1st Deck Flashcards
(463 cards)
1
Q
Bomb threats: post blast, who does communications immediately advise?
A
Patrol, Supervisor and notifies ARMOR Supervisor.
2
Q
Bomb threats: post blast, a minimum of ____ ft. perimeter is placed from any item visually identified as evidence.
A
300 ft
3
Q
Driving: When do Sergeants complete checkrides?
A
Within one week of assignment. Except for FTEP grads.
4
Q
All hazard: Who completes the AAR?
what is the time limit?
where does it go?
A
- The IC
- within 10 calendar days and forward it
- to Emergency Management section (EMS).
5
Q
Bomb threats: for threats against HQ, communications notifies the WC and the watch desk. does the WC email the DC’s, CBRNE Lt, SNCTC Capt., Comms Capt., and executive Lt?
A
Yes, the WC send the email
6
Q
FFE: Who requests the Area Lt or WC (if Lt unavailable) for confirmed protesters?
A
- Communications,
- all OTHER requests are made through communications from the IC
7
Q
CBRNE: Who commands police operations on a CBRNE incident?
Who do they request/notify via communications?
A
- The Area LT or IC is in command during CBRNE incident.
- Notifications will be made to the NV CBRNE by a Supervisor
8
Q
Foot pursuits: What is the role of the first responding officer not actively engaged in the immediate apprehension?
A
To establish a 360 perimeter.
9
Q
Driving: Sergeants will conduct web-based UMLV-EVOC training once every ___.
A
Year
10
Q
Driving: when may officers not wear their safety belt?
A
When traveling less than 15 miles per hour and expecting to take immediate police action once the vehicle has stopped.
11
Q
Bomb threats: How should evacuations be done?
- High rise?
- What criteria?
- Who is mandated to evacuate?
A
- High rise - 2 floors above and below the device
- Criteria- FBI Bomb threat standoff card
- Who- anyone in the Mandatory zone! Others may shelter in place. (failure evacuate is a violation of NRS 475.070)
12
Q
Hostage Plan: A Patrol Supervisor does what?-PERV
A
Perimeter- in and out, stop vehicle/foot traffic if required.
Evacuates
Radio- request dedicated channel
Verbal- establishes communication (not negotiating).
13
Q
FFE: Who will determine the CRIME, DISPERSAL ORDER, if SAT team is needed, establish COMMAND, create a BUFFER zone and make ARREST team? (CDSCBA)
A
The IC
14
Q
EXCUSABLE accident -the involved member may be at fault, but the collision was unavoidable considering all circumstances is called an_________ accident.
A
excusable
15
Q
in a All Hazards event, What does a Sergeant do? (CSN - AAR)
A
C-Command-establish.
S -Staff positions of ICS
N - Notify LT or WC if absent (comms does this, just Ensure it gets done)
AAR- complete ICS AAR
16
Q
At a bomb THREAT what section notifies CBRNE supervisor, CT, SNCTC, WC, LT, and SGT?
A
Communications
17
Q
CBRNE - What does the first supervisor on scene do? C-ESPN
A
C- Establish command post
E- evacuations
S - safety sweep of area
P- perimeter
N - make notifications via communications
18
Q
Bomb threats: post blast, what are the only reasons the scene should be entered?
A
To prevent loss of life. Strictly for emergency actions.
19
Q
All Hazard: When transfer of command occurs, it will be communicated via?
A
Radio to dispatch
20
Q
FFE: If protest is related to an organized labor union, what section is contacted?
A
Special Investigations Section (SIS)
21
Q
What 3 prongs make a Barricaded subject?
A
- Criminal act or immediate threat to self or public.
- Refuses to submit to arrest and may be armed.
- At a position of advantage or in the open where police approach would precipitate an adverse reaction.
22
Q
What does a supervisor do for a barricaded subject? (PSERV)
A
P- Perimeter, inner/outer
S- SWAT- Gather intel and evaluate the need.
E- Evacuate and document!
R- request dedicated channel
V- Verbaly contact subject in a safe manner!
23
Q
When will a sergeant do a blue team for an officer?
A
If the officer is incapacitated.
24
Q
When will a supervisor attend ARB?
A
When it is a mandatory appearance at the vehicle collision board
25
CBRNE - When can officers enter a contaminated area?
When utilising proper protective equipment and have been trained in its use.
26
Foot pursuits: Is the supervisor’s presence required to exercise control of the pursuit?
No
27
Non-preventable accident-The involved member performed in accordance with policy, procedures, training standards and the law.
Non-preventable accident
28
Hostage Plan: For a confirmed hostage situation, Communications will immediately notify\_\_\_\_.
The SWAT commander and the field supervisor.
29
Who notifies LT or WC of a hostage or barricade?
Communications, All other requests by comms are through the field supervisor
30
Foot pursuit: supervisors shall take command, control and coordinate. When WILL they respond? ()
1. Injury to officer, citizen, suspect 2. Entry to residence/structure regardless of occupancy. 3. Any reportable force regardless of injury. 4. Unusual occurrence warranting oversight.
31
At a bomb threat, unattended item, or suspicious item, what is done on initial arrival at the location and at the CP.
25-foot and 100-foot search. Use an explosive devise dog (EDD) if available.
32
All hazard: When May units self dispatch to an incident in a neighbouring area command?
When incident occurs close to the border and already in close proximity or when requested by communications, primary, or supervisor
33
Driving: Definition: One or more vehicles involved, Injury and/or complaint of injury, death and/or $750 or more
Accident
34
Bomb threats: What will a supervisor do at a post blast scene? PSPD
P- Perimeter-contact CBRNE for instruction and other scene concerns. S- Security- for the scene. Determine appropriate support personnel P-PERIMETER- maintain until released by Ranking CBRNE or the investigator functioning as liaison for NV CBRNE D- DOG- determine need for to search for secondary device, CBRNE May also make this request.
35
Accidents: Definition: The involved member violated policy, procedures, trading standards or the law.
Preventable
36
Driving: What does a commissioned supervisor do at an accident? (IN- CBR)
I - Investigate N - notify traffic: $750, injury, pinching, PIT Block. - Supervisor report of vehicle incident (is incident, if no other vehicle was involved) C - Check ride for all “preventable” accident B - Blue team- Complete prior to end of shift R - refer to litigation section
37
Bomb threats: for an unattended item, suspicious package, or 445, What does the field supervisor do? CEOS
C- command TO BE Established and brief CBRNE Supervisor. E- establishment is contacted and evacuations are done- when you or higher request CBRNE, O- Officers assigned to the primary location. S-Scene- remain to prevent unauthorised access to the device.
38
EDS training is required for FTOs and Supervisors every?
Annual for FTOs, Biennial for supervisors.
39
FFE: Dispersal Order is read how many times in what increments?
3 separate times in 10 minute increments. Name and time is recorded.
40
Hostage Plan: Who completes Officers Reports and forwards them to the SWAT section for the AAR?
A) Primary Unit B) Patrol CP Recorder C) CNT D) SWAT Unit
41
Bomb threats: For threats against vehicles, how should officers inspect and when do they make noitification?
Do a visual preliminary threat assessment prior to approaching. Don’t open any doors, trunk, or hood. Notify CBRNE if anything suspicious is located.
42
Foot pursuit: At the termination point, supervisors should do what two things?
1. Respond to termination point and 2.Direct post pursuit activity. Conduct after action reviews with officers involved as practical and should consider debriefing at a suitable time.
43
Barricaded subject: Suicidal barricades involve subjects who pose:
An immediate or demonstrated threat to the public.
44
Foot pursuit: What justification is needed to engage in a foot pursuit?
Reasonable suspicion.
45
FFE: Who completes Officers Reports and sends them to the SAT team supervisor for the AAR?
A) Primary Responding Unit B) CP recorder C) SAT Team Section
46
Foot pursuit: Supervisors WILL
Make every effort to respond to a foot pursuit and to monitor its progress and outcome.
47
STAR protocol- what are the 3 criteria for a supervisors response?
1. Credible information that the subject is armed with a firearm or other dangerous weapon. (Not simulated or unseen) 2. Subject is acting in a threatening manner with the weapon. 3. This will not include open carry or pocket knives, when carrying is the sole justification for the call.
48
STAR protocol- Three officers at a minimum will be dispatched T/F?
True
49
STAR protocol - what will the patrol supervisor do? SOAP -AA
S-Self dispatch or ensure a supervisor takes your spot! If unavailable O-Oversee- responsible for tactics and supervision.A - acknowledges and responds P- plan-determine tools LL, rifle, array team etc. A - ANSEC-request work up when necessary ( you call or designate an officer) A - AAR placing a hazard on the location and subject involved-if legitimate threat.
50
STAR protocol - what is significant about the 3rd arriving officer on star?
It creates an arrest team which allow for LL and for someone on lethal weapon.
51
STAR protocol - if the call resulted in a legitimate threat what does the supervisor do at the conclusion?
AAR- hazard of property and person
52
Social media: speech on or off duty pursuant to official duties is not protected speech T/F?
True
53
Social media: members are free to express themselves as private citizens in matters of public concern to the degree that their speech does not:
1. Impair working relationships of the department for which loyalty and confidentiality are important 2. Impede performance 3. Impair discipline or harmony of coworkers 4. Negatively impact the departments ability to serve
54
Social media: members will not disseminate in any way information obtained:
As a result of their employment, without written permission if the sheriff or his designee
55
Who approves department social media sites?
A DC or designee. PIO approves and registers members of the bureau/section responsible for the cite.
56
On department sanctioned sites, officers will make no statements about suspects/arrestees, pending prosecutions or disseminate any personnel or confidential info without expressed written permission T/F?
True
57
Potential social media uses include:
1. Investigation tool, 2. community engagement, and 3. time-sensitive notifications
58
BWC: For application of reportable force, except use of deadly force, what steps does a supervisor take to investigate? (
1. Access the video on scene in the presence of the involved officer(s). 2. Record the citizen interview. 3. Not record subject officer during the investigation. 4. Review the video with the involved officer prior to use of force report being completed, if an involved officer is unavailable at the scene. 5. Ensure review of BWC is documented in narrative. 6. Review position of camera to ensure it is appropriately placed. \*\*if your officer captures a UOF of a specialized unit, coordinate with their Sgt. to review prior to concluding at scene investigation
59
BWC: For a bureau SOC, the Supervisor will:
1. Interview and record complainant first when possible 2. Does not record the SE 3. Access video on scene, COMPLAINANT DOESNT SEE THIS! 4. Notate BWC available and was reviewed accordingly in SOC or contact...which ever is appropriate. 5. Take appropriate action if false reporting crimes unlawful (ICR and notify IAB criminal team).
60
BWC: officers have discretion to deactivate their camera, what are instances listed in policy? (4)
1. At a request of a citizen, when appropriate. Record the request and your response. 2. A citizen with standing in a consensual residence. This may be a contingency. 3. Victims or witness when uncomfortable. Audio only may be an option. 4. Be mindful of locations, worship, daycares, law offices.
61
BWC: OIS or use of deadly force, can officers view the footage?
Only fo exigent circumstances, not until FIT/CIRT view it first.
62
BWC: OIS or use of deadly force, involved and witness officers may only view their own BWC prior to walkthrough T/F
True
63
BWC: on an OIS or use of deadly force, IC identifies and documents locations of BWCs on scene and requests deactivation when static.Who collects them for upload?
The IC ALSO makes sure they stay affixed in place on the employee FIT or CIRT uploads
64
Examples of when Sergeants may view BWC are:
During a policy required investigation. In the notes section, Sgt. must state reason for inspection and person requesting. Need advanced authorization from the LT or captain.
65
BWC: who needs to approve footage being used for training outside of FTEP AOST and RBT?
1. The officer, 2. BWC LT in coordination with the ODB commander.
66
In reference to dispatches response category profile, SGTs will consider what to alter necessary units?
1.Knowledge of incident, 2.location, and 3. participants involved.
67
Communications can dispatch out of assigned area command based on:
Emergency OR supervisor approval.
68
Cadet/PSR request are handled between who?
Area sgts.
69
Plain clothes in area need to have a senior officer or supervisor notify?
Area command and communications supervisors.
70
Bureau non emergency requests of patrol are made how? Outside agency non routine requests are made how?
1. Bureau supervisor to field Sgt. 2. Comms Supervisor to LT.
71
CIT, AAR done are done when\_\_\_\_ T/F? 1. Threats to police/others 2. Homeland security concerns. 3. Violence involved 4. Weapons involved 5. Officer safety concerns
True
72
Pending calls: emergency calls may be dispatched up to the end of shift. Non-Emergency calls may be dispatched up to -
45 minute
73
For any call pending for _____ minutes, a sgt will advise the PR of delay or offer other solutions.
90
74
Unless unavailable, if a call is held or cancelled by a sgt, the sgt will:
Call the PR and explain. And update the event
75
Crime scene and notifications: when detectives respond to a crime scene, who SHOULD respond and provide a brief on the event?
The patrol supervisor, they can designate an officer to do the brief.
76
Crime scene and notifications: For ISD level investigations, PD, when available is requested to assist with the preliminary investigation and the ranking supervisor will respond. T/F
True
77
Crime scene and notifications: for suspicious deaths/suicides, who needs to assess before homicide will come?
Crime scene analysts and the coroners investigators
78
For Crime scene and notifications: Who notifies the FIT/CIRT, LT via the communications supervisor?
The DSD or Patrol WC
79
Crime scene and notifications: FIT/CIRT WILL be notified for: (5)
1. OIS 2. in custody death/ SBH with police involvement. 3. Use of deadly force 4. Force leading to critical injury 5 department members, during their duty, victim of a violent crime AND sustain critical injuries. CIRT only: 405z at DSD, not gestures
80
Crime scene and notifications: First arriving officers will put YELLOW tape where?
Inner and outer perimeter
81
Crime scene and notifications: who places red tape?
FIT supervisor or designee.
82
Crime scene and notifications: to enter the red tape, who authorises?
A FIT detective and CSI director/supervisor
83
Crime scene and notifications: when can crime scene walkthroughs happen?
After a CSA documents the scene and the investigating detective approve.
84
Crime scene and notifications: standard, how are CSAs requested?
Through communications
85
Crime scene and notifications: on all crimes where an investigative unit is responding or conducting a follow up investigation, what log SHOULD be done?
A major incident log.
86
Crime scene and notifications: who responds to all major incidents/scenes and assumes command from patrol officers?
The area SGT or LT.
87
Crime scene and notifications: who notifies the WC of the all the major incidents/scenes details ?
The Area SGT
88
Crime scene and notifications: if preliminary investigating or follow up is needed, who assumes control of the investigation? And who maintains scene integrity (after consultation).
Detectives take the investigations. Supervisors coordinate available personnel for scene preservation.
89
Crime scene and notifications: when does patrol do impound per this policy? (6)
1. Secondary locations 2. They handled it. 3. Safekeeping 4. Large amounts 5. Misdemeanor crimes. 6. CSA not requested.
90
Crime scene and notifications: when do officers download photos into onbase?
Prior to end of shift
91
Crime scene and notifications: on homicides (any death or crime where death is probable) investigations, INTERVIEWS AND EVIDENCE collection will NOT be done by non homicide personnel unless approved by?
Homicide LT or designee
92
Crime scene and notifications: communications supervisor notifies coroner when? (3)
1. Suicides, overdoses, natural or accidental: Patrol in charge. 2. 420a or questionable: homicide detective in charge. 3 FIT: FIT detective in charge.
93
Domestic Dog Encounters: As Patrol responds to a vicious or aggressive dog, they WILL verify what with communications?
Animal control has been notified and is enrt
94
Domestic Dog Encounters: communications WILL inquire if the dog is known and where his master lives during a response?
Yes
95
Domestic Dog Encounters: officers WILL NOT approach an aggressive dog unless:
It’s attacking or they believe it’s about to attack: 1. officer, 2.person, or 3. animal.
96
Domestic Dog Encounters: where are catch poles located during normal patrol activities?
Supervisor vehicles.
97
Domestic Dog Encounters: Who is part in an ideal dog team?
1. SGT, 2. Officer with a pole, 3. Officer with a LL option (taser, OC, Bean bag) 3. Officer with lethal.
98
Domestic Dog Encounters: a catch pole has been deployed IN RESPONSE TO AN ANIMAL COMPLAINT CALL. What does the PRIMARY officer do?
1. Announce VIA RADIO the deployment, 2. the dispatcher will update CAD. 3. At the conclusion the primary officer will update CAD with its effectiveness.
99
To be the safest community in America.
Department VISION
100
Department VALUES:
ICARE
101
Serve people, Strengthen relationships and, Improve quality of life.
Department MISSION
102
LVMPD Lead through empowerment and accountability. Value our employees and those we serve. Maximise trust, transparency and communication. Protect the public through education, innovation, and enforcement. Develop and enhance community relationships.
Department GOALS
103
Foot Pursuit: officers initiating foot pursuit should broadcast the following information as soon as it becomes practical and available 5
1. Unit identifier 2. Location and direction of travel 3. Reason for the foot pursuit. 4. Number of subjects and description. 5. Whether the subject is known or believed to be armed.
104
Witness Identification: if video/audio is used for any line-up, the officer conducting the line-up will do what with the recording?
Impound it.
105
Witness Identification: Mug books generated by officers will not be shown to witnesses for identification purposes unless:
Specifically requested by the DA's office.
106
Witness Identification: the use of an independent administrator in a photo lineup is known as a _____ method?
Double blind
107
Witness Identification: photo line ups will NOT be used as the sole basis of an arrest unless authorized by a \_\_\_\_\_and approval of \_\_\_\_\_\_Office.
Lieutenant The District Attorneys office
108
Witness Identification: sequential line ups may be used when the officer can not prepare a line up from:
The lvmpd mug shot system.
109
Witness Identification: sources for lineups may include:
Mug shots, yearbooks, dmv, or other.
110
Witness Identification: all photo line ups conducted WILL be \_\_\_\_\_\_, unless generated and electronically stored version within the LVMPD mugshot system.
Impounded.
111
Witness Identification: how many fillers are in each lineup?
5
112
Witness Identification: the suspect will appear how many times in each line up? If more than one witness The photos will change positions.
1 time
113
Witness Identification: during a line up, the eye witness describes how they recognize a suspect, this statement will be documented on either a ______ or a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_?
Arrest or officers report.
114
Witness Identification: during a sequential line up, the witness identifies the suspect right away (2nd picture) the administrator will: If the witness requests to see the 2nd picture one more time, the administrator will do the whole thing again.
1. Continue with the line up, show all pictures
115
Witness Identification: when will the independent administrator be told which is the potential suspect?
The administrator will not be told.
116
Witness Identification: you want to do a live line up, the booking Lt. need to have the request prior to 1200 hrs the day before. T/F
True
117
Witness Identification: for live line ups if there is only one eye the suspect's attorney picks the line up. If multiple witnesses who picks?
The detective, and will rearrange each line up.
118
Witness Identification: prior to each live lineup photographs must be taken T/F
True
119
Witness Identification: For live line up replacements, when is this done?
15 minutes prior
120
Witness Identification: live line up statements and results will be documented on a investigative case file and copies forwarded to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_?
the DA office.
121
Witness Identification: may the suspect's attorney question a witness at a live line up?
No
122
Witness Identification: a show up should be done when a lineup is appropriate and/or practical and within \_\_\_\_\_hrs of the the incident?
1-3 hours
123
Witness Identification: during a show up, does the 60 minute rule apply? Do you move the suspect?
-Yes -You SHOULD NOT move the suspect. Search and seizure handbook: in extreme cases you may move the suspect to the victim. An example given was a 426 victim at a hospital who was being treated. It was reasonable to bring the suspect to the hospital while her memory was fresh...totally impractical to move the victim to the suspect.
124
Witness Identification: if one eyewitness makes a positive identification during a show up, and PC exists, what SHOULD be done with subsequent witnesses?
Photo line ups.
125
Witness Identification: For showups, regardless of outcome a Show-up witness instruction form will be completed in all Felony crimes T/F?
True
126
Witness Identification: what does a supervisor do for lineups? (4)
1. Ensure lead detective selects a method (simultaneous/sequential) 2. Ensure photos depict a likeness 3. Ensure positions change per viewer 4.review package and paperwork at conclusion for completeness
127
418: In compliance with the National Child Search Assistance Act of 1990, what is the waiting period to file a missing persons report with the LVMPD?
There is no waiting period.
128
418: All Juvenile’s, 17 and younger, will be entered into NCIC within ____ hrs of receiving the required minimum data elements.
2
129
418: Missing persons age 18-20 will be immediately entered into NCIC in accordance with the federally mandated Suzanne’s Law within \_\_\_\_\_\_hours of receiving the required minimum data elements.
2
130
418: Adults (21+) can only be entered into NCIC if they have: (5)
1. A disability 2. Are in physical danger 3. Involuntary circumstances 4. Victim of a catastrophe 5. Other suspicious circumstances
131
418: The _____ number, must be added to P1 and/or CAD by the report taker then indicate the entry was complete. ALL JUVENILE REPORTS WILL CONTAIN THIS.
The NIC number
132
418: If entered into NCIC and subsequently located You still do the report. You must also ____ the NCIC record?
you must cancel the NCIC record.
133
418: Who has copies of juvenile reports and acts as the NV clearing house for missing children? When does LVMPD send reports to them?
1. The office of the Attorney General (AG) 2. When requested (at their direction)
134
418: communications receives a 418 call. When do they dispatch patrol (6)
1. Under the age or 12 or documented diminish mental capacity under 12. 2. Physical/mental condition which hinders the ability to care for themselves, posing a significant risk of death or serious bodily harm 3. Possible victim of foul play 4. Actively threatening or attempting suicide 5. Potential life threatening situation. 6. Possession of a firearm or large amount of money.
135
418: If a juvenile is taken into protective custody, who must report them missing?
Whoever has custody, (CPS, foster parent, etc.)
136
418: when a missing person report involves a vehicle, who is immediately called?
WVS desk.
137
418: when a runaway report involves numerous NON-SIBLING juveniles (including at west care and child haven). each child gets their own P1 report with their own _______ number.
event
138
418: when are multiple runaways listed in the same report?
when they have the Same parent/guardian or household. Again, West care and child haven are not a “household”
139
418: If after the preliminary investigation AND you have any one of the following, Who do you contact and notify? 1. Under the age or 12 or documented diminish mental capacity under 12. 2. Physical/mental condition which hinders the ability to care for themselves, posing a risk of death or serious bodily harm 3. Possible victim of foul play 4. Actively threatening or attempting suicide 5. Potential life threatening situation. 6. Possession of a firearm or large amount of money.
A supervisor and the Missing persons detail.
140
418: what is the supervisors role on 418’s?
1. Ensure P1 is complete. 2. Ensure NCIC entries have a NIC. 3. If you have 1. Under the age or 12 or documented diminish mental capacity under 12. 4. Physical/mental condition which hinders the ability to care for themselves, posing a risk of death or serious bodily harm 5. Possible victim of foul play 4. Actively threatening or attempting suicide 5. Potential life threatening situation. 6. Possession of a firearm or large amount of money. 7Ensure Missing Persons was notified
141
418: If a missing person is not voluntarily missing and potentially a 420 victim, who notifies homicide?
MP detectives or SGTs (But not if it appears to be 405)
142
Which section responds for the following? 1. Info indicates death/substantial bodily harm is likely 2. Person meets l2k criteria 3. Doesn’t meet criteria BUT is request by the patrol supervisor or WC
Missing persons responds with their supervisor approval
143
418: what is the name of the alert for the following? 1. Confirmed abduction 2.Under 18 3. Threat or serious bodily harm or death 4. Have suspect or vehicle info
Amber Alert
144
418: -For alleged non-custodial parent abductions, the parent is entered and listed under the same NCIC T/F? -For straight parent and child missing together, the parent is listed under a DIFFERENT NCIC T/F?
true
145
418: Mom goes hiking with her kids and they all disappear...probably eaten by a bear. How is everyone listed?
Everyone gets a separate NCIC entry and parent is listed as a Person with information for each kid.
146
418: when a missing kid (under 21) ages up and is still missing (becomes an adult). Who has the authority to remove/cancel, if they decided?
Missing persons detail.
147
418: when locating a juvenile and there are no criminal charges, who are they released to?
A legal guardian Child haven or West care.
148
418: IA person is located and had not been reported missing to LVMPD. How does the patrol officer handle this?
Contact records, They will send a NCIC locate to the appropriate agency
149
421: patrol will not be dispatched on ROUTINE 421 calls, unless:
Medical services request officers to respond.
150
421: Patrol will be dispatched for Sick or injured persons for the following reason, T/F: 1. Are suspicious in nature 2. Related to unknown trouble calls 3. Involve injuries as a result of criminal activity or traffic accident. 4. Are the result of a gunshot. 5. Other circumstances indicate a need for police involvement.
True
151
421: If an injured person is suffering from potential life threatening injury or substantial head trauma, an ICR is taken and ______ will be taken to document the scene.
photos
152
421: If officers respond to a structure and the sole occupant is transported they SHOULD:
Lock it or call an on call company to secure it if they can’t!
153
421: what are the five manners of death?
1 Natural 2 Accidental 3 Homicide 4 suicide 5 undetermined
154
421: on suspicious deaths/ homicides. A patrol supervisor will:
1.Respond and confirm it’s is suspicious or related to a homicide. 2.Ensure CSA has been requested. 3.Ensure homicide has been notified
155
421: patrol officers will not begin an ICR on a homicide or suspicious death unless:
Instructed by the detective.
156
421: homicide DOES NOT need notifications for:
1. Suicide 2. Overdose 3. Non suspicious
157
421: When homicide responds AND assume investigative responsibility, they confer with patrol supervisor to determine:
Who completes the dead body incident report.
158
421: The dead body incident report will not be used to document a\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
Homicide
159
421: who investigates all deaths other than homicide, in custody or suspicious:
Deputy Coroner Investigator
160
421: on a 419, all personal property is impounded by:
Deputy coroner or PA, not LVMPD
161
421: A F/A used in a suicide will be impounded as evidence by? All other firearms are the responsibility of? Officers may impound others as?
-CSAs -Coroner/PA -Safekeeping: detail on property report a THREAT to LIFE/SAFETY
162
421: vehicle of a dead body, we only tow if:
The vehicle is a hazard in the roadway
163
421: If the coroner is securing a structure we: If we damage the structure:
MAY stay on scene until secure we WILL call the on call company and standby
164
421: Abuse Neglect LT will be notified on All child related deaths T/F:
True
165
421: on all events related to the death of a child, officers and supervisor will be dispatched?
yes
166
421: on child deaths, a patrol supervisor will:
Respond. Ensure CSA has been requested Ensure homicide and/or AN has been requested.
167
421: on child deaths in hospitals with any concern of AN, who determines if they can have access or keepsakes?
Lead Investigating sergeant
168
BWC: commissioned police officers, of any rank, when assigned a device, will wear their camera at all times while in \_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
uniform.
169
BWC: wearers will wear their BWC on their \_\_\_\_\_\_\_bearing shoulder.
Non-weapon bearing
170
BWC: Officers will document the existence of a BWC on what places or reports?
MDT closing comments P1 FIs, cite narratives investigative reports, arrest documents.
171
BWC: In addition to UOF and SOCs. What are supervisors expected to routinely do with body cams? (5) 1. Ensure policy is being followed. 2. Conduct routine inspections of the wear method (correct shoulder, not blocked by uniform) 3. Put malfunctioning cameras on the ETM, issue an entirely new camera (cord, pack, controller) and assign in evidence.com
4.Retrieve and upload BWC for officers unable to do so by end of shift. 5. Access BWCs in accordance with policy, if no access, contact another supervisor, PD, IS, or BWC. Ensure marked with retention categories.
172
BWC: officers will activate the BWC as soon as a call is initiated via radio and/or MDT, they may deactivate if the event concludes prior to arrival or not activate until arrived if at what percent of battery power? Who doesn’t activate until they are within 2 miles of arrival?
-Less than 20% -K9, Traffic, resident, unless code 3, Swat activates at individual deployment.
173
BWC: Officers have the discretion to deactivate the BWC when:
-The privacy concerns outweigh law enforcement interests and -the absence of a BWC will not affect the investigation.
174
BWC: The decision to deactivate a BWC should be:
Stated prior to deactivation.
175
BWC: if an officer has a malfunction with their camera, what do they do to document the malfunction?
Send an email to SAU.
176
BWC: Does supply accounts for all cameras through the WASP tracking system?
YES
177
BWC: What are the training exceptions of the BWC?
FTEP AOST RBT SWAT after action reviews
178
BWC: at mass demonstrations, crowd control, and riots, the Lt. directs the usage of a BWC, T/F
True
179
BWC: If during a special event (OT), an officer involved in an incident requires to be finished (pursuit, use of force, soc) beyond the end of the shift; Events Planning section will add _____ minutes to the end of the shift?
30 minutes.
180
BWC: While working OT at the jail, where is the BWC kept?
Gun locker
181
BWC: at the airport, officers will use extra caution to not capture the codes being entered on the cover code pads, T/F?
True
182
BWC: access to evidence.com is permitted on a\_\_\_\_\_\_ and\_\_\_\_\_\_ basis:
Right-to-know, and need-to-know basis.
183
BWC: news release of BWC is governed primarily by the ______ policy.
News media and public information.
184
BWC: Who approves to download, disseminate, copy, and record BWC, at the area command ? The _____ Commander gives expressed written permission?
General counsel and PIO Bureau commander
185
BWC: auto label retention on: A/D dispositions
10 years
186
BWC: auto label retention on: B/E dispositions
5 years
187
BWC: auto label retention on: C/K/L/P/Q/T/Z dispositions
1 year
188
BWC: auto label retention on: F/G/H/I/J/M/O/RS dispositions
90 days
189
BWC: manual hold, short-term retention (non-BWC evidence) is how many years
4 years
190
BWC: mid-term retention on (risk management, legal, 401)
7 years
191
BWC: long term retention on (OIS, SA, etc.)
20 years
192
BWC: indefinite retention on
Homicide, pending, NPRA, training.
193
BWC: what’re the two compliance aspects?
Activation performance rate (apr) and % of assigned time recorded
194
BWC: a “status report” is given around ____ day. A monthly compliance is given around the\_\_\_\_\_ day.
19th 5th
195
BWC: for non compliance, a contact is not given until:
-the review of the report, videos and CAD. -Then acontact will document all conversations and compliance or noncompliance
196
BWC: all initial camera assignments will be through?
Logistics supply section.
197
Driving: supervisors shall conduct periodic spot inspections of vehicles assigned to their personnel at least once per\_\_\_\_:
Month
198
FFE: The use of a dispersal order MUST be authorized by the:
Incident Commander (IC)
199
FFE: Who provides tactical options to extricate Locked protestors?
Saturation Team Supervisor
200
FFE: Who is in primary command of a protest/field force extrication? (Hint is not the saturation team Sgt.)
The IC
201
FFE: Who does the AAR for a FFE?
Saturation Team Supervisor
202
Drug Free Workplace: Officer knight is a self-reported alcohol abuser. He participates in MANDATORY treatment and is on a last chance agreement. He is subjected to unannounced testing for how many years?
2 years
203
Drug Free Workplace: Drug test results are provided to the member by\_\_\_\_ in the first 24hrs then IAB.
The Medical Review Officer (MRO) SUPERVISORS ONLY: MRO in 24 hours, then to CIRT and CIRT notifies IAB. MRO discusses results...IAB will provide results
204
Drug Free Workplace: After a reasonable suspicion (RS) test sample is collected, the member will be released to the custody of his \_\_\_\_\_.
Supervisor
205
Drug Free Workplace: If physical manifestations of impairment are present, a commissioned supervisor will have the member perform SFSTs before at least how many members?
2
206
Drug Free Workplace: For a reasonable suspicion test, the supervisor and IAB document the RS on an:
SOC, via Blue Team
207
Drug Free Workplace: Prescriptions must be renewed:
Annually - at a minimum Or Prior to an expiration 14 days, 30 days etc if not annual or continual.
208
Drug Free Workplace: Members having ___________ that another member is ILLEGALLY in possession, manufacturing, etc. a controlled substance will immediately report the facts and circumstances to their supervisor.
Reasonable suspicion
209
Drug Free Workplace: Members who unintentionally ingest a controlled substance will immediately report the incident to their\_\_\_\_\_:
supervisor
210
Drug Free Workplace: Sleeping on duty is:
Prohibited
211
Drug Free Workplace: Your officer states they “wish they were dead”. This is an overt act IF they:
Have a plan for action
212
Drug Free Workplace: A BAC at or above ________ May be grounds for discipline or termination.
0.02
213
Drug Free Workplace: Officer Jones tells you he plans to 401 after work hoping the crash will kill him. You want to place Jones on relief of duty. First you will consult with \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_or \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_in his s absence.
1. The bureau commander 2. The WC
214
EIIP: Who does a supervisor contact for an employee performance review (EPR)?
Early Identification and Intervention Program (EIIP)
215
EIIP: Supervisors receive EIIP alerts via:
Email
216
EIIP: Firearms discharges are calculated over a rolling time period of \_\_\_months.
60 months
217
EIIP: Only the __________ itself and the chain of command have access to the employees dashboard.
employee
218
EIIP: The color __________ indicates a threshold has been reached or surpassed
Red
219
EIIP: The __________ Review Board (CRB) requests do not affect the employees dashboard.
Citizen
220
EIIP: Any supervisory action taken is informal, flexible, and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Confidential
221
EIIP identifies trends and patterns before they become risks and liabilities for the department and the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
employee
222
EIIP is the LVMPDs Non- disciplinary approach to addressing employee performance problems T/F?
True
223
EIIP is part of the departments larger effort to support and improve:
Employee performance
224
EIIP stands for:
Early Identification and Intervention Program
225
CSI: abuse/neglect will be notified for all:
1. Child or elder, substantial injuries as a result of abuse and/or neglect. 2. All child deaths 3. Elder (60+) deaths as a result of abuse/neglect
226
CSI: if needed, which section will request PD to DSD for a preliminary investigation?
The on call FIT/CIRT LT.
227
CSI: If a crime involves a dignitary or politician, who is notified?
Criminal Intellignece Section LT or designee
228
445: Which section investigates bomb threats and extortions as well as found or suspected devices?
ARMOR
229
445: Which agency is the primary agency for all terrorist incidents?
FBI
230
445: All decisions regarding compliance with extortion demands will be made by:
The representative of the establishment
231
445: For a bomb threat, if the PR insists a police response is NOT necessary an ______ will be taken.
IO report
232
445: On a bomb threat, the officer should make updates via:
MDT or Land line. Radios could trigger a bomb
233
445: For a suspected or known explosive device, department personnel will NOT:
Touch move or handle in any way
234
445: At a located device the ranking CBRNE member will be in command of the primary location and all personnel assigned to it T/F?
True
235
445: Explosive device media released is conferred among what four entities:
1. ARMOR supervisor 2. CT captain or LT 3. FBI Or 4.ATF
236
445: If a death occurs from a bomb: Which section conducts the death investigation? Which section will do the post blast investigation?
Homicide ARMOR
237
445: Other than small samples, will CSI handle or impound live explosives?
No,
238
445: For in-depth CSA cases, who may be contacted?
BATF special teams
239
All hazard: EMS will ensure all hazard training is provided to all affected personnel and may include any of the necessary exercise components how often.
Annual
240
All hazard: All commissioned officers must complete ICS 100, 200, and 700 with in the first ______ of employment:
year.
241
All hazard: command will be established by the most qualified officer regardless of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_, who is physically at scene.
rank
242
All hazard: Shift WC’s should not assume an IC position. T/F?
True
243
All hazard: when a command post is established it will be given a unique name and broadcast to communications T/F?
True
244
All hazard: for large scale, multi-jurisdictional events with various area commands to ensure LIP, which section takes the ORs?
Records Bureau. But not if you used deadly force.
245
All hazard: who ensures a supervisor is notified and en route to a all hazard emergency?
1st arriving officers
246
All hazard: all requests for regional, state or federal resources are made through which section?
The Emergency Management Section.
247
All hazard: officers and supervisors will arrive at an incident and Exercise radio discipline, remaining off channel and showing "arrived" on the MDT, T/F?
True
248
All hazard: as appropriate, what section arranges for psychological support and counseling for members?
Police Employee Assistance Program (PEAP)
249
Hostage: In the case of hostage takers. The department will through all means attempt to? (2)
1 The safe rescue of hostages 2. Apprehensions of the hostage taker.
250
Barricade: An incident involving a armed suicidal subject is a barricade incident T/F?
True
251
Barricade: The patrol supervisor in whose area an incident a barricade occurs shall be in primary command of all police operations during an incident.
Patrol supervisor
252
During a Hostage and/or barricade (identical for both): The recorder maintains a _________ log of events to update the patrol division supervisor of personnel assignments.
chronological
253
Hostage: Once SWAT arrives, they will assume command of tactical ops, inner perimeter control and will coordinate contact via CNT. The Patrol Supervisor will assume command of logistical/support concerns T/F?
True
254
Social media: Department members are _______________ from disclosing information pertaining to any other member of the department without permission of the affected \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. This includes “tagging” in text or photos.
Prohibited Member.
255
Social media: Topics of public concern include employment/personnel matters or information learned in the course of employment.T/F
False - the topic must be public and not arising from the course of my employment
256
418: For NCIC entry, Missing persons must be under one of the following categories: JIVED-O
Juvenile 20 and below Involuntary circumstances Victim of a catastrophe Endangered - physical danger Disability or other suspicious circumstances
257
418 When a patrol officer is dispatched to a 418, they will record in CAD:
When the minimum data elements were obtained
258
418: A person of interest is Listed as a person of interest T/F?
True
259
418: For violations of family court visitation, officers can complete:
A contact card and refer them to the admin office of family court
260
421: Inmate in custody deaths occur at:
North valley complex CCDC or a medical facility
261
Voice radio communications: The 492 is not used by Resident Officers. Instead they must:
Be assigned to an existing event or have dispatch assign to and event and go “to other”
262
Voice radio communications: IDF code stands for:
Incident disposition function.
263
Voice radio communications: on the mdt, on mileage is out under: Off mileage is in comments of:
To other Stat clear
264
Voice radio communications: Phonetic alphabet will be used in all cases where:
License plate numbers are broadcast. NOT for streets, businesses, etc unless a doubt exists
265
Voice radio communications: when will covert or UCs respond to a patrol call?
When requested or if a crime occurs in their presence. They should not respond or leave their vehicle on scene until they notify communications and communications advises them they’re aware.
266
CBRNE: Which agency is the lead for all WMD/CBRNE incidents?
FBI
267
CBRNE: When is the Clark County Mass Casualty Plan implemented?
If an incident results in MORE THAN 20 casualties
268
CBRNE: who inventories equipment for safekeeping or destruction if item cannot be fully decontaminated?
The supervisor.
269
Driving: Officers discovering damage to their vehicle will document by completing a _______ report?
Officers report prior to end of shift
270
Driving: Supervisors shall conduct inspections every _______ of vehicles assigned to their personnel. Deficiencies or corrective actions will be recorded in a contact:
Monthly
271
CBRNE: Who commands the outer perimeter and traffic control?
Senior traffic supervisor on scene.
272
SOCIAL MEDIA: Department social media pages shall be approved by a __________ and forwarded to the PIO for registry.
DC or designee. PIO will also identify the officer or position responsible for maintaining the media page.
273
Dispatch of units on 421 or deaths: Is a supervisor REQUIRED to respond to the scene of a death when it appears to be natural to the Patrol Officer?
Supervisor WILL“Respond to the scene (unless death appears to be natural) and confirm with the patrol officer the death is not suspicious or the result of a homicide”
274
Dispatch of units on 421 or deaths: Which section Lt. will be contacted regarding the death of a person with media interest, child death related to physical violence or a LVMPD employee/family member?
Homicide Lt. Or designee
275
Dispatch of units on 421 or deaths: T/F: a dead body report may be used to document a homicide?
FALSE It “Will not be used” for a homicide
276
Dispatch of units on 421 or deaths: What are the only times LVMPD will deal with property on a dead body call?
1. The firearm used in a suicide call (by CSI) 2. Other firearms May be impounded for safekeeping IF a threat to life or safety exists (documented in the property report) 3. Vehicles which are causing a hazard on a roadway
277
Dispatch of units on 421 or deaths: Which section Lt. will be notified on all child related deaths? (Child means someone less than 18)
The Abuse Neglect Lt.
278
Dispatch of units on 421 or deaths: Who makes the decision on whether family members can hold the deceased child or collect keepsakes?
“The lead investigating sergeant”
279
Dispatch of units on 421 or deaths: What are the Supervisors duties on a deceased child event?(3)
1. Respond to the scene 2. Ensure CSA has been requested 3. Ensure homicide detail and/or AN have been requested.
280
Dispatch of units on 421 or deaths: Which section Lt. will be contacted on all in custody deaths?
The FIT Lt.
281
Recertification for the dog catchpole will occur once per \_\_\_\_\_:
year
282
Crime scene: An officer locates evidence of a crime outside of the crime scene. They are responsible for the impound unless it is a: (what 2 specific scenes?)
1. Homicide 2. FIT \*\*\*or in any circumstance where it would be in the best interest for CSI to impound or special handling\*\*\*
283
Crime scene: All deaths or injuries where death is probable, will be treated as a _____________ until the investigation determines otherwise.
Homicide
284
All hazard multi-agency operations and response acronym is ?
ARMOR
285
What (besides explosives) can EDD’s locate?
Firearms and ammo
286
445: What is contained in a 5-line report? CPT-LD
Contact info of unit on scene Protective measures taken Threatened infrastructure Location of the device Description of the device
287
Drug free workplace: What is an illicit drug?
Schedule 1
288
PEAP: a supervisor should make time each ___________ to meet with employees.
Month
289
PEAP: When should a supervisor make an IMMEDIATE notification to PEAP:
1. Victim of a person crime 2. Arrested for a crime 3. Stressful incident during work shift
290
ARMOR: When WILL ARMOR be called:
When the on scene supervisor or IC determines a suspicious object is explosive device
291
Drug free workplace: How many years until an Employee Crisis Intervention Form and professional assessment is purged?
5 years
292
Who investigates death caused by an explosive device?
Homicide -ARMOR is still responsible for the blast scene/investigation
293
Police employee assistance program acronym.
PEAP
294
If you need immediate PEAP assistance call PEAP directly during regular hours. After hours which section supervisor can help you contact PEAP for immediate assistance?
Communications supervisor
295
Dispatch will automatically notify PEAP for?
1. OIS or 2. When employee is transported to hospital for on duty injury
296
Retail apprehension prevention partnership detail/task force acronym?
RAPP
297
FIT stands for: CIRT stands for:
1. Force investigation team 2. Critical incident review team
298
What are the CIT SCOPE entry codes and what do they stand for?
CIT1- Previous Legal 2000 CIT2-Previous Violence Towards Officers/Others CIT3-Weapon taken from or taken off subject CIT4-Self or Doctor diagnosed mental disorder
299
Driving: the use of seatbelt extenders is Prohibited T/F?:
True
300
ALL HAZARD: _____ was developed so responders from different jurisdictions and disciplines can work together better to respond to natural disasters and man made emergencies.
NIMS-National Incident Management System
301
ALL HAZARD: ICS is the standard tool used for command, control, response coordination, and overall management of complex incidents, preplanned events and/or \_\_\_\_\_. This system permits a clear point of command and can be expanded or contracted with ease to escalating or diminishing situations.
emergencies
302
ALL HAZARD: \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_:This type of command is a team effort that allows all agencies with jurisdictional responsibility for an incident, either geographical or functional, to participate in the management of an incident. All agencies with jurisdictional authority or functional responsibility for any or all aspects of an incident, as well as those who provide specific resource support, participate in the Unified Command.
UNIFIED COMMAND
303
ALL HAZARD: Specific tactical procedures are detailed throughout the department manual for designated incidents (such as bomb threats, hostage situations, aircraft accidents, etc.) they must be handled separately from the procedures set out in the all hazards policy T/F?
False procedures for bombs etc, must be used in "conjunction" with the all hazards procedures.
304
ALL HAZARD: Which section is the principal advisor to the department on unusual occurrences, planning for response to “all hazard” situations, and coordinating emergency plans internally and externally
Emergency Mamagement
305
ALL HAZARD: T/F: Command will be established by the highest ranking officer available in the fusion center who has access to video etc?
False -Command will be established by the most QUALIFIED officer, REGARDLESS OF RANK, who is physically ON SCENE
306
ALL HAZARD: Wherever possible, WC's should assume the IC role TF?
FALSE "shift watch commanders SHOULD NOT assume the position unless absolutely necessary to allow for continued oversight of the remainder of the jurisdiction".
307
ALL HAZARD: T/F: Whenever command is transferred it will be done so via CAD or AM so dispatch has an electronic record.
FALSE WILL be done with the radio and over the air.
308
ALL HAZARD: Identify 5 of the major steps identified as guidelines when managing all hazard incidents: FYI, there are 15 listed in policy
•Ensure Officer and Public Safety•Conduct a Situation Assessment and update Dispatch•Establish on-scene command by implementing the Incident Command System (ICS), establishing an Incident Command Post and naming it•Establish Communication Channels (see 5/106.13, Joint Use of Interoperable Radio Frequencies)•Establish Staging Area(s) (Police, Fire, Medical, and Media)•Establish a Perimeter Control Plan (Inner/Outer)• Consider the Need for Additional Resources•Determine and Maintain Ingress/Egress Routes for First Responders•Coordinate/Assist in an Evacuation/Shelter in Place• Determine Evacuation Transportation and Destination•Request the Public Information Officer (PIO)•Preserve the Scene for Evidentiary Purposes•Maintain an Operations Log•Develop Incident Action Plan (formal or informal)•Notification of additional public safety departments and other resources.
309
ALL HAZARD T/F: When taking command of an incident, "IC" is added to the end of the IC's call sign. For example, 673Z becomes 673ZIC
FALSE You do add IC, but drop special unit designators such as "Z", "N" etc. In this case the correct call sign would be 673IC
310
ALL HAZARD T/F: The CP will be given a unique name and broadcast to control
TRUE
311
ALL HAZARD: \*What are the top three priorities in all incidents:
1. Life safety. 2. Incident stabilization. 3. Property preservation.
312
ALL HAZARD Units from neighboring area commands will NOT self dispatch UNLESS.....
the incident occurs within close proximity to the border between the area commands and the officer is also already within close proximity to the incident.
313
ALL HAZARD: If the incident is a large-scale, multi-jurisdictional event with various area commands or bureaus needed to ensure life safety, stabilize the incident, and preserve property then every department member (commissioned and civilian) involved in any capacity of the incident will complete an officer’s report UNLESS
"If an officer uses deadly force they will not complete an officer’s report"
314
ALL HAZARD If a dedicated channel is going to be used during an all hazard incident it will be the \_\_\_\_\_TAC channel.
8-Call/8-Tac channel
315
ALL HAZARD T/F: When a sergeant arrives on an incident which a PO has already taken charge of, the sergeant will always take command.
-On less complex incidents the sergeant may choose to leave the patrol officer in command and mentor the officer through the process for educational purposes. -The sergeant will ensure that the decisions made by the officer in the position of incident commander are sound and within the guidelines of department policy before allowing them to be implemented.
316
ALL HAZARD Any Sgt. who assumes the role of IC during an all hazard incident will complete an AAR within how many days? and forward it to Emergency Management Section.
10 days Note: Only one AAR is necessary for each event.
317
ALL HAZARD Supervisors and Officers Arriving will report to who for deployment orders?
The staging area manager
318
DRUG FREE WORKPLACE A blood or breath alcohol content above ________ at the time of testing, may be grounds for discipline or termination.
0.02
319
DRUG FREE WORKPLACE The following is the definition of \_\_\_\_\_:“The condition resulting from ingesting a substance to the degree than renders a member incapable of effectively performing his job duties”
Impairment
320
If a RS test comes back with a detected level of an illicit controlled substance, but the level is BELOW the threshold limits identified by the department, how is the test reported?
“None detected”
321
DRUG FREE WORKPLACE Any of the following acts and/or information will give the department _____ suspicion. 1.observable phenomena 2.a pattern of abnormal conduct or erratic behavior 3.arrest or conviction for a drug or alcohol related offense, or info that the member is the focus of a criminal investigation into drug use/trafficking. 4. Any other information provided by reliable and credible sources, including a positive department administered drug test or information of tampering with a drug test
Reasonable suspicion
322
DRUG FREE WORKPLACE A member who is struggling to stay awake while on duty must\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Advise his direct supervisor who will determine the proper course of action
323
DRUG FREE WORKPLACE Is the odor of an alcoholic Beveridge on a member or identifiable impairment enough to conduct a FST and/or blood/breath test?
Yes
324
DRUG FREE WORKPLACE You are on duty in plain clothes, can you buy a beer before the end of your shift so you can drink it at home when you get off work?
No
325
DRUG FREE WORKPLACE You are OFF DUTY but in uniform. Can you buy a beer to take home and drink?
No
326
DRUG FREE WORKPLACE May members associate with persons who are legally using marijuana under state law?
YES, But do so at their own risk and if they test positive then they are subject to termination.
327
DRUG FREE WORKPLACE Members who unintentionally ingest or who are made to ingest an illicit/controlled substance will immediately report the incident to\_\_\_\_\_\_
Their supervisor
328
DRUG FREE WORKPLACE OTC medications... 1. Can you take more than the recommended dose of an OTC medication? 2. Can you be sustained for showing up to work drowsy on OTC medications alone?
1. NO 2. YES
329
DRUG FREE WORKPLACE Do members have to notify health detail of ALL medications which they are prescribed?
NO only the ones which have the potential to cause impairment while on duty.
330
DRUG FREE WORKPLACE If a prescription is reported to health detail with a term on its use (such as take 2 pills a day every day for 30 days) and no other information is provided. Will the member have an approval to take the medication after the 30 days?
NO
331
DRUG FREE WORKPLACE Notification/renewal of medication use must be renewed _______ with the health detail
Annually
332
DRUG FREE WORKPLACE Does the department recognize medical marijuana cards, prescribed by a physician?
NO
333
DRUG FREE WORKPLACE May members use any medication at all, prescribed by a doctor where THC is a component?
NO
334
DRUG FREE WORKPLACE A member is being brought in for a RS drug/alcohol test. Are they entitled to have a union rep present for the test?
YES
335
DRUG FREE WORKPLACE Members suspected of being under the influence will be taken to IAB, and supervisor will ________ him or her.
Unarm
336
DRUG FREE WORKPLACE Does the RS testing process apply to criminal investigations?
NO
337
DRUG FREE WORKPLACE For an RS test, who completes the “summary of facts” section of the RS document?
The reporting supervisor
338
DRUG FREE WORKPLACE The RS for a RS test will be documented on a....
SOC
339
DRUG FREE WORKPLACE Which of the following are NOT grounds for a RS test: 1. Information from a reliable source regarding use etc 2. The use of force, or serious on duty injury to the member or another person 3. Vehicle accidents 4. Reduced productivity, high absenteeism 5. Visual observation of physical manifestations
ALL of the above are valid per policy
340
DRUG FREE WORKPLACE Commissioned supervisors will have how many witnesses to a SFST.
TWO
341
DRUG FREE WORKPLACE Are the employees name recorded on a RS sample?
NO NAMES ON SAMPLES
342
DRUG FREE WORKPLACE If the member is suspected of using illicit drugs, the bureau commander will place the employee on\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ status pending the results of the drug test.
ROD and they stay on ROD status if the test comes back positive.
343
DRUG FREE WORKPLACE If an RS test comes back as positive for a non-illicit drug... their bureau commander may return the member to ____________ duty, after consultation with the risk manager.
modified duty
344
DRUG FREE WORKPLACE If a RS test comes back positive, how long does a member have to request an independent analysis of the “E” sample?
72 hours from being initially notified -Note- they have to inform the department MRO.
345
DRUG FREE WORKPLACE RS testing: Say a member is assigned to patrol, but is TDY to narcs. IF Narcs gets called for RS testing, does the member get RS' tested because of the TDY or is he exempt because he is on TDY?
“members who are assigned TDY will be tested with their TDY squad”
346
DRUG FREE WORKPLACE When does the member have a choice on WHICH sample they provide (blood/urine/hair)
-For RS tests, the department decides -For random tests, the member decides.
347
DRUG FREE WORKPLACE Members Are permitted to get independent samples collected after the conclusion of a department random test, if the member wants to get an independent test what do they need to do:
1. Get supervisory approval (which is based on department manpower needs) 2. Submit a leave request 3. Pay for the test at their own expense.
348
DRUG FREE WORKPLACE Per the PMSA contract, supervisors are subject to alcohol and drug testing immediately following what types of incidents (2 kinds)
1. Use of deadly force (excluding an animal shoot) but including an AD which occurs DURING A POLICE OPERATION in which the supervisor is the shooter.
2. A department 401 where the supervisor is considered at fault and death or SBH occurs. Includes PBT testing!
349
DRUG FREE WORKPLACE For supervisor testing only: Can they choose to provide hair for a test after the use of DF or a 401?
NO HAIR but they can choose between blood or urine.
350
DRUG FREE WORKPLACE According to policy, whom may a member self report as an abuser of alcohol or prescription drugs to?
Their chain of command or an association rep
351
DRUG FREE WORKPLACE If a member self reports being an alcohol or prescription drugs abuser, what are they subjected to?
1. A last chance agreement and 2. unannounced testing for a 2 year period 3. The last chance agreement will stay on file for the rest of he members employment under the same purging conditions as a major discipline. 4. after the purge it will be taken out of the personnel file and placed in a separate file.
352
DRUG FREE WORKPLACE True or false: It is the policy of the department to identify and support the member who’s behavior on duty only provides evidence that he may be a threat to himself or others to ensure safety in the workplace.
FALSE Applies to both on and off duty behavior
353
DRUG FREE WORKPLACE If a member is determined to be a potential risk of harming themselves or others, what duty status shall they be placed on?
Admin leave.
354
DRUG FREE WORKPLACE Member in crisis: On the ROD/temporary form, should the words “member crisis intervention” be placed on the form?
NO (In order to ensure confidentiality)
355
DRUG FREE WORKPLACE Member in crisis: What information is provided to PEAP and the applicable association?
Nothing more than, “an incident as defined by this procedure (employee in crisis) has occurred”
356
DRUG FREE WORKPLACE Employee in crisis: What paperwork is completed by the immediate supervisor under the employee in crisis policy?
“Employee crisis intervention form” And a memo (if appropriate) with supporting information forwarded through the chain to the bureau commander
357
Random drug samples: Department members will have the option of providing what to satisfy this test, Blood, breath, urine or hair?
Urine OR hair
358
SUPERVISOR TESTING after DF etc-supervisor has to supply what to satisfy this policy?-blood: hair/urine/breath? WHO GETS TO CHOOSE? (Department or the supervisor)?
HAS to provide a PBT -also HAS to submit to a drug test but the supervisor gets to choose between blood or urine
359
DV AND DUI VIOLATIONS BY EMPLOYEES If an employee is subject to an extended order for protection and is required to carry a 413... who is responsible for storing it while the member is off duty?
Bureau commander or designee
360
DV AND DUI VIOLATIONS BY EMPLOYEES If an employee is subject to an extended protection order, can they carry a personally owned firearm on duty?
YES As long as it is “department authorized” and only while in performance of duties
361
DV AND DUI VIOLATIONS BY EMPLOYEES Under this section, the employees immediate supervisor will address the employees behavior through Discipline or ?
Counseling, training or care programs
362
DV AND DUI VIOLATIONS BY EMPLOYEES True or false: It is the policy of the department to deal with DUI/DV offenders through administrative sanctions and court specified remedies.
TRUE
363
DV AND DUI VIOLATIONS BY EMPLOYEES If a member is served with a TPO, who keeps his firearm?
The employee does. It’s only Extended protection orders which require turning in guns
364
DV AND DUI VIOLATIONS BY EMPLOYEES If discipline is reduced due to completion of court-referred treatment, does the original designation remain?
YES But it is amended to “40 hours suspension, reduced to a 20 hour suspension with option, plus 20 hours in abeyance due to the completion of a court referral program” Immediate supervisor also has the responsibility to coordinate any voluntary follow up care for the employee through PEAP
365
CRIMINAL VIOLATIONS BY LE EMPLOYEES If a citizen wishes to report a criminal violation by a department member, whom shall they be directed to?
1. The employees area Lt. 2. A watch commander, 3. bureau/area commander or 4. the criminal investigations section
366
CRIMINAL VIOLATIONS BY LE EMPLOYEES\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ will be notified, through the chain of command ASAP of any member of this or any other department that is charged or accused of a criminal violation
The sheriff
367
CRIMINAL VIOLATIONS BY LE EMPLOYEES Upon being notified of a LE employee being charged with a crime, who does a supervisor notify?
WC
368
CRIMINAL VIOLATIONS BY LE EMPLOYEES If a LE employee is detained, charged etc who does the immediate supervisor notify?
WC OR the CIS supervisor
369
CRIMINAL VIOLATIONS BY LE EMPLOYEES If LE criminal activity is discovered during a long term covert investigation, who is notified?
CIS supervisor. If this happens, the CIS BC will be responsible for chain notifications to the sheriff.
370
CRIMINAL VIOLATIONS BY LE EMPLOYEES If a LE employee is suspected of DUI, who is notified on top of CIS?
Traffic supervisor
371
CRIMINAL VIOLATIONS BY LE EMPLOYEES If CIS responds to a call, who is responsible for ALL tests, interviews etc?
CIS supervisor
372
CRIMINAL VIOLATIONS BY LE EMPLOYEES If CIS declines responding, but a crime is still suspected. Who is responsible for the field work?
The appropriate investigative/patrol unit
373
Criminal Violations by LE: Who notifies IAB Lt. for an LVMPD employee detained, charged, associating, or accused of a crime?
The WC
374
Criminal Violations by LE: As a Sgt. You will notify the WC or CIS supervisor when any LE employee is the victim of a felony crime or other crime of violence T/F?
True
375
Criminal Violations by LE: You are a Sgt of CC12, officer Jones calls you on your dept cell and says he just went 467 on Chris Knight and he’s clearly “409”. You will immediately notify:
The WC: In progress or has just occurred. The WC will notify CIS and the traffic supervisor.
376
Criminal Violations by LE: The ______________ will be notified through the chain of command as soon as practical, of any member of LVMPD or another LE agency if employee is charged with or accused of a crime ( except minor traffic)
Sheriff
377
Criminal Violations by LE: Any citizen desiring to report a criminal violation involving a department member, will be referred to the employees:
1. Area LT 2. WC 3 Bureau Commander 4. CIS
378
Criminal Violations by LE: Does the provisions of NRS 289 apply to any investigation concerning alleged criminal activities.
No they do not apply
379
Criminal Violations by LE: It is LVMPD policy to deal with such employees through a wide range of DISCIPLINE and when appropriate with additional ________ and assistance programs.
Training
380
Criminal Violations by LE: Who is notified if an employee's criminal act results in loss of property, equipment, or money belonging to the department or other citizen/entity?
Risk management section
381
Criminal Violations by LE: Who notifies the chain up to the sheriff of a covert investigation?
The IAB commander.
382
Criminal violations by LE: An officer should notify their immediate supervisor when they are charged or accused of a crime. Regardless of jurisdiction, (except minor traffic) T/F
True
383
EIIP Do CRB requests affect an employees dashboard?
NO!
384
EIIP What do the following colors on an employees dashboard mean? GREEN, YELLOW, RED
Green - no identified issues Yellow - one incident away from reaching an identified threshold Red - a threshold has been reached or surpassed
385
EIIP How often are EIIP thresholds adjusted?
Annually - by the EIIP sergeant. Changes must be approved by the IAB bureau commander
386
EIIP What are the time frames used when calculating alert thresholds?
A rolling year. With the exception of firearm discharges which are a rolling 60 months.
387
Do supervisory thresholds appear on the dashboard?
No
388
How often are supervisors required to review their employees dashboard?
Monthly. And respond to alerts within 14 calendar days of the email alert notification.
389
EIIP What are a supervisors duties relating to EIIP?
1. Review dashboard on a monthly basis. 2. Receive EIIP alert through blue team via email 3. Request EPR summary from EIIP for review 4. consult with second line supervisor 5. Meet face with employee to discuss alert 6. If no pattern, complete alert in BT and forward to second supv within 14 calendar days 7. If pattern identified, consult with second line supv. 8. If pattern identified, document in BT what remedial action was taken and forward to second supv within 14 days. 9. Continue to assess employees performance
390
MOVE What are the adjudication timelines for a PPA/PPACE member after a sustained disposition report is put out?Recommendation of discipline\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_AOC from chain of command (waived discipline board)\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_AOC from the discipline board\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
1. 15 days from dispo report
2. 10 days from BOTH OLR and chains recommendation + waiver of dislipline board by subject (which ever is later)
3. 21 days
391
MOVEMaximum amount of vacation hours an employee can use an option instead of suspension IF APPROVED:
40 hours
392
MOVEWho completes the adjudication of complaint process?
The employees bureau/ area commander AT THE TIME OF THE INCIDENT
393
MOVEWho makes the decision to apply supervisor intervention?
Employees Bureau/Area commander AND OLR
394
MOVELVMPD affords the rights of peace officers to ALL department employees EXCEPT:(3)
RecruitsPart time employeesCivilian academy employees
395
MOVEDefinition of a minor allegation:Definition of a major allegation:
MINOR: written reprimand, disciplinary transfer or any suspension less than 40 hoursMAJOR: 40 hour suspension, demotion or termination
396
MOVEWhat is the burden of proof to sustain in both IAB and EDS investigations?
IAB - clear and convincingEDS - preponderance of evidence
397
MOVEAccording to the MOVE policy, complaints of harassment or discrimination may be reported to:
Any supervisorThe EDS directorThe IAB commander
398
MOVEComplaints of harassment or discrimination WILL be documented on a....
SOC
399
MOVEHow long does IAB have to classify a preliminary complaint as a CC or SOC?
14 days
400
MOVENormally, the employees bureau commander will be notified by IAB of investigations.If the case involves OPSEC, the decision to notify the BC will be made at the __________ level
Division Commander
401
MOVEIS the conflict resolution process disciplinary?
NOUnless misconduct takes place during the actual process
402
MOVEis the mediation process appealable under any grievance process?
NO
403
MOVEMay conflict resolution be used more than once with the same parties?
NOUNLESS everyone involved agrees
404
MOVECan an officer be armed with a duty weapon during a conflict resolution meeting which takes places at LVMPD HQ?
YES!the only place an officer has disarm is if the meeting takes place at Clark County Neighborhood Justice Center (CCNJC)
405
MOVEUnder conflict resolution, IF deemed necessary how long is a performance enhancement plan?
21 days
406
MOVEIf a subject employee waived their right to 48 hours notice of interview... what do they need to do?
Have an attorney or association rep “available” to attend and state their waiver of 48 hours on tape or in writing
407
MOVECan a witness employee waive their right to 48 hours notice?
YESthey must state the waiver on tape or in writing.They do NOT need to bring a rep/attorney
408
MOVE- Conflict resolution may be used between employees and citizens if an issue is NOT yet a: (2)
1. Formal complaint2. Major allegation
409
MOVE: If a supervisor has a question or procedural issue, who are they encouraged to contact?
The on call internal affairs bureau team leader.
410
MOVE: After business hours, you are completing an SOC and are unsure if it meets the immediate response criteria of IAB, who do you contact?
An on duty LT
411
MOVE: if an employee waived the formal investigation for an expedited investigation, this also waives:
The grievance process
412
MOVE:What are the two options for addressing sustained complaints?
1. Supervisory intervention
2. Formal discipline
413
MOVET/F: hours held in abeyance for sustained misconduct is only available for DUI, DV, 446 abuse and anger management?
FALSE“It May also be offered for performance issues in which refresher training is determined to be productive. P.S. the decision to offer abeyance tests with the bureau commander
414
Sick leave: how many hours are given per pay period? What’s the hourly breakdown?
4.05
415
Sick leave: this may be used for? (5)
Illness/injuryPublic health requirementsDr. AppointmentBereavementMedical emergency
416
Sick leave: What is the maximum hours for one doctors appointment?
4
417
Sick leave: if you do not become ill at work, when should you REPORT you are taking sick leave?
Prior to shift.
418
Sick leave: who is “immediate family”. (Who you can get bereavement or medical emergency for)
Spouse, parent, sibling, child, grandparent, grandchild. (This includes in laws, adoptive, or step). Also, any of these relations relating to your spouse/significant other/domestic partner.Also: legal guardian/ dependent situations
419
Sick leave: who is a “significant other” 2 prong.
1. Reside with and2. Consider a mate.Only for the purpose of sick leave per the contract.
420
Sick leave: bereavement (death of immediate family) how much sick can you use?
48 hours, the sheriff/designer can grant more, not to exceed 240!
421
Sick leave: sick leave is taken for medical emergency however you may use what per fiscal year?
48 hours of vacation, one time provision.
422
Sick leave: you call in sick Monday, you come back Tuesday. How long do you have to submit your leave once you’re back?
24 hours
423
Sick leave: when is a certificate of recovery and fitness needed?
When requested by the sheriff or designee.
424
Sick leave: As a general rule, any person who uses BLANK or more sick days per year is excessive.
8
425
Sick leave: when using sick leave employees shall be where (3) or shall notify their supervisor of their whereabouts.
Home, medical facility, or doctors office.
426
Sick leave: when can employees be at business, recreation, traveling etc. on sick leave?
When approved in advance by the sheriff or designee.
427
Military leave: how many shifts of paid leave are granted in a calendar year?
30
428
Military leave: when does an employee provide their supervisor documentation of their reserve status and assignment?
At the beginning of each calendar year or after change in assignment.
429
Military Leave: when are ORDERS or a TRAINING SCHEDULE provided to the supervisor.
The first scheduled work day they become available to the employee
430
Military Leave: when possible, how far in advance is military leave out in ESS?
2 weeks
431
Military leave: military documents will be provided to the bureau of assignment and forward to Payroll by when?
Latest, 30 days after deployment!
432
Military leave: an employee has approved scheduled vacation, another employee has been granted military leave at the same time. Do you cancel or approve? (The vacation...military isn’t touched)
If the vacation is 2 weeks or more in advance and is approved already, it’s set in stone! Both are approved.
433
Leave without pay: what can be banked during leave without pay?
Maximum: 40 hours of sick.
434
Longevity, pay scale, seniority etc is paused after how many hours of leave without pay? What is the only exception?
160 hours unless connected to a job illness/injury.Military leave.
435
When will payroll notify an employee in writing of their leave without pay status?
After 14 continuous days.
436
Except FMLA and ADA, 160 hours of leave without is approved by BLANK. After 90 CALENDAR days, approval is needed by BLANK AND BLANK.
Bureau commanderDC and Sheriff or designee
437
Health related leave without pay documents are provided prior to BLANK. And approved by BLANK
160 hours. The bureau commander in consultation with Health Detail.
438
Non health related leave without pay in excess of 160 hours is approved by?
Sheriff/designee
439
FMLA: employees can take up to BLANK months FMLA within BLANK months of their child birth/placement.
612
440
FMLA: at what point during pregnancy should employees make an appointment with the Health Section to develop a plan for leave usage?
By the 6th month.
441
How much FMLA time are each a husband and wife entitled to per the contract?
6 months
442
Employees will be given reasonable time off to promote/test. What will NOT be approved during a promotional exam?
Overtime.$
443
When requesting catastrophic leave donations, what is provided(3)?
1. Physicians statement of: injury/illness2. Estimated time of being unable to work.3. Bureau Commanders approval of leave.
444
How long will the union solicite for catastrophic leave donations?
30 days
445
What can be donated to catastrophic leave?
Bonus, vacation, and/or professional.Must have 40 hours vacation left over. Cannot donate less than 4 hours
446
What is the maximum amount of bank hours an employee can use in their entire career?
160
447
To be eligible for catastrophic leave, employees will need BLANK hours of leave at a minimal after all leaves have been exhausted.
80
448
For catastrophic leave, employees must be hospitalized, home bound, primary caregiver for someone (can’t perform duties). When are they NOT eligible?
1. Workman’s comp claims2. Illegal act or self inflicted injury3. Not covered by the collective bargaining agreement (recruit)
449
If bank time is used, it’s paid back at what rate?
2 hours per pay period.Or all at once if you retire/leave
450
Seniority: vacation slips (including bonus, professional and comp) may be submitted how far in advance?Once approved, can a senior officer supersede this leave?
6 months.No
451
How is PO seniority ranked for same classification on same day? (5)
1. Corrections to P.O.2. Military deferrals 3. Cadet to P.O.4. Recycled recruit 5. Ranking on eligibility list
452
The patrol division bump shall not occur prior to:
Supervisors have completed and published their bump.
453
At anytime between bids, there is documented operational need to change your shift time, does the department have the right to do this?
Yes.
454
For BEREAVEMENT employees may: 1.For MEDICAL EMERGENCY employees may:2.
1. Utilize other paid leave.2. Should use sick, except of a one time 48 hour vacation provision per fiscal year
455
Supervisors may discipline employees for excessive use of sick leave. Discipline ____________ be applied for extended illness/injury. If a supervisor has concerns about sick leave use, the shall consult with:
Will not!Labor relations
456
An employee cannot complete leave without pay documents due to an extreme circumstance. Prior to 160 hours, as his supervisor you will:
Ensure the chain of command and health detail are notified
457
Any disputes regarding the application of seniority may only be processed as a grievance to the appropriate:
Deputy chief and are not subject to appeal!
458
Miranda: For someone who invoked their right for silence, after a time lapse and remirandized, may they be requestioned?
Yes
459
Miranda: If some invokes their right to counsel, and after time lapse and remirandized, may they be questioned?
NoUnless THEY reinitiate the questioning
460
Miranda: Juveniles SHOULD be advised of (2).
They can be tried in adult court, they may have a parent or guardian present.
461
Once a juvenile is certified, which Miranda is appropriate? Adult or juvenile?
Adult
462
If an in-mirandized statement is contrary to the Miranda statement, what may the court do?
Allow the statement to prevent perjury.
463
If a voluntary statement is made and then Miranda occurs, the mirandized statement is generally BLANK. If statement is involuntary prior, morandized statement is generally BLANK.
1. Admissible2. Inadmissible
