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PATT March 2014 PMK Training > PMK: NAVEDTRA 14145 > Flashcards

PMK: NAVEDTRA 14145 Flashcards

1
Q

Which, if any, of the following classified material does not require controlled routing? [Page 2-44]

  • Top Secret
  • None of the answers
  • Secret
  • Confidential
A

Confidential

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2
Q

When assigning precedence to a message, which of the following factors should you consider?
[Page 2-31]

  • Desired delivery time
  • Both-Importance of the subject and desired delivery time
  • Importance of the subject
  • Seniority of the originator
A

Both-Importance of the subject and desired delivery time

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3
Q

A message is released at 1930 hours Greenwich Mean Time on 2 January 1991. What is the correctly stated date-time group (DTG) assigned to the message? [Page 2-33]

  • 1930Z 02JAN91
  • 021930Z JAN 91
  • 193002Z JAN 91
  • 02JAN91 1930Z
A

021930Z JAN 91

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4
Q

The order that references appear in the reference block of a naval letter is based on which of the following factors?

  • The numerical listing
  • The OPNAV/SECNAV number assigned
  • The length of the title of the reference
  • The order in which they appear in the text
A

The order in which they appear in the text

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5
Q

If a command is the “information addressee” on a message, which of the following actions, if any, should the command take concerning the message? [Page 2-30]

  • Route the message to concerned officers to determine the action addressee’s responsibilities
  • Whatever action is required within the command
  • The actions directed by the action addressee
  • None of the above
A

Whatever action is required within the command

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6
Q

Messages addressed to address indicating groups (AIGs) would most likely contain which of the following types of information? [Page 2-35]

  • Personnel changes of station
  • Destructive storm warnings
  • Emergency leave requests
  • Directive changes
A

Destructive storm warnings

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7
Q

To make your writing more like speaking, you should use which of the following writing techniques? [Page 2-48]

  • Use everyday words
  • All of the answers
  • Use personal pronouns
  • Use short sentences
A

All of the answers

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8
Q

A rough draft of naval correspondence to be reviewed by a drafting officer should contain which of the following types of information? [Page 2-37]

  • Two ideas in each sentence and more than one central thought in each paragraph
  • All information pertaining to the subject
  • One subject, clearly and concisely written
  • The smallest details of all the facts
A

One subject, clearly and concisely written

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9
Q

Who is responsible for the selection of message precedence? [Page 2-31]

  • Drafter
  • Releaser
  • Originator
  • Addressee
A

Drafter

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10
Q

Unless otherwise directed, all naval message directives are automatically canceled after what maximum period of time? [Page 2-36]

  • 12 months
  • 90 days
  • 6 months
  • 30 days
A

90 days

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11
Q

What is the maximum time a person may be assigned to a Level II counseling program? [Page
3-20]

  • 6 months
  • 2 months
  • 6 weeks
  • 4 weeks
A

4 weeks

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12
Q

Abuse of which of the following types of drugs may result in reoccurring effects months after the drug has been taken? [Page 3-11]

  • Narcotics
  • Stimulants
  • Hallucinogens
  • Depressants
A

Hallucinogens

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13
Q 
Alcohol is classified as what type of drug? [Page 3-15]
• Depressant 
• Hallucinogen
• Stimulant
• Narcotic
A

Depressant

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14
Q

Which of the following characteristics or symptoms identifies a person suffering from Alcoholism? [Page 3-15]

  • Infrequent consumption
  • Psychological dependence
  • Physical dependence
  • Both physical and psychological dependence
A

Both physical and psychological dependence

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15
Q

Volatile chemical abuse is usually indicated by which of the following conditions? [Page 3-12]

  • Constricted pupils
  • White substance around the nostrils
  • Smell of the chemical on the breath
  • Clear whites of the eyes
A

Smell of the chemical on the breath

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16
Q

The Navy operates how many alcohol rehabilitation centers (NAVALREHCEN)? [Page 3-21]

  • 5
  • 4
  • 6
  • 3
A

4

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17
Q

Who must ensure that within a reasonable amount of time of the report of an offense that the accused is fully advised of his or her rights concerning a possible NJP? [Page 3-5]

  • Department head and division officer of the accused
  • Chief Master-at-arms
  • Legal Officer
  • Officer contemplating imposing NJP
A

Officer contemplating imposing NJP

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18
Q

Normally, which of the following signs is the first emotional reaction following a dose of heroin?
[Page 3-9]

  • A state of inactivity
  • A feeling of weightlessness
  • A feeling of relief
  • A state of extreme stress
A

A feeling of relief

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19
Q

Non-judicial punishment is better known in the Navy by which of the following titles? [Page 3-4]

  • Mast
  • Executive officers investigation
  • Captain’s Mast
  • Court-martial
A

Captain’s Mast

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20
Q

The Report and Disposition of Offense(s), NAVPERs 1626/7, contains all of the following information except [Page 3 -5]

  • Preliminary inquiry report
  • Action of the XO at screening mast
  • Record of any pre-mast restraint
  • All of the required pre-mast advice that must be given the accused
A

All of the required pre-mast advice that must be given the accused

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21
Q

Which of the following explanations is a purpose of the general emergency bill? [Page 4-7]

  • To provide detailed procedures for every emergency that can occur
  • To establish a plan for salvaging captured enemy vessels
  • To organize the crew to handle the effects of a major emergency
  • All of the answers
A

To organize the crew to handle the effects of a major emergency

22
Q

What minimum active service obligation must ECP selectees have before detaching from their present command? [Page 4-20]

  • 2 years
  • 6 years
  • 4 years
  • 3 years
A

4 years

23
Q

If you are a PO1 applicant for LDO and have met all requirements of CPO/SCPO applicants, which of the following additional requirements must you meet? [Page 4-19]

  • Have a final multiple score equal to or greater than the lowest FMS for PASS SELECTION BOARD ELIGIBLE
  • Have Personnel requirements for E-8 signed off
  • Have been awarded the Navy Commendation Medal
  • All of the above
A

Have a final multiple score equal to or greater than the lowest FMS for PASS SELECTION BOARD ELIGIBLE

24
Q

This person recommends final qualification to the commanding officer. [Page 4-13]

  • Commanding Off1cer
  • Executive Officer
  • PQS Coordinator
  • Department Head
A

Department Head

25
Q

Which of the following commissioning programs provides the Navy with officers who are technical specialists in their fields? [Page 4 - 15]

  • Chief Warrant Officer Program
  • Limited Duty Officer Program
  • Enlisted Commissioning Program
  • Officer Candidate School Program
A

Chief Warrant Officer Program

26
Q

When making duty assignments such a general quarters stations or a cleaning station, who should be assigned responsibility for that duty? [Page 4-4]

  • A specific person
  • A specific work center
  • The division
  • The department
A

A specific person

27
Q

The right to exercise authority over all subordinate personnel comes from which of the following articles? [Page 4-2]

  • Article 1037
  • Article 1023
  • Article 1132
  • Article 1020
A

Article 1020

28
Q

Which of the following persons has the final authority to withhold a privilege? [Page 4 -3]

  • Division Chief Petty Officer
  • Work Center Supervisor
  • Commanding Officer
  • All of the answers
A

Commanding Officer

29
Q

The authority which is granted to all officers and petty officer to fulfill their duties and responsibilities is known as what type of authority? [BMR, Page 4 -2]

  • General
  • Unlimited
  • Organizational
  • Meritorious
A

General

30
Q

Which of the following personnel has the authority to administer non-judicial punishment? [Page
4-2]

  • Chief Petty Officer
  • Executive officer
  • Petty Officer who is E-6 and above
  • Commanding Officer
A

Commanding Officer

31
Q

When placed in a survival Situation, what publication(s) give(s) the senior person the authority to be in charge? [Page 6-16]

  • Code of Conduct
  • Navy Regulations
  • Both Code of Conduct and Navy Regulations
A

Both Code of Conduct and Navy Regulations

32
Q

A heat stress survey should be conducted whenever the work station dry-bulb reading exceeds what temperature? [Page 6-14]

  • 80 degrees F
  • 90 degrees F
  • 75 degrees F
  • 100 degrees F
A

100 degrees F

33
Q

Mishaps are investigated for which of the following reasons? [Page 6-1]

  • To prevent repeats of the mishap
  • To correct unsafe conditions
  • To avoid major accidents
  • All of the answers
A

To correct unsafe conditions

34
Q

Which of the following factors is important in a survival situation and greatly reduces your chances of survival and escape if it is lost? [Page 6-21]

  • Your knowledge of the area
  • Your ability to understand the language of your enemy
  • Your ability to find enough food
  • Your health and strength and that of your group
A

Your knowledge of the area

35
Q

Experience has proved that “model” POW camps, where food is regular and t treatment is considerate, fall into which of the following categories? [Page 6-18]

  • They are the exception
  • They are located only in enemy territory
  • They are the normal camps
  • They are only found within 100 miles of the front lines
A

They are the exception

36
Q

Which of the following forms can be used to document a safety observation or a JSA? [Page 6-4]

  • OPNAV Form 5100/14
  • Either OPNAV Form 1348/6 or OPNAV Form 5100/4
  • A locally prepared form
  • OPNAV Form 1348/6
A

Either OPNAV Form 1348/6 or OPNAV Form 5100/4

37
Q

Which of the following publications outlines the command safety program and the safety organization?
[Page 6-3]

  • Standard Organization and Regulations of the US. Navy
  • Navy Occupational Safety and Health Program
  • Navy Safety Precautions for Forces Afloat
  • U. S. Navy Safety Precautions Manual
A

Standard Organization and Regulations of the US. Navy

38
Q

The tag-out log has 4 sections maintained within the log. [Page 6-15]

  • True
  • False
A

True

39
Q

The most common deterrent to successful evasion is a negative attitude. A negative attitude can be related to, caused by or a lack of which of the following survival traits? [Page 6-17]

  • Patience
  • Security
  • Common sense
  • All of the answers
A

All of the answers

40
Q

Having wounded personnel in a survival situation can place a strain in the group. Which of the following policies will help to ease the strain? [Page 6-20]

  • Injured and wounded will be directed toward the nearest Red Cross-sanctioned POW camp
  • Wounded and injured persons will NOT be left behind
  • Before leaving wounded and injured persons behind, first aid will be provided
  • Each person must look out for himself
A

Wounded and injured persons will NOT be left behind

41
Q

Your signature on the tag-out log after an audit serves which of the following purposes? [Page6-15]

  • That you have seen the log
  • That you have signed “By direction” for the commanding officer
  • That you have found no errors in the log
  • That the log is verified up to date
A

That the log is verified up to date

42
Q

Evading the enemy in open woods is difficult because under favorable conditions enemy observers are able to see up to what maximum distance? [Page 6-17]

  • 250 yards
  • 200 yards
  • 100 yards
  • 150 yards
A

100 yards

43
Q

Which of the following tasks requires that you wear eye protection while performing the job? [Page 6-114]

  • Sandblasting
  • Commanding officer
  • Safety petty officer
  • All of the answers
A

All of the answers

44
Q

Being capture does not mean that you cannot still be useful to your country. If captured, your duty is to take which of the following action? [Page 6-18]

  • Resist the enemy by all possible means
  • Promise the enemy you won’t try to escape
  • Provide any information the enemy wants
  • Work for the enemy to get special favors
A

Resist the enemy by all possible means

45
Q

In the art of survival, which of the following requirements permits you to see but not be seen?
[Page 6-17]

  • Your sight
  • Camouflage
  • The terrain
  • Your hearing
A

Camouflage

46
Q

If you are the senior person in a survival at-sea situation, you will be responsible for making sure your group is safe. Which of the following techniques will aid you in boosting morale? [Page 6-19]

  • Singing
  • Praying
  • Joking
  • All of the answers
A

All of the answers

47
Q

Mishaps in the Navy are most often caused by the actions of people? [Page 6-1]

  • True
  • False
A

True

48
Q

A mishap that results in which of the following circumstances should be investigated? [Page 6-1]

  • When damage exceeds $500
  • When a tool drops from aloft but causes no injuries
  • When the injured worker needs minor medical attention
  • All of the answers
A

All of the answers

49
Q

If you and your group are isolated behind enemy lines, your chances of making it to friendly forces can be greatly enhanced if you always remember the meaning of the letters in what key word? [Page 6-20]

  • Capture
  • Regulation
  • Evasion
  • Survival
A

Survival

50
Q

All persons placed in a survival situation feel which of the following useful emotions? [Page 6-15]

  • Exhaustion
  • Fear
  • Frustration
  • Confusion
A

Fear

PATT March 2014 PMK Training (8 decks)

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