19.01.07 Transcription, mRNA processing (excluding splicing) and translation Flashcards

Transcription, mRNA processing (excluding splicing) and translation (49 cards)

1
Q

Central dogma

A

The expression of genetic information in a cell is almost exclusively unidirectional. DNA>RNA>protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Where does transcription occur

A

Nucleus (limited extent in mitochondrial)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What direction is RNA synthesised?

A

5’ to 3’, complimentary to template (anti sense strand) with same bases except U/T.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

how many classes of RNA polymerase molcules

A

3 (I, II, III)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

how does transcription start

A

-Transcription factors bind to the promoter region and position RNA polymerase to initiate RNA synthesis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Are transcription factors trans- acting?

A

Yes, migrate to sites of action following synthesis by remotely located genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Are promoters trans-acting

A

No, they are cis-acting. Function is limited to the duplex on which they reside.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What other elements are cis-acting

A

Other than promoters, enhancers and silencers are also cis-acting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Elements of promoters

A

TATA box, GC box, CAAT box

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

TATA box

A

TATAAA sequence. 25-35 bp upstream of transcriptional start site. Able to define direction of transcription, indicates the DNA strand to be read. Mutations can cause transcription to begin at an incorrect location

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

GC box

A

Variant of GGGCGG. 110bp upstream of transcriptional site. Can function in both directions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

CAAT box

A

GGCCAATCT. 80bps upstream. Strongest determination of promoter efficiency. Functions in both directions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Mutations in promoters

A

1% of single base pair substitutions causing genetic disease occur in promoter regions. Disrupt transcription initiation (alter/abolish cis-activing DNA sequence motids for trans acting TFs), leading to altered amounts of mRNA and thus protein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

enhancers

A

Enhance transcriptional activity. Variable distrance from start site. Function independent of orientation. Cause DNA between promotor and enhancer to loop out.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

silencer

A

inhibit transcriptional activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Main steps of RNA processing

A

5’ capping, 3’ polyadenylation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

5’ capping, when does it occur

A

During elongation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

functions of 5’ capping

A

protect from 5’ - 3’ exonuclease activity. Facilitate transport from nucleus to cytoplasm, facilitate RNA splicing. Attaches 40s subunity of ribosome to mRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What happens during 5’ capping

A

methylated nucleoside, m7g (7-methylguanosine), is linked to the 5’ end of RNA by a phosphodiester bond.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

3’ polyadenylation

A

AAUAAA (or AUUAAA) signal sequence is sequentially added by pol(A)polymerase, around 200 added, to form a poly(A) tail. Acts as a signal for 3’ cleavage for RNA pol II transcripts

21
Q

Functions of 3’ polyadenylation

A

Facilitates mRNA transport to cytoplasm, stabilises mRNA molecules, facilitates translation

22
Q

Mutations affecting 3’polyadenylation

A

rare. Causes read0-through and reduced accumulation of alpha-haemoglobin in haemoglobin H (HbH) disease.

23
Q

rRNA processing

A

RNA polymerase I makes a large pre-rRNA molecule. Then cut into 3 pieces: 18S, 5.8S and 28S

24
Q

What makes 5S (smallest eukaryote rRNA

A

RNA polymerase III

25
Translation
mRNA transcribed from genes in nuclear DNA, migrates to cytoplasm and engages with ribosomes, tRNA and other components to direct polypeptide synthesis.
26
Functions of untranslated regions (UTRs)
Stabilise mRNA on ribosomes for translation of the central segment
27
Mutation in 5'UTR
BRCA1 has an alpha and beta promoter which encode transcripts with different 5'UTR lengths. The longer is translated less efficiently. Cancerous breast tissue has the longer 5'UTR transcript so BRCA1 protein expression is inhibited in cancer tissue.
28
Ribosomes
RNA-protein complexes
29
Structure of a ribosome
2 subunits: 60S and 40S subunits.
30
Ribosome 60s composed of
28S, 5.8S and 5S rRNAs, with various ribosomal proteins (50)
31
Ribosome 40s composed of
18S rRNA and >30 ribosomal proteins
32
How many ribosome biding sites
3. A site (aminoacyl-tRNA), P site (peptidyl- tRNA), E site (for tRNA released following peptidyl transferase reaction)
33
What is tRNA
75-95 nt ribonucleotides in length
34
What do tRNAs do
Mediate decoding of mRNA sequence. Have a specific amino acid covalently bound to acceptor arm by amino acyl tRNA synthetases
35
How many types of tRNA synthetases
20 (1 specific to each amino acid).
36
What does the tRNA acceptor arm contain
Sequence to allow discrimitation of tRNAs by tRNA synthetases.
37
tRNA anti codon sequence
This recognises the complimentary mRNA codon.
38
Steps of translation
Initiation, elongation, termination
39
What initiates mRNA translation
Binding of tRNAfmet to P (peptidyl) site.
40
What is then delivered to A (aminoacyl site)
tRNA in complex with elongation factor= EF-Tu-GTP
41
What happens when codon-anticodon pairing occurs
Activates GTPase centre of ribosome, causing hydrolysis of GTP and the release of aminoacyl end of tRNA from EF-TU.
42
What also happens when tRNA binds
COnformation changes in rRNA, optimally orientates the peptidyl-tRNA and aminoacyl-tRNA for the peptidyl-transferase reaction to occur.
43
What happens during the peptidyl-transferase reaction
transfer of the peptide chain onto the A-site tRNA
44
How does the ribosome shift in the 3' mRNA direction
GTPase EF-G casuses the deacylated tRNA at the P site to move to the E (exit) site and the peptidyl-tRNA at the A site to move to the P site upon GTP hydrolysis.
45
When is the deacylated tRNA in the E site released
Upon binding of the next aminoacyl-tRNA to the A site.
46
When does elongation end
when stop codon is reached. No tRNAs complimentary to the stop codon. Leads to hydrolysis of the bond between tRNA and polypeptide at the P site. They are then released and ribosomal subunits and template dissociate
47
How many combinations of codons for amino acids
64 possible codons (4 bases at 3 positions, 4^3) with 20 amino acids
48
Wobble hypothesis
allows interpretation of all 64 codons. 5' end of anticodon can bind any of the several bases at 3' end of codon.
49
When does nuclear-encoded mRNA translation stop
When a termination codon is encountered (UAA, UAG, UGA)