucleic acid (ss or ds RNA or DNA)
2 Strategy of replication
3 Morphology of the virion (symmetry of capsid, naked vs enveloped)

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67
Q
A

A = Z disc

B = myosin = thick filament

C = actin = thin filament

D = Sarcomere

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68
Q

What type of WBC is this?

A

Monocyte

69
Q

What type of WBC is this?

A

Neutrophil

71
Q

Define metaplasia

A

One differentiated cell type (epithelial or mesenchymal) is reversibly replaced with another cell type

72
Q

On what basis did Woese classify all living things?

A

Ribosomal RNA

72
Q

Name 5 features of the bacterial genome that are different from the human genome

A

1) A single chromosome
2) in a nucleoid with no nuclear membrane
3) single double-stranded DNA that is looped and supercoiled,
4) No introns or exons;
5) bacteria may also have plasmids;

73
Q

Define dystrophic calcification and give an example

A

Abornal calcium depostits dye to damaged or necrotic tissue that has not been completely removed (eg atherosclerotic plaques)

74
Q

What type of tissue is this?

A

Cardiac muscle

75
Q

In which 4 locations are simple squamous epithelia found?

A

Endothelium,

mesothelium,

alveoli,

glomerulus

76
Q

What is the function of microvilli?

A

Increase surface area for absorption and secretion

76
Q

Elevated CRP levels indicates what?

What does CRP stand for?

A

Acute inflammation

C reactive protein

78
Q

Define virion

A

The virus particle

79
Q

What is the diametre of an RBC?

A

7.2 microns

81
Q

What type of tissue is this?

A

Cardiac muscle

82
Q

What is involution?

A

A decrease in cell number due to reduced functional demand

82
Q

What does a high lymphocyte count indicate?

A

Viral infection

83
Q

What is the lifespan of an RBC?

A

120 days

84
Q

Explain the 3 levels of structure in a peripheral nerve

A

1 Single axon ( often wrapped in myelin) wrapped in endoneurium.

2 Bundle of axons form a fascicle, surrounded by perineurium.

3 Bundle of fascicles form a peripheral nerve. Nerve surrounded by epineurium.

85
Q

What type of bacteria is this?

A

Staphylococci

86
Q

What are the functions of histamine in inflammation?

A

1 Vasodilation

2 Endothelial contraction –> increased permeability of microcirculation

87
Q

Define partial agonist

A

A drug that fails to produce maximal effects even when all receptors are bound by the drug

89
Q

CD8+ T cells are also known as what type of T cell?

A

Cytotoxic T cells

90
Q

What are the 8 cardinal features of pain?

A

Site

Quality

Severity

Time course

Context

Relieving factors

Aggravating factors

Associated features

92
Q

What are the 2 main functions of the bacterial cell wall?

A

1) Prevents osmotic lysis
2) Gives bacteria its shape

93
Q

What is the structure of collagen?

A

Formed by a triple helix of polypeptides called alpha chains

94
Q

What type of tissue is this?

A

Cardiac muscle

96
Q

What is the gold standard for identifying a virus?

A

VIral cultivation

98
Q

Give 2 examples of dense regular connective tissue

A

Tendons and ligaments

100
Q

What are the three essential features of a receptor?

A

1 A biological macromolecule or complex …

2 That binds to another molecule ….

3 and affects activity within a cell

100
Q

Define potency

A

Potency is the amount of drug required to produce 50% of the maximal response the drug is capable of inducing

101
Q

What are the 3 main components of the bacterial peptidoglycan cell wall?

A

N-acetyl-glucosamine, N-acetyl-muramic acid and a short peptide chain

101
Q

Define PAMPs

A

Molecular patterns found on micro-organisms, but not humans, that are recognised as non-self by cells of the innate immune system

102
Q

What are simple columnar epithelia specialised for?

A

secretion and absorption

103
Q

Define the viral envelope

A

Lipid membrane surrounding either the capsid or nucleocapsid that is formed by the host cells’ membrane (not present in all viruses)

Contains virus-encoded glycoproteins

104
Q

Between which 2 layers is the basement membrane found?

A

Epithelium and underlying connective tissue

105
Q

Describe the 4 steps in the mechanism of cell wall damage activating inflammation

A

1 Cell membrane damage activates phospholipase A2

2 Membrane lipids –> arachadonic acid

3 AA –> PG

4 PG –> leukotrienes

107
Q

What shape is a bacillus bacteria?

A

Rod

108
Q

Which structures do posterior rami innervate?

A

Superficial/intrinsic back muscles

Overlying skin of the back

Facet joints

110
Q

Define cellulitis

A

An infection of the deep layers of the skin and subcutaneous tissues by bacteria

111
Q

Pink on an H and E slide indicates what kind of compound?

A

Cationic and eosinophilic

113
Q

What colour will an acidophilic structure bind?

A

Pink/orange

114
Q

Define abscess

A

A localised collection of pus and necrotic tissue surrounded by inflamed tissues

115
Q

What type of blood cell is this?

A

Megakaryocyte

116
Q

What type of tissue is this?

A

Skeletal muscle

117
Q

Describe the mechanism of exudate formation

A

1 Vasodilation

2 Increased hydrostative pressure in capillary

3 Increased permeability of capillary wall due to contaction or retraction of endothelial cells

4 Escape of protein- and cell-rich fluid into interstitial comparment

5 Decrease in colloidal osmotic pressure

118
Q

What type of WBC is this?

A

Neutrophil

119
Q

Define efficacy

A
  • Efficacy is the probability of a drug activating a receptor once bound
  • Aka the degree to which a drug is able to produce maximal effects
120
Q

Define pharmacokinetics

A

What the body does to the drug

121
Q

What does Increased eosinophils indicate?

A

allergy and parasitic infections

122
Q

In immunology, what does PRR stand for?

A

Pattern recognition receptor

124
Q

What are the 3 types of fibre in connective tissue?

A

Collagen

Elastin

Reticulin

125
Q

Name these structures

A

A Vertebral body

B Lamina

C Spinous process

D Transverse process

E Pedicle

126
Q

What type of cell is this?

Describe 3 features that support your answer

A

Skeletal muscle

Striated

Multi nucleate

Peripheral nuclei

127
Q

What are the 2 primary lymphoid organs?

A

Bone marrow and thymus

128
Q

What is the function of myofibroblasts?

A

pull together damaged connective tissue to promote wound healing.

130
Q

Blue on an H and E slide indicates what kind of compound?

A

Acidic or anionic

131
Q

What is the function of reticulin?

A

It creates a supportive network for delicate organs such as the liver

133
Q

List the 3 secondary lymphoid organs

A

Spleen

Lymph nodes

Mucosal associated lymphatic tissue

134
Q

Define eedema.

A

Excessive fluid in interstitial compartment or body cavities

135
Q

What do naked viruses lack?

A

An envelope

136
Q

What are the 4 main functions of the basement membrane?

A

1) controls epithelial growth
2) selectively permeable barrier to nutrients
3) structural support
4) links epithelium to underlying tissue

138
Q

Which germ layer(s) is/are neurones derived from?

A

Ectoderm

139
Q

What type of cell is this?

A

Neutrophil

141
Q

What is the function of collagen type VII

A

Links basement membrane to underlying connective tissue

142
Q

What are 3 functions of the bacterial capsule?

A

increases virulence

protects against phagocytosis

prevents dehydration..

143
Q

Define pharmacodynamics

A

What the drug does to the body

145
Q

What type of collagen is basement membrane predominantly made of?

A

Type IV collagen

146
Q

What type of WBC is this?

A

Eosinophil

147
Q

What type of bacteria is this?

A

Streptococci

147
Q

What does DAMPs stand for?

A

Damage associated molecular patterns

148
Q

What is the funciton of epithelial cilia?

A

Rhythmic beating for movement of eg mucus out of respiratory tract or ovum along fallopian tube

149
Q

How long after entering tissue until neutrophils die?

A

Within hours

150
Q

Which vitamin is required for collagen synthesis?

A

Vitamin C

152
Q

List 3 places where type 1 collagen is found

A

Bone, tendons and ligaments

153
Q

What is the size of a bacterium?

A

1-2 um

154
Q

List 7 examples of permanent resident cells in connective tissue

A

Fibroblasts, myofibroblasts, macrophages, mast cells, osteoblasts, chondrocytes, adipocytes

156
Q

What are stromal cells?

A

Supportive cells in an organ

158
Q

Define atrophy

A

A reduction in tissue or organ size due to decrease in cell size and number and thus decreased metabolic activity

159
Q

A decrease in cell number due to reduced functional demand is termed what?

A

Involution

160
Q

In inflammation, which 3 substances causes an increase in inter-endotheilal gaps?

A

Histamine, bradykinin and leukotrines

161
Q

Define hyperplasia

A

Increase in cell number resulting in increased organ size/mass

162
Q

List 5 ways in which necrosis and apoptosis differ

A

Necrosis Apoptosis

Reversibility Yes, if early No

**Inflammation ** Yes Minimal

**Area **Large Small # cells

**Cell swelling ** Yes No

Cell membrane Disrupted Intact

163
Q

What does eosin bind to?

A

Cationic tissue (ie positively charged)

164
Q

In the peptidoglycan wall of the bacterium, how are the peptide chains connected?

A

Pentapeptide bridges

165
Q

What is the key feature of each of the 3 muscle types on light microscopy of a longitudinal section?

A

1 Skeletal = single nucleus at periphery of cell

2 Cardiac = central nuclei in branching fibres

3 Smooth = central elongated nuclei

166
Q

What type of WBC is this?

A

Monocyte

167
Q

A basophilic tissue will have an affinity for which dye?

A

Haematoxylin

169
Q

What colour will a basophilic structure stain?

A

Blue

170
Q

Where is type II collagen found?

A

cartilage

171
Q

Describe laminar blood flow and the relative positions of WBCs, platelets and RBCs

A

Larger components of blood are in centre of lumen, thus WBC > RBC > platelets from centre to periphery.

172
Q

Which WBC has a multil-lobed nucleus?

A

Neutrophils

173
Q

What does PAMPS stand for?

A

Pathogen associated molecular patterns

174
Q

Describe 3 steps in the pathophysiology of stasis in inflammation

A

1 Plasma fluid leaves vascular circulation, slowing blood flow

2 RBCs conglomerate

3 Laminar flow is altered and WBCs are marginated

175
Q

What groups did Woese divide all living things into?

A

Eukarya, archaea and bacteria.

176
Q

At what vertebral level does the spinal cord stop?

A

L1/L2

177
Q

List the 5 commonest patterns of necrosis

A

Coagulative

Liquefecation

Casseous

Fat necrosis

Fibrinoid

178
Q

Define hypertrophy

A

Increase in cell size, organ size and functional activity

180
Q

Where is histamine derived from?

A

Mast cells in pre-formed granules

181
Q

In which two locations are simple cuboidal epithelia found?

A

Thyroid follicles and renal tubules

182
Q

What type of WBC is this?

A

Monocyte

183
Q

What is the function of desmosomes/adherens junctions between epithelial cells?

A

Strong mechanical attachments between cells, linking their cytoskeletons

184
Q

Which is the largest WBC?

A

Monocyte

185
Q

What type of WBC is this?

A

Basophil

186
Q

What type of bacteria is this?

A

Diplobacillus

187
Q

What are the 3 main groups of plasma proteins?

A

Globulins, albumin and coagulants

188
Q

Name the 6 types of atypical connective tissue

A

Bone.
Cartilage.
Blood.
Adipose.
Haematopoietic.

Lymphatic

189
Q

Where is bradykinin derived from?

A

Plasma proteins

190
Q
A

A Articular facet for head of rib

B Superior/inferior articular facet

C Articular facet for tubercle of rib

191
Q

What are stratified squamous epithelia specialised for?

A

protection from abrasion

192
Q

Erector spinae muscles:

How would you identify them by palpation?

What movements do they support?

A

Between spinous process and ribs

Extension/flexion of the back

193
Q

What is the function of communicating/nexus/gap junctions between epithelial cells?

A

Allows passage of small molecules for communication

194
Q

Coagulative necrosis is typical of which damage to what type of organs?

A

Typical of infarction of solid organs (but not brain).

195
Q

What type of WBC is this?

A

Eosinophil

196
Q

What type of bacteria is this?

A

Streptobacilli

197
Q

Define capsid

A

The protective protein coat shell around the viral genome and forming the core of the virus particle

198
Q

Define affinity and how it is measured

A
  • Affinity is the probability or strength of a drug binding to its receptors
  • Measured with equilibrium dissociation constant

KA = drug concentration required for 50% occupancy of receptors

199
Q

What shape is the nucleus of a fibroblast?

A

Elongated

200
Q

What type of WBC is this?

A

Neutrophil

201
Q

What is the function of tight/occluding junctions between epithelial cells?

A

To seal the intercellular space to prevent passage of substances between cells

202
Q

Which is the most abundant WBC?

A

Neutrophil

203
Q

What type of tissue is this?

A

Smooth muscle

204
Q

What type of tissue is this?

A

Smooth muscle

205
Q

What does SARS stand for?

A

Severe acture respiratory syndrome

206
Q

What shape is a coccus bacteria?

A

Spherical

207
Q

How many pairs of chromosimes does a human have?

A

23 pairs

208
Q

What is the ECM of connective tissue composed of?

A

Ground substance and fibres

209
Q

How is haematocrit calculated?

A

volume RBC/volume blood

Nick's MD1 (28 decks)

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