1st 50 Flashcards
(230 cards)
1
Q
ITU along which other organization details Distress, Urgency and Safety procedures?
A
ICAO
2
Q
What is the condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminet danger and requiring immediate assistance defined as?
A
Distress
3
Q
Which condition concerns the security of a ship, aircraft or other vehicle, or of some person on board or within sight, but which does not require immediate assistance?
A
Urgency
4
Q
Which type of traffic has absolute priority over all other transmissions?
A
Distress
5
Q
Which service is between coast stations and ship stations, or between ship stations, in which survival craft stations may also participate?
A
Maritime Mobile Service
6
Q
Which organization administers the Global Maritime Distress and Safety System?
A
IMO
7
Q
Which year was the Global Maritime Distress and Safety System fully implemented?
A
1999
8
Q
Approximately how many nautical miles are GMDSS Area A1 Operational areas from shore based VHF coast stations?
A
20-30
9
Q
Approximately how many nautical miles are GMDSS Area A1 Operational areas from shore based MF coast Stations?
A
100-150
10
Q
Which system uses modern technology , including satellite and digital selective calling techniques on MF,HF, and VHF bands, known as terrestrial systems, enabling a distress alert to be transmitted and received automatically over short and long distances?
A
GMDSS
11
Q
Which procedure comprise all the communications relating to the immediate assistance required by the mobile station in trouble?
A
Distress
12
Q
Which word when using voice does the distress signal contain
A
MAYDAY
13
Q
What are the two primary sinusoidal audio frequency tones transmitted alternatively in alarm signals used to warn operators that a distress call or message is to follow?
A
2200 Hz and 1300 Hz
14
Q
How many seconds is the alarm signal continuously sent to warn operators that a distress call or message is to follow?
A
30-60
15
Q
Which paging technique is used to automate the initial call between two stations that operates on MF,HF and VHF marine bands for distress, urgency, and safety alerting?
A
DSC
16
Q
How many times is MAYDAY spoken during a distress call?
A
3
17
Q
How many times is SOS typed during a distress call using RATT/NDPB?
A
3
18
Q
Which prosign is used during a distress call using RATT/NDPB
A
DE
19
Q
What is the International Distress frequency for voice?
A
2182 kHz
20
Q
What is the International Distress, Safety, and Calling frequency for the maritime mobile VHF radiotelephone service?
A
156.8 MHz
21
Q
Which signal is used to impose silence either on all stations of the mobile service in the area or on any station which interferes with the distress traffic when using RATT/NDPB
A
QRT SOS
22
Q
Which frequencies are continously monitored by aeronautical stations for aircrafts in distress?
A
121.5 MHZ and/or 243 MHz
23
Q
Which signal is used to impose silence either on all stations of the mobile service in the area or on any station which interferes with the distress traffic when using RATT.NDPB?
A
QRT SOS
24
Q
Which signal indicates that the calling station has a very urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of a ship, aircraft, or other vehicle, and/or the safety of personnel?
A
PAN PAN
25
Urgency signals have priority over all other communications except for which other type?
Distress
26
How many times is the group of words PAN PAN transmitted in voice urgency signals?
3
27
Which group of letters is transmitted over RATT three times in urgency signals
XXX
28
Any station that hears the Urgency signal must continue to listen for at least how many minutes?
3
29
Which signal indicates that the station is about to transmit a message containing an important navigational or meteorological warning?
Safety
30
Which word is spoken three times and transmitted before the call in safety signals
SECURATE
31
For the purpose of announcing and identifying aircraft for medical transports, a transmission of the uregency signal shall be followed by which group of letters over RATT/NBDP
YYY
32
To indicate distress a gun or other explosive fired at intervals spaced about how far apart can be used?
1 minute
33
The International Code Signal of distress indicated by which code group can be used to indicate distress?
NC
34
A smoke signal giving off a volume of which color of smoke can be used to indicate distress?
Orange
35
Which squawking code can be used to indicate distress on IFF mode 3/A?
7700
36
What should a piloet make the aircraft do to acknowledge that a ground distress signal has been seen and understood?
Rock the wings
37
What is the minimum length that group distress signals should be?
8 feet
38
What is the Internation Aeronautical Emergency Frequency?
121.5 MHz
39
What is the Distress and Emergency Frequency?
243.0 MHz
40
Which frequencies are used to supplement the carrier frequency 2182 kHz for DISTRESS and SAFETY purposes and for call and reply?
4125 kHz and 6215 kHz
41
Which frequency is for international use by the maritime mobile VHF radiotelephone service as a distress, safety and calling frequency?
156.8 MHz
42
Which frequency is for world-wide use when communicating with enroute aircraft participating in SAR operations?
123.1 MHz
43
Which prefix is used for call signs for assigned SAR craft?
RESCUE
44
What is the International Emergency Distress Signal (SOS)?
MAYDAY
45
What is the International Emergency Safety Signal?
SECURITY
46
What is the International Emergency Urgency Signal?
PAN PAN
47
What is the frequency range managed by ACP 190 US SUPP-1?
9kHz to 275 GHz
48
Which year was the role of the International Telegraph Union expanded to include access to the radio spectrum?
1903
49
Which year did the ITU become a specialized agency of the United Nations?
1947
50
Which agency regulates the global use of the radio spectrum
ITU
51
What article of the ITU Constitution states that ITU members retain freedom with regard to military radio installations
Article 48
52
What is performed to meet the needs of radio services within a geographic area and is based on the allocation tables in the Radio Regulations?
Frequency planning
53
What is it known as in military operations when the same frequency is used on a predetermined schedule?
Timesharing
54
Which type of calculations are necessary to guide the choice of the most suitable communication techniques to be used as well as where to place radio repeaters, surveillance, and weapons sites?
Propagation
55
To perform propagation calculations it is essential to have knowledge of the effects of atmospheric absorption and climactic conditions for frequencies above about which frequency
10 GHz
56
What is the authorization given by an appropriate authority for a radio station to use a radio frequency or radio frequency channel under specified conditions?
Assignment
57
Where does the ITU coordinate and register frequency assignments if protection beyond national borders is appropriate?
IFL
58
What is defined as one or more frequencies or blocks of frequencies within a band, given to a subordinate authority charged with the responsibility or providing frequency assignments?
Allotment
59
Which organization plans the civil aviation communications band and the frequency bands for aeronautical navigation systems?
ICAO
60
Which type of radio interference is defined as that which endangers the functioning of a radio navigation service or other safety service or seriously degrades obstructs, or repeatedly interrupts a radio communications service operating in accordance with the Radio Regulations?
Harmful
61
What does military spectrum management aim to control the use of?
Electromagnetic Environment
62
What is the application of spectrum management control concepts to hostilities referred to as
BSM
63
Which type of operations are authorized that will not cause harmful interference to host nation radio services or those in surrounding countries?
NIB
64
The BSM process and plan are achieved with the involvement of three branches to include Intelligence (C2), Operations (C3), and what else?
Communications (C6)
65
The CTFC along with what else has the authority to assign/allot frequencies to operational forces?
Combined Spectrum Management Cell (CSMC)
66
Which branch is the CSMC usually established in by the CTFC?
C6
67
How many phases is the spectrum management process for a military operation?
4
68
What has the overall responsibility to coordinate the spectrum requirements for the force?
CSMC
69
What is the overall spectrum requirement for the force expressed as?
Electronic Order of Battle (EOB)
70
Who is responsible for forwarding all requests for frequencies to the CSMC
National Spectrum Manager
71
Who is responsible for resolving spectrum conflicts between components
CSMC
72
What is the aim of the planning phase of the spectrum management process
BSM Plan
73
What must be established by the spectrum manager in the initial stages within the planning phase?
Overall frequency requirements
74
What should be used to identify the location and responsibilities of managers within the spectrum management process?
Spectrum management structure
75
Which type of data is required to predict the propagation of radio equipment to be established in order to identify where re-use of frequencies is possible?
Topographical
76
Who is responsible for assembling an electronic order of battle (EOB)for the force?
CSMC
77
Who is responsible for assigning frequencies in civil and military bands to Non-Governmental Organizations (NGO)
CSMC
78
What is defined as any emission that degrades, obstructs or repeatedly interrupts military operational systems to the extent that operational effectiveness is impaired?
Harmful interference
79
What should give specific guidance on the extent, purpose, format and distribution of the interference reporting required?
BSM Plan
80
What are essential in effecting rapid data exchange between nations?
Standard data exchange formats
81
who determines the data format and data fields required for requesting spectrum support?
CSMC
82
What can be set up at distant ends of an HF circuit to provide a measurement of operating parameters such as received power, propagation modes signal strength?
Chirp sounders
83
What is the sweep duration of the TCI/BR transmitter employed by CCEB nations
280 seconds
84
What affords communication staffs the ability to identify in "real time" the optimum frequencies from those assigned for use over a given circuit path?
Ionospheric sounder
85
Sounder transmitters shall be classified as either common-user or what else
Special-purpose
86
Each transmitter in the Common-User Sounder Network shall be required to provide start-sweeping timing accurate to 1 microsecond, preferred, but at least to how many milliseconds
100
87
Sweep intervals of less than than how many minutes should be avoided when special-purpose sounder transmitters are operated?
15
88
What is the maximum number of special-purpose sounder transmitters that may be operating at any time per area unless dictated by special circumstances?
4
89
Federal agencies are required to have in place cyber incident handling mechanisms in accordance with which act?
FISMA
90
How many services does the Department of Defense require Tier II Computer Network Defense Service Providers (CNDSPs) to provide?
3
91
Which program was developed by the Department of Defense to provide specific guidance for CC/S/A/FAs regarding the requirements for cyber incident handling and reporting
Cyber Incident Handling Program
92
Joint Staff and CC/S/A/FAs will comply with DoD Cyber Incident Handling Program responsibilites in accordance with which reference?
CJCSI 6510.01
93
Which agency must Joint Staff and CC/S/A/FAs ensure tha Tier II CNDSPs are registered with to provide CND service for CC/S/A/FA information networks and ISs
DISA
94
Which command must Joint Staff and CC/S/A/FAs coordinate with on cyber incidents prior to taking action outside the Department of Defense?
USCYBERCOM
95
Which command directs the operation and defense of DoD information networks IAW the UCP
USSTRATCOM
96
What must USSTRATCOM coordinate with on matters relating to the governance, secure operations, and defense of the IC networks?
IC-IRC
97
What directs the actions taken, within the Department of Defense, to protect, monitor, analyze, detect, and respond to unauthorized activity within DoD information networks and ISs?
CND
98
How many different tiers is the Department of Defense organized into to conduct CND
3
99
Which tier provides DoD-wide CND operational direction or support to CC/S/A/FAs?
Tier 1
100
Which tier provides DoD component-wide CND operational direction or support?
Tier 2
101
Which tier provides local CND operational direction or support?
Tier 3
102
Which type of data gives the Department of Defense the ability to sense changes in DoD information networks?
AS&W
103
Which type of data gives the Department of Defense the ability to sense changes in adversary activities?
I&W
104
Which community investigates criminal activity and disseminates threat data that may pertain to domestic or foreign individuals and groups who constitute threats to the Department of Defense?
LE
105
Which CND response service identifies several critical elements of an incident to determine and characterize its possible effects on DoD information networks, operational missions, and other defense programs?
Cyber Incident Analysis
106
What ensures the acquisition and preservation of data required for tactical analysis, strategic analysis, and/or LE investigations?
Cyber Incident Response
107
What is the DoD system of record for lessons learned?
JLLIS
108
What is the primary vehicle for reporting and recording all cyber incidents and reportable events?
JIMS
109
Security classifications of cyber incidents are determined in accordance with which publication?
DoDI O-3600.02
110
How many different types of initial cyber incident reporting are there?
2
111
What is the minimum security requirement when sending e-mails reporting a cyber incident?
Digital signautre
112
What includes the coordinated and initial actions taken to protect the information network or IS from any further malicious activity and to acquire the data required from futher analysis?
Preliminary response
113
What will Cyber incident containment be coordinated with?
CNDSP
114
Which type of data is RAM considered?
Volatile
115
Which type of data are system images and malware considered to be?
Persistent
116
Which type of data is the configuration around the system considered to be?
Environmental
117
What is defined as a series of analytical steps taken to find out what happened in an incident?
Cyber incident analysis
118
What should any software artifacts suspected of being malware be submitted to?
Joint Malware Catalog (JMC)
119
What is the primary path or method used by the adversary to cause the cyber incident or even to occur?
Delivery vector
120
What expands upon the identified delivery vectors and system weaknesses by precisely identifying the sets of conditions allowing the incident to occur?
Root cause identification
121
What refers to an incident's detrimental impact on the technical capabilities of the organization?
Technical Impact (TI)
122
What refers to a detrmiental impact on an organization's ability to perform its mission?
Operational Impact (OI)
123
What must actions that potentially affect traffic on the DoD Protected Traffic List be coordinated with?
USCYBERCOM
124
What involves understanding and accurately characterizing the relationship of incidents reported and providing awareness of the cyber security trends as observed by the affected parties?
Trending analysis
125
ISs having which categories of cyber incidents must be rebuilt from trusted media and have up-to-date AV software loaded and configured IAW STIGs and WARNORDs prior to connecting the IS to the information network?
1,2, and 7
126
What is used to document the technical and operational impact of the cyber incident on the organization?
BDA
127
Within how many hours after the cyber incident has been resolved must the JIMS incident record be updated with the BDA?
24
128
What are lessons learned, initial root cause, problems with executing COAs, and missing policies and procedures all part of?
Post-incident analysis
129
Where are cyber incidents sent that require a postmortem?
USCYBERCOM
130
What is defined as a set of scripts, programs, and other resources used to safely acquire, examine, and preserve volatile and non-volatile data from an IS?
First responder toolkit
131
How many different types of incident response primary reporting structures are there?
2
132
Which type of reporting structure describes the interactions between each of the tier levels and how reporting, notification, and communications shall occur?
Technical
133
What are all reportable cyber events and incidents reported to?
USCYBERCOM
134
What does USCYBERCOM disseminate information to about DoD Enterprise Incident Sets?
STRATJIC
135
What provides AS&W and a variety of technical alerts to USCYBERCOM that are shared with other tiers to direct response actions?
NTOC
136
Who enters the cyber incident report into the JIMS?
CNDSP
137
What serve as the focal points for reporting and handling cyber incidents and network management at the lowest level?
Network Service Centers (NSCs)
138
What are issued by any unit commander to provide appropriate senior leadership immediate notification of an incident that has impacted or may impact the mission and/or operations?
OPREPs
139
Which categories of cyber events or incidents affecting Mission Assurance Category (MAC) I or II ISs must be reported using OPREP-3 reporting procedures and structure?
1,2,4, and 7
140
What does USCYBERCOM submit OPREP-3 for DoD-wide computer network incidents to?
USSTRATCOM
141
Which categories of cyber events or incidents at a minimum are reported to DoD LE/CI IAW established CC/S/A/FA procedures?
1,2, and 4
142
What is the primary vehicle for reporting cyber incidents and reportable events?
JIMS
143
What is the principal reporting vehicle for DoD SCI ISs?
JWICS
144
What is defined as any information about an individual that is maintained by a DoD entity?
PII
145
Reports of loss or suspected loss of PII must be submitted to the US-CERT within what time frame after the incident?
1 hour
146
What is the classification of a cyber incident determined in accordance with?
DoDI O-3600.02
147
What seeks to identify the root cause(s) of an incident and is required to fully understand the scope, potential implications, and extent of damage resulting from the incident?
Incident Analysis
148
What is defined as the process of acquiring, preserving, and analyzing IS artifacts that help characterize the incident and develop COA?
System Analysis
149
What is defined as the process of identifying, analyzing, and characterizing reported software artifacts suspected of being adversarial tradecraft to help defense in depth mitigation actions and strategies, CI activities, and LE activities?
Malware Analysis
150
What is considered the application of science to the identification, collection, examination, and analysis of data while preserving the integrity of the information and maintaining a strict chain of custody?
Computer forensics
151
Which publication can guidance be found on integrating forensic techniques into incident response?
NIST SP 800-86
152
How many basic phases are in the forensics process?
4
153
Which type of data is stored in IS memory that will be lost when the IS loses power or is shut down?
Volatile
154
Which type of data is stored in the IS's hard drives and removable storage media that will not be changed when the IS is powered off?
Persistent
155
What is defined as software designed and/or deployed by adversaries without the consent or knowledge of the user in support of adversarial missions?
Malware
156
Which type of analysis involves quick checks to characterize the malware sample within the context of the analysis mission?
Surface
157
Which type of analysis is the controlled execution of the malware sample in an isolated environment to monitor, observe, and record run-time behavior without impacting mission-critical systems and infrastructure?
Run-time
158
Which type of analysis focuses on examining and interpreting the contents of the malware sample in the context of an analysis mission?
Static
159
What is the most in-depth form of malware analysis?
Reverse engineering
160
What must any malware that is uncovered throughout the incident response process be cataloged to?
JMC
161
Network analysis comprises data sources, data collection, along with what else?
Data analysis
162
Which type of data can provide complete insight into network transactions that occurred between hosts?
Full Packet Capture
163
What is used to avoid allegations of mishandling or tampering with evidence and increases the probability of the evidence being entered into a court proceeding?
Chain of custody
164
What is defined as an organized and coordinated series of steps to resolve or mitigate a report incident?
Incident Response
165
What have the primary objective to halt or minimize attack effects or damage while maintaining operational mission continuity?
Response Actions (RAs)
166
How many different types of response activities can occur?
3
167
Which type of RAs involve containment or eradication of any risks or threats associated with the cyber incident, and the rebuilding or restoring of affected ISs to a normal operational state?
Technical
168
Which type of RAs require some type of administrative, supervisory, or management intervention, notification, interaction, escalation, or approval as part of any response?
Management
169
What include the actions necessary to respond to the reportable cyber event or incident, fix the IS, return the IS to operations, and assess the risk for the IS or information network?
Courses of Action (COAs)
170
Which command reserves the right to direct and assist CC/S/A/FAs with response actions for incidents that fall into a DoD enterprise incident set or when actions otherwise affect multiple theater or Service information networks?
USCYBERCOM
171
What is defined as short term, tactical actions to stop an intruder's access to a compromised IS, limit the extent of an intrusion, and prevent an intruder from causing further damage?
Containment
172
What is defined as using network access controls at the perimeter or enclave boundary to prevent the attacker from connecting to other DoD information networks, ISs, or DoD data and services?
Blocking
173
Which type of blocks are specific to the component behind the firewall?
Enclave
174
What involves the use of network access controls to logically segment the network and restrict access to the affected hosts?
Network Isolation
175
What is defined as the steps required to eliminate the root cause(s) of an intrusion
Eradication
176
Where must any malware that is uncovered throughout the incident response process be cataloged?
JMC
177
What is defined as the steps necessary to restore the integrity of affected ISs, return the affected data, ISs, and information networks to an operational state, and implement follow up strategies to prevent the incident from happening again?
Recovery
178
All ISs having which categories of incidents must be erased and rebuilt from trusted media, then patched and updated prior to connecting the IS to the information network?
1,2 or 7
179
What is defined as a review of the incident, including the detection, analysis, and response phases?
Postmortem
180
What is the focal point for Net Defense threat data in the Department of Defense?
USCYBERCOM
181
Which type of data consists of information that can help lead to increased defense of DoD information networks and the attribution and intent of network intruder(s)?
Threat
182
What employs intelligence, counterintelligence, law enforcement and other military capabilities to defend DoD information and computer networks?
CND
183
Where is the technical reporting between the incident handling program and intelligence maintained?
JIMS
184
Which group consists of senior representatives from federal agencies that have roles and responsibilities related to preventing, investigating, defending against, responding to, mitigating, and assisting in the recovery from cyber incidents and attacks?
Cyber Unified Coordination Group (CUCG)
185
What is an interagency forum where organizations responsible for a range of activities (technical response and recovery, LE, intelligence, and defensive measures) coordinate for the purpose of preparing for and executing an efficient and effective response to an incident?
NCRCG
186
What is the central repository for managing all reportable events and incidents in the Department of Defense?
JIMS
187
What is the system of record for the JLLP that provides a Web-enabled information management system to meet operational needs for reporting lessons learned?
Joint Lessons Learned Information System (JLLIS)
188
What is used by CND Analysts for collecting, processing, and storing the DoD networking sensing environment information, facilitating execution of selected COAs to mitigate and respond to attacks directed at DoD information networks?
Enterprise Sensor Grid (ESG)
189
What is the functional owner of the JIMS and maintains and manages it?
USCYBERCOM
190
What is the central repository for storing malware and associated analysis?
Joint Malware Catalog (JMC)
191
What is the basis for the Department of Defense's capability to rapidly analyze malicious code and provide an accurate understanding of its behavior and capabilities?
Joint Malware Catalog (JMC)
192
What is the functional owner of the JMC
USCYBERCOM
193
What is the primary CND intelligence analysis tool suite used to derive CND intelligence information?
JIMS
194
Which list ensures critical DoD ISs are not affected inadvertently by responses to CND events?
DoD Protected Traffic List
195
What are defined as groups of related incidents and associated data requiring centralized management at the DoD level?
Incident sets
196
How many progressive readiness conditions are there in the CYBERCON system?
5
197
Operations in support of CYBERCON implementation will be executed in accordance with which publications?
CJCSI 3121.01
198
Which instruction established a DoD cybersecurity program to protect and defend DoD information and information technology?
DoDI 8500.01
199
What will be employed to protect, detect, characterize, counter, and mitigate unauthorized activity and vulnerabilities on DoD information networks?
Cyberspace defense
200
What must be given to all DoD information in electronic format in the appropriate levels that reflects the importance of both information sharing and protection?
Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability
201
What must be used to ensure strong identification, authentication, and eliminate anonymity in DoD IS and PIT systems?
Identity Assurance
202
Which instruction must the DoD-wide Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) solution be managed in accordance with?
DoDI 8520.02
203
Which instruction must biometrics that are used in support of identity assurance be managed in accordance with?
DoDI 8521.01
204
Who is responsible for monitoring, evaluating, and providing advice to the Secretary of Defense regarding all DoD cybersecurity activities and overseeing the implementation of DoDI 8500.01
DoD CIO
205
Who does the DoD CIO coordinate with to ensure that cybersecurity policies and capabilities are aligned with and mutually supportive of personnel, physical, industrial, information, and operations security policies and capabilities?
Under Secretary of Defense for Intelligence (USD(I))
206
Who does the DoD CIO coordinate with in development of cybersecurity-related standards and guidance?
NIST
207
Who does the DoD CIO coordinate with to ensure that cybersecurity responsibilities are integrated into processes for DoD acquisition programs, including research and development?
USD(AT&L)
208
What does the DoD CIO appoint for DoD ISs and PIT systems governed by the Enterprise Information Mission Area (MA) (EIEMA)
PAO
209
In what grade or the civilian employee equivalent must the candidate be to be appointed as the Defense IA Security Accrediation Working Group (DSAWG) Chair by the DoD CIO
O-6
210
How often must the DoD CIO conduct an assessment of the DoD Component cybersecurity programs?
Annually
211
Who develops or acquires solutions that support cybersecurity objectives for use throughout the DoD via the ESSG process?
DISA Director
212
In accordance with which instruction does the DISA Director ensure the continued development and maintenance of guidance and standards procedures to catalog, regulate and control the use and management of Internet protocols, data services, and associated ports on DoD networks?
DoD Instruction 8551.1
213
In accordance with which publication does the DISA Director develop and provide cybersecurity training and awareness products as well as a distributive training capability to support the DoD Components?
DoD Directive 8570.01
214
Who does the DISA Director coordinate with to ensure that command cyber readiness inspection guidance and metrics provide a unity pf effort among the security disciplines?
USD(I)
215
Who assists with acquisition-related agreements, and international cybersecurity and cyberspace defense negotiations and agreements?
USD(AT&L)
216
The USD (AT&L) must ensure that PIT systems included in acquisition programs are designated, categorized, and have their authorization boundaries defined according to the guidelines that are provided in which reference?
DoD Instruction 8510.01
217
Who exercises oversight responsibility for developmental test planning in support of interoperability and cybersecurity programs acquiring DoD IS and PIT systems in accordance with DoDI 5134.17
DASD(DT&E)
218
Who coordinates with the DoD CIO to ensure cybersecurity strategies, policies, and capabilities are aligned with overarching DoD cyberspace policy, and are supportive of policies and capabilities relating to the disclosure of classifed military information to foreign governments and international organizations in accordance with DoD Directive 8000.01
USD(P)
219
Who supports implementation of cybersecurity requirements for effective manning, management, and readiness assessments of the cybersecurity workforce in accordance with DoD Directive 8570.01 and DoD 8570.01-M?
USD(P&R)
220
Who evaluates or validates security implementation specifications described in DoDI 8500.01
DIRNSA/CHCSS
221
Who develops, implements, and manages the cybersecurity program for DoD non-cryptographic SCI systems, including the DoD Intelligence IS (DoDIIS) and JWICS
Director, DIA
222
Who appoints the PAO for DoD ISs and PIT systems governed by the Business Mission Area (BMA)?
Deputy Chief Management Officer (DCMO)
223
Cybersecurity training and awareness products developed by what will be used to meet the baseline user awareness training that is required by DoD Directive 8570.01?
DISA
224
Which program ensures that IT can be used in a way that allows mission owners and operators to have confidence in the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of IT and DoD information, and to make choices based on that confidence?
Defense Cybersecurity
225
What is used by the DoD to address risk management for all DoD ISs and PIT systems?
NIST SP 800-37
226
From which perspective does tier one risk management address risk?
Organizational
227
What provides the Tier 1 risk management governance for the DoD?
DoD ISRMC
228
Which risk management tier addresses risk from a mission and business process perspective?
Tier 2
229
Which risk management tier addresses risk from an IS and PIT system perspective?
Tier 3
230
Cybersecurity risk management is planned for and documented in a cybersecurity strategy in accordance with Interim DoD Instruction 5000.02 along with which other reference?
DoD Instruction 8580.1
