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medicine > 1st > Flashcards

1st Flashcards

1
Q

What are causes to have high alkaline phosphatase with all other normal labs

A

This value will be high in hepatobiliary tissue (cholestatic liver disease) and in bone.

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2
Q

What is most likely diagnosis for elderly pt who is asymptomatic with an elevated alkaline phosphatase

A

Paget disease of the bone.

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3
Q

Clinical features of pagets disease

A
  • bone pain (due to mircro fractures)
  • Increased hat size
  • hearing loss ( impingement of cranial nerves)
  • lion-like faces (involvement of craniofacial bones)
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4
Q

Complications of Paget disease

A
  • High output heart failure ( AV shunts in bone)

- Osteosarcoma

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5
Q

What is best diagnosis for pt with proximal muscle weakness starting in lower extremity first and anxiety, tremor (similar to essential), fatigue, weightloss

A

Hyperthyroidism

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6
Q

What are the common traits of Cryptosporidium infection and and what area is it most likely to be found in

A
  • high volume,
  • watery,
  • nonbloody stools
  • occur for 2 weeks or greater
  • it is a protozoan that occurs in other countries such as eastern europe where their water is not extremely clean
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7
Q

What will be the levels of ACTH, Cortisol, and Aldosterone in a pt who has been on glucocorticoids for a long period of time.

A
  • Low cortisol
  • Low ACTH
  • Normal Aldosterone
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8
Q

What is most likely cause of a patient who comes in with blunt force trauma to the chest and in less than 24 hrs has tachypnea, tachycardia, hypoxia with rales and decrease breath sounds?

A

Most likely suffered from a Pulmonary Contusion which causes an intraalveolar hemorrhage and edema. With CT you will see patchy nonlobular opacifications ( not restricted to the anatomical landmarks)

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9
Q

What tx for graves disease could cause worsening of opthalmopathy

A

Radioactive Iodine

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10
Q

Side effects of PTU for Graves disease

A

hepatic failure

  • ANCA associated vasculitis
  • Agranulocytosis
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11
Q

Fine needle aspiration is not reliable for which thyroid cancer type

A

Follicular

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12
Q

What are risk factors for thyroid cancer

A

Head and neck radiation
Gardner syndrome and cowden syndrome (papillary)
MEN type 2

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13
Q

How does follicular thyroid cancer spread

A

Hematogenous route

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14
Q

How do you tell follicular carcinoma from a benign adenoma

A

Expansion through tumor capsule or vascular invasion

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15
Q

What are the urine and serum lab values for pt with diabetes insipidus

A

urine- Low specific gravity and low osmolality

plasma osmolality- high osmolality ( 280-310)

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16
Q

What is tx of pt with central diabetes insipidus and pts with nephrogenic

A
  • Central- Give desmopressin
  • Nephrogenic- salt restriction and thiazide diuretics ( which deplete the body of sodium so that more is reabsorbed in the proximal tubules)
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17
Q

What is the diagnosis when patient has widened mediastinal silhouette, inc aortic nob, tracheal deviation. with vague chest discomfort in pt with HTN, Hypercholesterolemia, smoking

A

Descending aortic aneurysms

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18
Q

What is the diagnosis for patient with frequent itching after bathing, heacaches and dizziness

A

Polycythemia vera

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19
Q

What will you see with erythropoietin in pt with polycythemia vera

A

low serum erythropoietin

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20
Q

What is the mutation in polycythemia vera

A

JAK2 mutation

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21
Q

What are treatments for polycythemia vera and why would you use them

A

phlebotomy

Hydroxyurea (if increased risk of thrombus)

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22
Q

What is diagnosis for pt that is older than 60, dysphagia, coughing, regurgitation, halitosis and neck mass which increased after liq.

A

Zenker Diverticulum

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23
Q

What are causes of Zenker Diverticulum

A

Sphincter dysfunction and esophageal dysmotility

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24
Q

What is study used to diagnose Zenker Diverticulum

A

Barium esophagram

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25
Q

What are the ocular and neurology symptoms of pts with graves disease

A
  • protosis, inpaired extraocular motion, diplopia, irritation (gritty), photophobia,
  • tremors, hyperreflexia, proximal muscle weakness.
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26
Q

What is cause of exophthalmos in graves disease

A

T cell activation and stimulation of orbital fibroblasts and adipocytes results in orbital tissue expansion and lymphocytic infiltration.

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27
Q

What is pseudogout? And when will you see it?

A

calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals.

- Can see it in patients with hypercalcemia sometimes due to hyperparathyroidism

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28
Q

What is pseudogout also associated with?

A
  • hypothyroidism

- Hemochromatosis

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29
Q

What are the characteristics of synovial fluid analysis of pt with pseudogout

A
  • rhomboid shaped positively birefringent crystals
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30
Q

What is screening test for Lupus

A

ANA

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31
Q

What is screening test for Rheumatoid Arthritis

A

Rheumatoid factor and Anti-CCP

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32
Q

What does positive double stranded DNA mean?

A

Sensitive for Lupus

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33
Q

What does positive Histone mean?

A

Drug induced Lupus

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34
Q

What does positive Anti-Centromere mean?

A

Scleroderma, CREST

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35
Q

What does positive Topoisomerase mean?

A

Scleroderma, Systemic

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36
Q

What does positive smooth muscle antibodies mean?

A

Autoimmune hepititis

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37
Q

What does positive Roa and La mean?

A

Sjogrins

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38
Q

What does positive Jo mean?

A

Polymyositis- dermatomyositis

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39
Q

What does positive Mitochondrial antibody mean?

A

Primary- biliary sclerosis

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40
Q

What will you see in septic joint tap?

A
  • cloudy
  • greater than 50,000 WBC
  • Possible positive gram stain
  • No Crystals
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41
Q

What is normal patient and common complaints of pt with Rheumatoid arthritis?

A
  • Women greater than 45 yrs
  • Morning stiffness longer than an hour
  • Symmetric joints of hands, wrist, feet. Spairs DIP
  • Nodules: if you biopsy them they will be colesterol
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42
Q

What do you do for Diagnosis of Pt with Rheumatoid Arthritis?

A
  • First look at serologic markers: Anti-CCP> RF

- then get xray= look for erosions ( pariarticular osteopenia)

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43
Q

What is primary tx for Rheumatoid Arthritis

A
  • NSAIDS ( Ibprofin or Meloxicam)
    -Plus-
  • DMARDS ( Methyltrexate) : if this does not work then try to add more DMARDS then going to biologics such as
    ( Leflunomide, Hydroxycloroquine, Sulfasalazine)
  • If severe symptoms after DMARDS are biologics ( TNF-alpha, Infliximab, Rituximab)
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44
Q

What is protocol for Tx of RA

A

all patients on NSAIDs and DMARDS

If this doesnt work then add DMARDS then

You can go on to Biologics

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45
Q

What do you need to do before placing a patient on Biologics for severe RA?

A

test for TB and Fungus

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46
Q

What is Feltty’s syndrome

A

RA + Neutropenia + Splenomegally

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47
Q

What is the treatment of patients with Actinomyces infection

A

Penicillin 2-6 months

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48
Q

What is best test for diagnosis of Bronchiectasis?

A

High resolution CT scan

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49
Q

What are characteristics of patient with Bronchiectasis

A
  • Chronic cough
  • Mucopurulent sputum
  • Common respiratory infections.
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50
Q

What is rapid tx of patient with hyperkalemia

A

Calcium gluconate

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51
Q

What is first step for patient with fever and acute monarticular arthritis that has had worsening symptoms over last three days?

A
  • Synovial fluid analysis
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52
Q

WHat is the normal time frame for symptoms of patient with gout

A

12-24 hours (abrupt onset)

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53
Q

What is diagnosis of pt with 2 weeks of weakness, SOB, fingertip pain and urine has been cloudy.

A

Infective endocarditis

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54
Q

What is tx for patient with paget disease?

A

Bisphosphonates

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55
Q

Would the lab results be high or low for patient with pagets disease?

  • Ca
  • Phosphorus
  • Alkaline Phosphatase
  • Urine Hydroxyproline
A
  • Normal
  • Normal
  • High
  • High
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56
Q

What is diagnosis of patient with bone pain, deformity and mixed lytic/sclerotic lesions.
- Patients may have headaches, cranial nerve dysfunction and hearing loss, fracture of bones

A
  • Pagets disease of bone.
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57
Q

What is diagnosis for pt with fever, cough, weight loss and cavitary lesion in lung, who now has hypotension, hyperkalemia, and hypoglycemia?

A

Pt has TB that has spread to the adrenal glands and has caused addison’s disease. Pt will have hyperkalemia and high hydrogen ions causing metabolic acidosis. They will also have hypoglycemia.

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58
Q

What are symptoms of patient with optic neuritis?

A
  • Common in women 20-45, rapid impairment in vision, changes in color perception and pain with eye movement
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59
Q

What is a common symptom of a patient with type 2 DM with a physiologic stressor

A

Nonketotic hyperosmolar syndrome.

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60
Q

Patients with cirrhosis should undergo what screening test?

A

Endoscopy to exclude varices, and indicate the risk of variceal hemorrhage.

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61
Q

What are treatments for patients with esophageal varices?

A

endoscopic variceal ligation or non-selective betablockers such as propranolol or nadolol

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62
Q

What are possible diagnosis and what is next best step for patient who has trouble swollowing solids and liquids and dilated esophagus with smooth tapering of distal esophagus on barium studies?

A
  • Primary achalasia
  • Pseudoachalasia (due to esoph cancer)
  • To differentiate between two should do an endoscopic evaluation.
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63
Q

What is diagnosis of patient with chronic gastoesophageal reflux with new dysphagia of solids but not liquids and symmetric lower esophageal narrowing

A
  • Esophageal stricture

you can also see improvement of acid reflux with this because as they grow they block reflux

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64
Q

What are presenting symptoms of patient with gonococcal septic arthritis?

A
  • asymmetric polyarthralgias ( associated with tenosynovitis and skin rash) OR
  • Isolated purulent mono- or polyarthritis
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65
Q

What is likely diagnosis of pt who was intubated and had witnessed aspiration event and then within hours has hypoxemia

A
  • Aspiration pneumonitis
  • gastic acid induces a chemical burn and consequently inflammatory response.
  • No tx needed
66
Q

What are 3 primary tumors seen in patient with MEN1

A
  • Parathyroid
  • Pituitary
  • Gastrointestinal/pancreatic
67
Q

What are symptoms you would see for pt with MEN1.

A
  • Parathyroid: Constipation, polyuria and abdominal pain due to hypercalemia
  • peptic ulcers
68
Q

What are symptoms of pt with Meniere disease

A
  • Tinnitus
    (accompanied by feeling of ear fullness)
  • Episodic vertigo
  • Hearing loss
69
Q

What is cause of Meniere disease?

A
  • Inc volume and pressure of endolymph.
70
Q

Back pain in (IV drug user or sickle cell anemia or immunosuppressed patients) with pain that is unrelieved by rest or tenderness to gentle percussion most likely has what?

A

Osteomyelitis

71
Q

Lactose intolerance is characterized by what?

A
  • positive hydrogen breath test
  • low stool pH
  • inc stool osmotic gap
72
Q

What test should you order when you are worried about a pt having pancreatic cancer with jaundice?

A

ultrasound to rule out cancer in the head of the pancreas

73
Q

What test should you order to rule out pancreatic cancer without jaundice?

A
  • abdominal CT

body or tail

74
Q

What is first tx you give pt who you think has spinal cord compression?

A
  • IV glucocorticoids should be given without delay (even for imaging)
  • Then MRI
75
Q

What are common symptoms of patient with cyanide toxicity after tx with nitroprusside?

A
  • altered mental status, lactic acidosis, sizures and coma
76
Q

What are the metabolic abnormalities seen in hypothyroidism?

A
  • Hyperlipidemia
  • Hyponatremia
  • asymptomatic inc of Creatine kinase
77
Q

What are the cardiac symptoms you can see in a patient with acromegaly?

A
  • concentric hypertrophy as well as mitral and aortic regurgitation
78
Q

What is a sever side effect of antithyroid drugs

A
  • agranulocytosis
79
Q

What is most likely diagnosis of pt with fever, jaundice and right upper quadrant abdominal pain

A

acute cholangitis

80
Q

What is best test to diagnose pt with ankylosing spondylitis?

A

xray of SI joints

81
Q

How do you make diagnosis of acute liver failure?

A
  • elevated aminotransferases
  • encephalopathy
  • INR greater than or equal to 1.5
  • cirrhosis or underlying liver disease
82
Q

What drugs do you have to give folic acid for?

A
  • phenytoin
  • Methotrexate
  • trimethoprim
83
Q

What is most likely diagnosis of a young patient with expanisve lytic area seen in distal femor or proximal tibia?

A

Giant cell tumor

84
Q

What is first line tx of patient with giant cell tumor

A

surgery

85
Q

what are goals of care for patients with aortic dissection?

A
  • pain relief (morphine)
  • Decrease systolic BP
  • Decrease L ventricle contractility
  • Can do last two with beta blockers such as labetalol, propranolol or esmolol
86
Q

What is most likely diagnosis in pt with metabolic alkalosis and low urine chloride that is saline responsive

A

vomiting or prior diuretic use

87
Q

What is most likely diagnosis of pt with metabolic alkalosis and high urine chloride, hyopvolemic and responsive to saline ?

A

diuretic use

88
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis of pt with metabolic alkalosis, high urine chloride and unresponsive to saline

A

Bartter or Gitelman syndrome

89
Q

What will you see for diagnosis of CML

A
  • > 60000 WBC
  • Absolute basophilia with high numbers of myelocytes more than metamyelocytes.
  • MOST IMPORTANT Is LOW leukocyte alkaline phosphatase
90
Q

What is tx of patient with CML

A
  • Imantinib ( tyrosine kinase inhibitor)

- CML is due to a translocation between 9:22 BCR-ABL

91
Q

What are factors that will help you make diagnosis of CLL

A
  • absolute lymphocytosis on peripheral blood smear with smudge cells
92
Q

what is the diagnosis of patient who has unilateral orbitofrontal headache with nausea and vomiting and conjunctival injections with dilated pupil that is not responsive to light.

A

acute angle-closure glaucoma.

93
Q

What can cause acute angle-closure glaucoma

A
  • Anticholinergics

- dim light

94
Q

What are tx of choice for patients with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A

Negative inotropic -agents such as beta blockers or verapamil or disopyramide
- avoidance of volume depletion

95
Q

What are common symptoms you will see in pt with hyperkalemia

A
  • ascending muscle weakness with flaccid paralysis

- ECG changes such as peaked T waves, short QT interval or QRS widening.

96
Q

What are causes of acute hyperkalemia

A
  • Tumor lysis syndrome
  • uncontrolled hyperglycemia
  • beta blockers
  • potassium sparing diuretics
  • ACE or ARBs
  • Cardiac glycosides (digoxin)
97
Q

What is diagnosis of pt with longstanding smoking and chronic productive cough for
> than or equal to 3 months in 2 years

A

Bronchitis

98
Q

What is diagnosis of pt with frequent recurrent respiratory tract infections and chronic cough with copious mucopurulent sputum ?

A
  • Bronchiectasis
99
Q

What are labs you need to get to analize the contents of pt with pleural effusion. and what will certain values mean?

A

Look at Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) and protein.

  • LDH will be less than 200 in transudative and more than 200 in exudative.
  • LDH to effeusion/serum ratio
    .6 is exudative
  • Protein effusion/serum ration
    .5 is exudative.
100
Q

What is treatment of runner who has midshaft posteromedial tibial stress fracture who can walk without pain and cannot run without pain.

A
  • rest from running or other activities that cause pain. but can weight bear
  • also pneumatic stirrup leg brace
101
Q

what is screening test for decreased sexual desire and spontaneous erection in male who you are worried for late-onset male hypogonadism

A
  • total testosterone
102
Q

What is diagnosis and first line treatment for pt with heel pain that is sharp, searing and severe and is worse when she first bears weight on it after being off her feet

A
  • plantar fasciitis

- over-the-counter heel inserts.

103
Q

how do you treat a COPD exacerbation?

A

oxygen, antibiotics, bronchodilators as well as systemic corticosteroids

104
Q

What is the treatment of pregnant woman with eclampsia

A

Magnesium sulfate

105
Q

What is best to use in pt with nausia and vomiting who is preg?

A

doxylamine and B6

106
Q

When a child is otherwise developmentally normal however is older than 2 and is not able to walk what disease are you worried about? and what test would you do to diagnose it?

A

Duchenne muscular dystrophy

  • it is X linked
  • you get a serum creatine kinase level
107
Q

If a pt is having increased hair growth, acne, irregular menstraul periods what would be first test you would do?

A
  • laboratory testing (look for androgen excess)

- elevated early morning total testosterone is associated with PCOS

108
Q

What are three best treatments for people with claudication are

A
  • walking
  • stop smoking
  • Cilostazol
109
Q

What is the care for pt with recurrence of C diff once vs. severe recurrence or multiple recurrences?

A
  • mild recurrence can try original agent.

- severe or multiple then use both agents

110
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria to diagnose DM?

A
  • A1c greater or equal to 6.5
  • fasting glucose greater or equal to 126
  • random glucose greater or equal to 200 with symptoms
  • 2 hour oral glucose tolerance test greater or equal to 200.
111
Q

When should screening be done for both men and women for osteoprosis

A

65 for women or 70 for men

112
Q

American coming back from middle ast has ulcer on forearm that will not heal for 3 months what is likely diagnosis?

A

Leishmaniasis

113
Q

pt was wading in water in caribbean when felt sting of her foot. few days later she has increased itching and redness of area? What is likely diagnosis

A

hookworm. Dogs and cats are most often infected and when they deficate and people step in same are they can get hookworm on feet.

114
Q

What is the likely diagnosis of pt with a large red path that is itchy. About a week or two they then notice more itchy similar looking spots all on the abdomen. Not associated with any exposure or allergy

A

pityriasis rosea

115
Q

What is the target glucose level of critically ill patients?

A

140-180

116
Q

What is the duration of time and type of drugs used for dual antiplatelet therapy following placement of drug-eluting coronary artery stent?

A
  • 1 year
  • Asprin 162-325
  • Clopidogrel or prasugrel
117
Q

What is the treatment of pregnant woman with pruritus and elevated serum bile acids and elevated bilirubin?

A
  • Ursodiol
118
Q

What is the reason for antibiotic treatment of pertussis?

A
  • It reduces the risk of transmission but does not reduce duration or severity of the disease.
  • tx with macrolide such as azithromycin or clarithromycin
119
Q

What is the treatment of patients who have frostbite?

A
  • rewarm with bath with mild antiseptic at 40-41.
  • tense or hemorrhagic blisters aspirate in sterile field
  • simple non-tense of clear blisters leave alone
120
Q

What is best antidepressant when worried about pt gaining weight

A

Bupropion (wellbutrin)

121
Q

What movement will increase pain for lumbar spinal stenosis

A
  • lumbar spine extension

bending back like when walking down a hill

122
Q

yes or no should NSAIDS be avoided in pt with hepatic cirrhosis

A

yes as they increase the risk of bleeding in cirrhotic patients as they further impair platelet function

123
Q

What drugs are best to use for generalized anxiety disorder?

A

SSRI ( escitalopram, paroxetine, sertraline)

SNRI ( duloxetine, venlafaxine)

124
Q

What is the diagnosis of 4 year old with low grade fever, decreased oral intake and shallow ulcerations to posterior pharynx

A

Herpangina caused by coxsackieviruses and echoviruses.

125
Q

What is diagnosis of woman in 30s who has facial erythema and telenagietasias sometimes papules worse with spicy food, sun, stress, alcohol.

A
  • Rosacea
126
Q

What is treatment for pt with rosacea

A

Metronidazole gel, doxy or tetracycline

127
Q

At what age should children ride in the back seat of the car? About what age should they be in a booster seat till?

A
  • In back till 13

- Booster seat till 8-12 when regular seat belt fits them well

128
Q

What are most likely bacteria infecting untreated acute superficial foot.

A

Staph aureus

B-hemolytic strep

129
Q

Will the urine excretion of calcium be high or low in patients with familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia

A
  • Urine Ca excretion will be low. unlike in primary hperparathyroidism.
130
Q

Is allopurinol a cause of steven-johnson syndrome?

A

yes

131
Q

What is most likely diagnosis of person olger than 50 who all of a sudden starts having stiffness and pain in bilateral joints (most commonly shoulders) worse in the morning (may say them have trouble rising hands above shoulders) may have a high ESR

A
  • Polymyalgia Rheumatica

- tx with oral prednisone

132
Q

What other disease does Polymyalgia Rheumatica commonly occur with?

A
  • Giant cell arteritis
133
Q

What are drugs indicated for PCOS to cause ovulation

A
  • Metformin

- Clomiphene

134
Q

What is another diagnosis for a pt who was diagnosed with exercise asthma who do not have a good response to B-agonists.

A
  • vocal cord dysfunction.
135
Q

What will you see on pulm function test with vocal cord dysfunction?

A
  • flattening of the inspiratory portion of the flow volume loop but normal expiratory phase.
136
Q

what is most likely diagnosis of pt with gradually worsening pain in hip when going from sitting to standing or when pivots the hip when running. no trauma to area.

A
  • femoroacetabular impingement
137
Q

Prozac (SSRI) with what over the counter cough and cold can cause seritonin syndrome with shivering, tremors and diarrhea?

A
  • Dextromethorphan
138
Q

What is the best test to initially exclude adrenal insufficiency?

A
  • morning cortisol level. (>13 excludes adrenal insufficiency)
  • If lower than 13 then further eval with cosyntropin (ACTH) test.
139
Q

What drug would decrease respiratory secretions but does not cause sedation?

A
  • Glycopyrrolate ( inhibits muscurinic acetylcholine receptors, it does not cross the blood brain barrier)
140
Q

What should you do for a pt that is a smoker but no known CAD who has multiple Premature ventricular contractions (PVC)

A
  • presence of PVCs in pt with no known CAD has increased risk of MI or death. So evaluation for CAD is warranted.
141
Q

What are the symptoms and how do you treat Lichen Sclerosus?

A
  • It is an imflammatory skin condition in the anogenital region. you get vulvar itching
  • You treat with corticosteroids
142
Q

What is the most accurate imaging study for assessing osteomyelitis?

A
  • osteomyelitis is infection of bone.
  • most often diabetic foot infections
  • MRI is best test
143
Q

What is the preferred anticoagulant for venous thrombosis during pregnancy ?

A

low molecular weight heparin

144
Q

pain medication that is best for pts with renal disease?

A

Fentanyl and methadone best opioids as they are metabolized by the liver.

145
Q

What is condition that is more common in women between 5-15 and 40-60 who have a purple rash on the top of their knuckles or in between joints and may have muscle weakness

A

Dermatomyositis

146
Q

What is the treatment of pt with suspected TB

A
  • 4 drug treatment until cultures results are available ( INH, ethambutol, rifampin and pyrazinamide
147
Q

What are the screening results for asymptomatic bacteriuria?

A
  • asymptomatic pregnant women at 12-16 weeks or at first prenatal visit.
148
Q

What is the treatment of pt with dystonia after taking a dopamine antagonist.

A
  • Diphenhydramine or benztropine.
149
Q

What is screening for lung cancer?

A
  • Low dose CT
  • 55-80
  • 30 pack year smoking history.
  • Quit in the last 15 yrs or less
150
Q

What is most likely pathogen and treatment for pt age 14-35 with epididymitis?
- What if patient is less than 14?

A
  • 14-35 then you think neisseria gonorrhoeae and chlamydia and tx is ceftriaxone and doxycycline
  • less than 14: more likely due to urinary tract pathogens and can use levofloxacin
151
Q

What organ systems will show an elevated Alkaline phosphatase?
- Which organ is it that is affected when you have high alk phos and 5-nucleotidase

A
  • Bone, small intestine, liver, placenta

- Liver

152
Q

What are EKG changes you will see with occlusion of circumflex artery

A

I and AVL and possibly V5 and V6

153
Q

What is Telogen effluvium?

A

After a stressful event such as illness or pregnancy a pt might notice 3 months later large amounts of hair loss. This is due to a large amount of hair moving from the Anagen (growing) to Telogen (dead phase) lasts 6 months after removal of stressor

154
Q

What is the concern for a pt over 65 who has an increased TSH level?

A

They are at increased risk for hip and vertebral fractures.

155
Q

What is the best choice for tx of pt with less than 50 percent area of hair loss ( alopecia areata)

A
  • Intralesional triamcinolone
156
Q

What is best antibiotic for community acquired pneumonia in a young adult?

A
  • Macrolide such as azithromycin
157
Q

What treatment has the highest cure rate of toenail fungus ?

A
  • oral terbinafine for 12 weeks
158
Q

What does the s3 gallop normally mean and why does it occur.

A
  • It is indicative of congestive heart failure and it is caused by sudden deceleration of blood flow into the left ventricle.
159
Q

What is the term for percentage of patients with a disorder who have a positive test for the disorder

A

Sensitivity

160
Q

What is the term for the number of patients without a disorder who have a negative test for the disorder

A

Specificity

161
Q

What treatment which is used to treat gout should you not start when someone is having a gout flare?

A
  • Allopurinol which decreased the production of uric acid and is effective in reducing the frequency of acute gouty flare-ups but fluctuating levels of uric acid during flare can make worse.

medicine (2 decks)

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