Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Genitourinary Male > 19-4 > Flashcards

19-4 Flashcards

1
Q

presence of blood in the urine, may not be visible to the eye, may be microscopic

A

Hematuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

blood in the urine, visible to the naked eye

A

gross hematuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

upper urinary tract source includes

A

kidneys and ureters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

lower tract source includes

A

bladder and urethra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Microscopic hematuria in the male is most commonly from

A

benign prostatic hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Initial hematuria, the presence of blood at the beginning of the urinary stream that clears during the stream, implies

A

anterior (penile) urethral source

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Terminal hematuria, the presence of blood at the end of the urinary stream, implies

A

bladder neck or prostatic urethral source

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Total hematuria, the presence of blood throughout the urinary stream, implies

A

bladder or upper tract source

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Hematuria associated with renal colic suggests

A

ureteral stone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Irritative voiding symptoms in a young woman may suggest

A

acute bacterial infection and associated cystitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

absence of other symptoms, gross hematuria may be more indicative of…

A

tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Proteinuria and casts suggest…

A

renal origin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Irritative voiding symptoms, bacteriuria, and a positive urine culture in the female suggest…

A

urinary tract infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

responsible for most Urinary tract infections

A

Coliform bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

most common Coliform bacteria for UTI

A

E. coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

most common route of UTI

A

Ascending infection from the urethra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

most uncommon route of UTI

A

Hematogenous spread to the urinary tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Tx for Acute Cystitis

A
  • Nitrofurantoin (Macrobid)
  • Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxaz (Bactrim)
  • Ciprofloxacin
  • & Phenazopyridine (Pyridium)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Women who have more than how many episodes of cystitis per year are considered candidates for prophylactic antibiotic therapy?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

3 most commonly used oral agents for prophylaxis are:

A

1) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
2) Nitrofurantoin
3) Cephalexin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Infectious inflammatory disease involving the kidney parenchyma and renal pelvis.

A

Pyelonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what are the most common causative agents of Pyelonephritis?

A

Gram-negative bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  • Fever
  • Flank pain
  • Irritative voiding symptoms (urgency, frequency, dysuria)
  • Rigors
  • Nausea and vomiting
  • Diarrhea
  • Tachycardia
  • CVA tenderness
A

S&S of Pyelonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Treatment for Pyelonephritis

A
  • Ampicillin & Gentamicin
  • Ciprofloxacin
  • Levofloxacin
  • & Phenazopyridine (Pyridium)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Inflammation and infection of the prostate gland

A

Acute Prostatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Acute Prostatitis is usually caused by

A

gram-negative rods

E coli and Pseudomonas species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
  • Warm and often exquisitely tender prostate is detected on examination
  • Perineal, sacral, or suprapubic pain
  • Fever
  • Irritative voiding symptoms
A

S&S of Acute Prostatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Tx for Severe Prostatitis

A
  • Ampicillin & gentamicin
  • 4-6 week course of therapy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Tx for Acute Prostatitis

A
  • Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
  • Levofloxacin (Levaquin)
  • Acetaminophen/NSAIDS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Chronic Bacterial Prostatitis

A
  • Irritative voiding symptoms
  • Low back and perineal pain
  • Suprapubic discomfort
  • Hx of UTIs
  • Abnormal prostatic secretions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Tx for Chronic Bacterial Prostatitis

A
  • Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim)
  • Ciprofloxacin/Levofloxacin
  • NSAIDS
  • Sitz bath
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q
  • following heavy lifting, trauma, or sexual activity
  • pain in the scrotum, radiates along spermatic cord or to the flank
  • Fever
  • Irritative voiding sx
  • Scrotal swelling
  • elevation of the scrotum improves pain
A

Epididymitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Tx for Sexually transmitted Epididymitis

A
  • Ceftriaxone (Rocephin)
  • PLUS Doxycycline
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Tx for Non-sexually transmitted Epididymitis

A
  • Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim)
  • Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
  • Levofloxacin (Levaquin)
  • NSAIDS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q
  • colicky stabbing ipsilateral flank pain
  • severe localized flank pain
  • nausea & vomiting
  • occurs suddenly
  • constantly moving to find comfortable position
  • pain radiates over abdomen, referred to ipsilateral groin
A

Renal Calculi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Tx for Renal Calculi

A
  • Alpha-blockers Tamsulosin
  • NSAIDS
  • Prednisone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Prevention for Renal Calculi

A
  • Dietary mods:
  • increase water intake
  • decrease salt
  • decrease protein intake
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Tx for Erectile Dysfunction

A
  • Phosophodiesterase-5 inhibitor:
  • Sidenafil (Viagra)
  • Vardenadil (Levitra)
  • Tadalafil (Cialis)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Most common benign tumor in men and its incidence is age related…

A

Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy

40
Q

At age 55, approximately what % of men report obstructive voiding symptoms?

A

25%

41
Q

At age 75, what % of men report decrease in the force and caliber of the urinary stream?

A

50%

42
Q
  • obstructive or irritative voiding sx
  • may have enlarged prostate on DRE
  • sensation of incomplete bladder emptying
A

Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy

43
Q

Labs for Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy

A

Prostate specific antigen test (PSA)

44
Q

Tx for Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy

A
  • AUA less than 7 watchful waiting
  • Alpha-blocker (Tamsulosin)
  • 5-alpha-reductase inhibitors (Finasteride)
  • Phosphdiesterase-5 inhibitors (Tadalafil)
45
Q

When should you refer Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy?

A

AUA score < 7

46
Q

Most common non-cutaneous cancer in American men and second leading cause of cancer related death in men.

A

Prostate Cancer

47
Q

3 Common Risk factors of Prostate Cancer:

A
  1. African-American
  2. FMHx Prostatic Cancer
  3. Hx of high dietary fat intake
48
Q
  • Prostatic firmness on DRE
  • Asymptomatic
  • May have systemic sx
A

Prostate Cancer

49
Q

what % of men with 4.1 - 10 ng/mL will be found to
have prostate cancer?

A

8 - 30%

50
Q

what % of men with <10 ng/mL will be found to have prostate cancer?

A

50% - 70%

51
Q

what is the standard method for detection and confirmation of prostate cancer?

A

Transrectal ultrasound guided biopsy

52
Q

Prostate specific antigen testing baseline at what age?

A

50 y/o

53
Q

Prostate specific antigen testing w/ risk factors at what age?

A

40-45y/o

54
Q

3 Common Risk factors for Prostate Cancer:

A
  1. African American male
  2. FMhHx of Prostate Cancer
  3. BRCA1 or BRCA2
55
Q

Tx for Prostate Cancer

A
  • Active surveillance
  • Prostatectomy
  • Radiation therapy
56
Q

Tx for Scrotal Trauma

A
  • Blunt or Penetrating refer to Urology
  • Lacerations or avulsions can be repaired by IDC
57
Q

Necrotizing fasciitis (polymicrobial infection) of the subcutaneous tissues of the perineum often involving the scrotum.

A

Fournier’s Gangrene

58
Q
  • Pain out of proportion to exam
  • tense edema
  • fever
  • scrotal, rectal, or genitalia pain
  • abscess
  • crepitus
A

Fournier’s Gangrene

59
Q

Tx for Fournier’s Gangrene

A
  • Ertapenem
  • Fluids
  • MEDEVAC
60
Q
  • dilation of the pampiniform plexus of spermatic veins, generally left sided
  • Usually asymptomatic mass, separate from testis
  • Feels like “bag of worms”
  • Size increased by Valsalva maneuver.
A

Varicocele

61
Q
  • Collection of peritoneal fluid between the parietal and visceral layers around the testes and spermatic cord
  • Gradually enlarging painless cystic mass
  • Transilluminates
A

Hyrdocele

62
Q
  • fluid filled cyst at the head of the epididymis that may contain nonviable sperm.
  • Painless
  • Palpated as distinct from the testis
  • Typically transilluminates as cystic in nature
A

Spermatocele

63
Q

diagnostic imaging of choice for scrotal and testicular abnormalities

A

Ultrasound

64
Q
  • Age 20-35 years
  • Painless enlargement of the testes
  • Sensation of heaviness
  • Diffuse testicular enlargement
  • Sensation of heaviness
A

Testicular Cancer

65
Q

If you suspect a patient has a testicular tumor, you can run a…

A

urine hCG

66
Q

Tx for Testicular Cancer for Diagnosis is made by…

A

inguinal orchiectomy

67
Q
  • Acute onset
  • constant unilateral groin pain
  • occurs after trauma or spontaneously
  • unrelieved w/ elevation
  • common in young adults
  • nausea and vomiting
A

Testicular Torsion

68
Q

Tx for Testicular Torsion

A
  • Manual detorsion
  • MEDEVAC if doesn’t detorse manually
69
Q
  • Fibrous constriction of the foreskin preventing retraction
  • Can be the result of Balanitis, Balanoposthitis
  • May cause urinary retention
A

Phimosis

70
Q

Tx for Phimosis

A
  • Foley catheter/Suprapubic catheterization
  • Good hygiene
  • Topical antifungal: Clotrimazole, Miconazole
71
Q

Urologist can perform what to temporize Phimosis?

A

dorsal slit circumcision

72
Q

Definitive treatment for Phimosis?

A

complete circumcision

73
Q
  • True Urologic emergency
  • fixed constricted foreskin
  • swollen and painful
  • gangrenous
  • urinary retention
A

Paraphimosis

74
Q

Tx for Paraphimosis

A
  • compress the glans 5-10min
  • 2in elastic band for 5min
  • icing area
  • dorsal slit
  • circumcision
75
Q

increase in serum creatinine is characterized as…

A

Acute Kidney Injury

76
Q

AKI can be divided into 3 categories:

A
  1. Prerenal
  2. Instrinsic kidney disease
  3. Postrenal
77
Q

what AKI is (low blood flow or pressure)?

A

Prerenal

78
Q

what AKI is (Obstructive)?

A

Postrenal

79
Q

MOST common etiology of AKI is…

A

Prerenal

80
Q

Most common electrolyte abnormality in hospitalized patients?

A

Hyponatremia

81
Q

Hyponatremia is defined as serum sodium concentration less than

A

135

82
Q

Tx for Hyponatremia

A
  • Restriction of free water
83
Q
  • Dehydrated patient
  • Lethargy
  • Irritability
  • Weakness
A

Hypernatremia

84
Q

Hypernatremia is defined as serum sodium concentration more than…

A

145

85
Q

Hypokalemia is defined as serum potassium concentration less than…

A

3.5

86
Q

Severe hypokalemia may induce…

A

arrhythmias and rhabdomyolysis

87
Q
  • Muscular weakness, Fatigue, Muscle cramps
  • Flaccid paralysis
  • Hyporeflexia
  • Hypercapnia
  • Tetany
  • Rhabdomyolysis
A

Hypokalemia

88
Q

The most common cause of hypokalemia is…

A

gastrointestinal loss from infectious diarrhea

89
Q
  • Muscular weakness
  • Fatigue
  • Muscle cramps
  • Flaccid paralysis
  • Hyporeflexia
  • Hypercapnia
  • Tetany
  • Arrhythmias
  • Rhabdomyolysis
A

Hypokalemia

90
Q

Hypokalemia will show what on EKG?

A

ST depression

91
Q

Tx for Hypokalemia

A
  • Oral potassium supplement
92
Q

Hyperkalemia is defined as serum potassium concentration greater than…

A

5.0

93
Q

what meds cause Hyperkalemia?

A
  • ACE inhibitors
  • Angiotensin receptors
  • Potassium diuretics
94
Q
  • Muscle weakness
  • Flaccid paralysis
  • Ileus
A

Hyperkalemia

95
Q

Hyperkalemia will show what on EKG?

A

Peaked T waves

V-Fib

96
Q

Tx for Hyperkalemia

A
  • withholding potassium
  • insulin, bicarbonate, and beta-agonists
  • Hemodialysis chronic kidney injury
  • Loop diuretics: Furosemide

Genitourinary Male (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions