Firecracker 2 Flashcards

1
Q

BLANK, a drug that inhibits 11β-hydroxlase (the final enzyme required to make cortisol), is used to determine cause of hypofunctional pituitary.

A

metyrapone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How does carbamazepine interact with the CYP-450 system?

A

inducer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

acts as a blocker of sodium channels. It is effective in the treatment of partial seizures.

A

carbamazepine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Carbamazepine side effects.

A

Steven-Johnson Syndrome and blood dyscrasias (angranulocytosis, aplastic anemia).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Local anesthetics are often given with what other type of agent and why?

A

Often given with vasoconstrictors → increased local concentration while limiting systemic spread.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are some side effects that can result from systemic toxicity of local anesthetics?

A

CNS: Tinnitus, disorientation, seizures.
CV: Hypotension, dysrhythmias, cardiac arrest.
GI: Nausea and vomiting.
Pulm: Respiratory arrest.
Imm: Local allergic reaction and even anaphylaxis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Prevents disaccharides in the gut from their final degradation into monosaccharide by brush border enzymes prior to absorption.

A

α-glucosidase inhibitors: The 2 commonly used medications include Acarbose and Miglitol.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which commonly used non-volatile anesthetic agent is contraindicated in situations of increased ICP?

A

Ketamine (increases cerebral metabolic rate and cerebral blood volume)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is an example of a partial opioid agonist approved for opioid detoxification regimens?

A

Buprenorphine, a partial agonist of the μ receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

acts on μ receptors in the CNS and results in a hyperpolarization of synaptic potentials and thus inhibits nerve fibers. It also acts at k receptors in the dorsal horn of the spinal chord to decrease the release of Substance P which mediates pain sensation.

A

Morphine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Potentiates the effect of GABA by increasing the duration of chloride channel opening. (Unlike BZDs, these drugs cause direct opening of Cl channels and can thus lead to overdose.)

A

Barbituates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the black box warning for droperidol?

A

can prolong QT interval (progressing to Torsades de pointes and ventricular fibrillation).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Commonly used medications include Glyburide, glipizide, and tolbutamide

A

sulfonylureas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What non-neurological adverse effects are associated with topiramate use and why?

A

also inhibits carbonic anhydrase, and resultant glaucoma, oligohydrosis, and hyperthermia have been reported. It is also associated with nephrolithiasis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

has several mechanisms of action including the blockage of sodium channels and the enhancement of GABA activity. It is approved for the treatment of partial seizures and generalized tonic-clonic seizures.

A

topiramate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

GABA analog which curiously does not activate GABA receptors but instead may inhibit voltage gated calcium channels. It is approved as adjunct therapy for partial seizures and treatment of post-herpetic neuralgia.

A

Gabapentin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is octreotide and what disorders can it be used to treat?

A

The drug octreotide is a somatostatin analogue used to block diarrhea associated with VIPomas, or high levels of GH or TSH from pituitary adenomas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

These drugs interfere with the function of thyroid peroxidase in organification of dietary iodide and conjugation to thyroglobulin.

A

Thioamides: Include PTU (propylthiouracil) and methimazole.

19
Q

Inhibits T-type calcium channels in the thalamus. It is indicated as for treatment of generalized absence seizures and has a very narrow therapeutic window.

A

Ethosuximide

20
Q

Ethosuximide side effects

A

Steven-Johnson, fatigue, GI distress, itching, headache

21
Q

name two short acting insulines

A

semilente

regular

22
Q

onset and duration of regular insulin

A

15 min onset, 2-5 hr duration

23
Q

onset and duration of semilente insulin

A

15 min onset, 12 hr duration

24
Q

what three tissues/organ systems are the major targets of insulin

A

liver, adipose tissue, skeletal muscle

25
Q

Serotonin Syndrome: occurs when SSRIs are co-administered with any drug that can increase serotonin levels (e.g. Sinners SELl Drugs That MAke ME TRIP)

A
St John’s Wort (Sinners and Saints!) 
SELlective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors
Dextromethorphan
TCAs
MAO inhibitors
MEperidine
TRIPtans (anti-migrane medications)
26
Q

What are the 2 GLP-1 analogs commonly used in DM2 treatment?

A

exenatide and liraglutide

27
Q

How do GLP-1 analogs work??

A

Diabetes can also cause the suppression of GLP-1 release. This leads to excessive hepatic glucose output. GLP-1 analogs work by increasing insulin and decreasing glucagon output.

28
Q

exhibits broad-spectrum antiseizure activity via the blocking of sodium channels as well as high voltage gated calcium channels.

A

lamotrigine

29
Q

is metabolized by the UGT system, and its half-life will be significantly decreased when combined with drugs which induce these enzymes (carbamazepine and phenytoin).

A

lamotrigine

30
Q

lamotrigine side effect

A

steven johnson

31
Q

a synthetic opioid with high affinity for μ receptors, it is indicated for acute pain.

A

meperideine

32
Q

a prodrug which may be injected intramuscularly and is rapidly converted to phenytoin in the blood.

A

fosphenytoin

33
Q

What can be used to treat benzodiazepine toxicity?

A

flumazenil

34
Q

What is the treatment for Wilson’s disease?

A

penicillamine

35
Q

Where does preprohormone synthesis occur?

A

ER

36
Q

How is a preprohormone converted to a prohormone?

A

cleavage of a signal peptide in the ER.

37
Q

where is a prohormone converted to a hormone?

A

Golgi apparatus

38
Q

In what settings does vitamin D cause bone resorption (breakdown)?

A

hypocalcemia, hypervitaminosis D

39
Q

The actions of WHAT produce a coordinated increase in both [Ca2+] and [phosphate] in the ECF in order to form a solubility product that favors the mineralization of bone.

A

Vitamin D

40
Q

Vitamin D effect on intestines

A
  • ↑ Absorption of Ca2+ via induction of vitamin-D dependent Ca2+-binding protein (calbindin-D-28K)
  • ↑ Absorption of phosphate
41
Q

Vitamin D effect on kidneys

A
  • ↑ Reabsorption of Ca2+

- ↑ Reabsorption of phosphate

42
Q

Vitamin D effect on bones

A
  • ↑ Resorption of Ca2+ (Note: This occurs in the setting of hypocalcemia or hypervitaminosis D.)
  • ↑ Resorption of phosphate
43
Q

In the hypothalamic-pituitary system, which two hormones does somatostatin inhibit?

A

GH and TSH