1st Exam Flashcards
(194 cards)
1
Q
What are the four basic tissues of the human body?
A
epithelial, muscle, neural & connective tissues
2
Q
What is osteology?
A
the study of bone
3
Q
What are the three primary cell types of bone?
A
osteoblasts, osteocytes, and osteoclasts
4
Q
What is the function of each type of bone cell?
A
osteoblast-form bone; osteocyte-maintain or nurture bone; osteoclast-remodel bone
5
Q
What are the bone cells embedded in?
A
an amorphous matrix consisting of ground substance, protein fibers and various minerals
6
Q
What is the primary constituent of the ground substance?
A
glycosaminoglycans
7
Q
What types of glycosaminoglycans predominate in bone?
A
chondroitin sulfates, keratin sulfates, & hyaluronic acid
8
Q
What is the principal type of protein fiber in bone?
A
collagen type I
9
Q
What is the primary constituents of the bone mineral?
A
calcium, phosphate, citrate & carbonate ions
10
Q
What is the most frequently described deposit in bone?
A
hydroxyapatite
11
Q
Bone is also the repository for what additional ions?
A
sodium, magnesium, fluoride, lead, strontium, & radium
12
Q
What is Wolff’s Law as it pertains to bone?
A
living tissue will respond to stressors; bone is formed or absorbed in response to stress
13
Q
What are the three responses to bone that allow it to be described as “living”?
A
it has the ability to heal, to remodel under stressors and to age
14
Q
What is bone the embryological derivative of?
A
mesenchyme or cartilage
15
Q
What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in mesenchyme?
A
intramembranous ossification
16
Q
What is the timing for the appearance of intramembranous ossification?
A
from the second to the third month in utero
17
Q
What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in cartilage?
A
endochondral ossification
18
Q
What is the timing for the appearance of endochondral ossification?
A
from the second to the fifth month in utero
19
Q
What part of the skull is derived from endochondral ossification?
A
chondrocranium
20
Q
Which bone of the appendicular skeleton is formed by both endochondral and intramembranous ossification?
A
the clavicle
21
Q
What are the names given to the centers of ossification based on time of appearance?
A
primary centers of ossification appear before birth
secondary centers of ossification appear after birth
22
Q
Mature bone is described as being composed of what areas based on bone density?
A
cortical or compound bone and spongy, cancellous or trabecular bone
23
Q
What is the name given to a bone BELOW an articulating surface?
A
subchondral bone
24
Q
What is the name of the outer fibro-cellular COVERING of bone?
A
the periosteum
25
What is the name given to the fibro-cellular LINING of bone?
the endosteum
26
What are the primary sources of variation observed in bone?
sexual dimorphism (gender variation), ontoGENETIC variation (growth or age variation), geographic or population-based variation (ethnic variation) and idiosyncratic variation (individual variation)
27
What are the six more commonly used classifications of normal bone?
long bones, short bones, flat bones, irregular bones, paranasal sinus or pneumatic bones and sesamoid bones
28
What are the classification given to abnormal bone stressed in Spinal I?
heteroTOPIC and accessory bone
29
What is the name given to bone formed in a non-bone location?
heterotopic bone
30
What is the name given to bone formed from existing bone?
accessory bone
31
What are the names given to the parts of the long bone?
the diaphysis (shaft) and typically two epiphyses (extremities)
32
What is the primary characteristic of short bones?
they are essentially cuboidal
33
What are examples of short bones?
most of the bones of the carpus and tarsus
34
What are flat bones?
a thin layer of spongy bone is sandwiched between two layers of compact bone
35
What are examples of flat bones?
the parietal bone and sternum
36
What are examples of pneumatic bone?
frontal, ethmoid, maxilla, sphenoid & temporal
37
What bones contain paranasal sinuses?
frontal, ethmoid, maxilla & sphenoid
38
What is the characteristic of sesamoid bone?
the bone develops within a tendon
39
What are examples of heterotopic bone?
calcific deposits in the pineal gland, heart, and ligaments
40
What are examples of accessory bone?
para-articular processes and bony spurs of vertebrae
41
What are the types of osseous elevations?
linear, rounded and sharp
42
What are the types of osseous linear elevation?
the line, ridge and crest
43
What is an example of the slightest type of osseous linear elevations?
transverse lines of sternum
44
What are the types of rounded osseous elevations?
tubercle, protuberance, trochanter, tuber or tuberosity and malleolus
45
What is the definition of an osseous malleolus?
a hammerhead-like elevation on the surface of bone
46
What are the categories of sharp osseous elevations?
spine and process
47
What is the definition of the osseous elevation called "spine"?
a thorn-like elevation from the surface of bone
48
What is the definition of an osseous process?
a relatively sharp bony projection from the surface of bone with an increased length
49
What are the categories of osseous depressions?
linear and rounded depressions
50
What are the categories of osseous linear depressions?
notch or incisures, groove, and sulcus
51
What is the definition of an osseous groove?
a long furrow of variable depth on the surface of bone
52
What is the definition of an osseous sulcus?
a wide groove of variable length and depth on the surface of bone
53
What are the categories of rounded osseous depressions?
the fovea and fossa
54
What is the definition of an osseous fossa?
a deep depression of variable circumference on the surface of bone
55
What are the names given to openings on the surface of bone?
ostium or orifice and hiatus
56
What is the definition of an osseous hiatus?
an irregular opening on the surface of bone
57
What are the names given to osseous Ostia which completely penetrate bone?
foramen or canal
58
What is the definition of an osseous foramen?
an ostium passing completely through a THIN region of bone
59
What is the definition of an osseous canal?
an ostium passing completely through a THICK region of bone
60
What is the name given to an ostium which does not completely penetrate through a region of bone but appears as a blind-ended passageway?
meatus
61
What is the definition of an osseous fissure?
an irregular slit-like or crack-like appearance between the surfaces of adjacent bones
62
What are the categories of osseous facets?
flat facets and rounded facets
63
What are examples of a flat osseous facet?
the articular facets of most zygapophyses of the vertebral column
64
What are the categories of rounded osseous facets?
articular heads and articular condyles
65
What is the definition of an osseous condyle?
a knuckled-shaped surface on bone for osseous articulation
66
How many bones form the typical adult skeleton?
206 bones
67
What are the subdivisions of the skeleton?
the axial skeleton and appendicular skeleton
68
What bones form the axial skeleton?
the skull, hyoid, vertebral column, sternum and ribs
69
What is the name given to the adult skull minus the mandible?
the cranium
70
What are the names given to the top of the adult skull?
the calvaria or calva
71
What is the total number of bones forming the typical adult skull?
28 bones
72
How many bones form the typical adult neurocranium?
8 bones
73
How many bones form the facial skeleton (splanchnocranium or visceral skeleton)?
14 bones
74
What is the name given to the presacral region of the typical adult vertebral column or spinal column?
the spine
75
What is the total number of bones forming the typical adult spine?
24 bones
76
What is the definition of "spine" as it pertains to the vertebral column?
the pre-sacral region of the vertebral column or spinal column
77
How many bones are present in the typical adult sternum?
1 bone
78
What regions are present along the typical adult sternum?
the manubrium sterni, the corpus sterni and the xiphoid process
79
How many ribs are present in the typical adult skeleton?
12 pair or 24 ribs
80
What term is used to identify the study of joints?
arthrology
81
What term is used to identify the study of ligaments?
snydesmology
82
What are the three histological classifications of joints?
fibrous, cartilaginous and synovial fluid
83
What were the three classifications of joints based on movement potential?
synarthrosis, amphiarthrosis and diarthrosis
84
Which classification of synarthrosis joints implies a bond condition?
syndesmosis
85
What is the classification of a joint held together with cartilage?
synchondrosis
86
What is the classification of a joint formed by a growth condition?
symphysis
87
What is the name given to a condition in which bones are fused together by bone?
synostosis
88
What is the condition in which teeth are abnormally aligned during closure of the mouth?
malocclusion
89
What fibrous connective tissue classically fills the joint space of a syndesmosis?
interosseous ligament
90
What are the classic examples of the less moveable or "fixed" syndesmosis?
tibia-fibula shaft articulation, radio-ulnar shaft articulation, coraco-clavicular joint or tympano-stapedial joint
91
What are the examples of the typical syndesmosis from the vertebral column?
most of the ligamentous joints of the vertebral column and ligamentous sacro-iliac joints
92
What are the characteristics of the (amphiarthrosis) synchondrosis?
they are primary cartilage joints, temporary in longevity, composed of hyaline cartilage and form between ossification canters within a cartilage template
93
What are examples of temporary cartilage joints?
metaphysis, neuro-central joint, neural arch joint, chondrocranium, costochondral joints and the first sternochondral joint
94
What are the examples of a permanent (amphiarthrosis)synchondrosis?
costochondral joints or the first sternochondral joint
95
Which cartilage joint classification would be considered secondary?
(amphiarthrosis) symphysis
96
What type of cartilage is characteristic of the (amphiarthrosis) symphysis?
fibrocartilage or fibrous cartilage
97
What are the characteristics of (amphiarthrosis) symphysis?
limited motion, median plane location, support ligaments both anterior and posterior to the joint, more permanent in longevity than synchondrosis and they occur between bones developing by endochondral ossification
98
What are the classic examples of a (amphiarthrosis) symphysis?
intervertebral disc, pubic symphysis, sternal symphysis, and symphysis menti
99
Which example of (amphiarthrosis) symphysis is temporary?
symphysis menti
100
What are the four consistent features of synovial (diarthrosis) joints?
articular or fibrous capsule, synovial membrane, articular cartilage and synovial fluid
101
Thickening of the fibrous capsule connective tissue will form the _______.
capsular ligament
102
What generic accessory ligaments may accompany and support the capsular ligament?
intracapsular and extracapsular ligaments
103
What are the characteristics of the type I articular receptors?
located in the superficial layer of the fibrous capsule, resemble Ruffini endings, most numerous in cervical zygapophyses and they monitor the joint "at rest"
104
What are the characteristics of the type II articular receptors?
located in deeper strata of the fibrous capsule, resemble Pacinian corpuscles, most numerous in the cervical spine and monitor the joint during normal range of motion
105
What are the characteristics of the type III articular receptors?
present in collateral and intrinsic ligaments, resemble Golgi tendon organs, NOT initially observed along the vertebral column and monitor extreme joint motion
106
What is the function of type IV articular receptors?
nociceptive, they monitor pain
107
Type IVa receptors would be present in what locations?
fibrous capsule, articular fat pads or adventitia of blood vessels
108
Type IVb articular receptors would be present in what locations?
accessory ligaments in general, dense in the posterior longitudinal ligament of the spine
109
Type IV articular receptors would be absent in what part(s) of the synovial (diarthrosis) joint?
synovial membrane, articular cartilage and synovial menisci or intra-articular discs
110
What are the three modifications of articular synovial membrane?
1 synovial villi, 2 articular fat pads or Haversian glands, 3 synovial menisci and intra-articular discs
111
What is the generic function of modifications of articular synovial membrane?
aid in spreading synovial fluid
112
What is the apparent function of synovial villi?
increase the surface of synovial membrane available for secretion-absorption Phenomena
113
Where are the articular fat pads located?
in the fibrous layer of synovial membrane; they are absent from articular cartilage, synovial menisci, intra-articular disc
114
Articular fat pads are most numerous in what location along the vertebral column?
lumbar zygapophyses
115
Intra-articular discs are a feature of what joints examples?
temporomandibular, sternoclavicular, acromioclavicular and radio-ulnar joints
116
Synovial menisci are a feature of what joint examples?
femur-tibia articulation, cervical zygapophyses and lumbar zygapophyses
117
What are the layers of the synovial membrane?
outer fibrous layer and an inner (luminal) cellular layer AKA synovial lamina intima
118
What are the specific functions of type A synovial cells?
are phagocytic
119
What is the specific function of type B synovial cells?
secrete proteinaceous substances and hyaluronic acid
120
What are the primary constituents of articular cartilage?
water, cells, collagen type II fibers and a proteoglycan gel
121
What is the primary function of bound glycosaminoglycans in articular cartilage?
form a network for water retention
122
What is implied when cartilage is said to have elastic properties?
cartilage can deform but returns to original volume rapidly, a time independent property
123
What is implied when cartilage is said to have viscoelastic properties?
cartilage can deform but returns to original volume slowly, a time dependent property
124
Which theory of joint lubrication implies a loss of fluid from the cartilage into the joint space during compression results in increased viscosity of the synovial fluid?
weeping theory
125
Which theory of joint lubrication implies water loss from the synovial fluid increases viscosity of the remaining synovial fluid?
boosted theory
126
Which theory of joint lubrication implies an ADsorption of lubricant onto cartilage surface is responsible for the low-friction observed during movement?
boundary theory
127
What are the properties of synovial fluid?
it is yellow-white, viscous, slightly alkaline and tastes salty
128
Which substance in synovial fluid was first thought to be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behavior?
hyaluronate
129
What substance of synovial fluid has been proposed to be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behaviors?
lubricin
130
What is a simple synovial joint (diarthrosis)?
only one pair of articulating surfaces are observed
131
What is a compound synovial joint (diarthrosis)?
more than two articulating surfaces are present in the same synovial joint
132
What is a complex synovial joint (diarthrosis)?
within the simple joint or the compound joint, the articulating surfaces are separated by an articular disc (intra-articular disc) or meniscus
133
What are the classifications of synovial joints (diarthrosis) based on type of movement?
nonaxial, uniaxial, biaxial and multiaxial synovial joints
134
What movements are accommodated by nonaxial synovial joints?
translational movement, a plane or gliding movement
135
What morphological classification of synovial joints is classified as nonaxial?
plane (diarthrosis arthrodial)
136
What movements are accommodated by uniaxial synovial joints?
a single combination of movements relative to a single axis: flexion-extension or medial rotation-lateral rotation
137
What morphological classifications of synovial joints would be classified as uniaxial?
hinge (diarthrosis ginglymus) and pivot (diarthrosis trochoid)
138
What movements are accommodated by biaxial synovial joints?
movement in two independent planes at right angles to each other; flexion-extension combined with abduction-adduction
139
What morphological classifications of synovial joints would be classified as biaxial?
(diarthrosis) bicondylar, (diarthrosis) condylar, (diarthrosis) ellipsoidal, and saddle (diarthrosis sellar)
140
What morphological classification of synovial joints would be classified as multiaxial?
ball and socket (diarthrosis enarthrosis), (diarthrosis spheroidal), (diarthrosis cotyloid) are all classifications given to the same type of joint
141
What are examples of synovial plane (diarthrosis arthrodial) joints?
most zygapophyses of the vertebral column; intercarpal, carpometacarpal and intermetacarpal joints of the hand; intercuneiform, tarsometatarsal and intermetatarsal joints of the foot
142
What are examples of synovial hinge (diarthrosis ginglymus) joints?
humero-ulnar joint of the elbow and interphalangeal joints of the fingers & toes
143
What are the examples of synovial pivot (diarthrosis trochoid) joints?
median atlanto-axial joint and proximal radio-ulnar joint
144
What is the shared morphological characteristic of diarthrosis trochoid joints?
an osseous pivot point and an osteo-ligamentous ring
145
What are examples of diarthrosis condylar or diarthrosis bicondylar joints?
temporomandibular joint and femur-tibia joint of the knee
146
What are examples of diarthrosis ellipsoidal joints?
radiocarpal joint of the wrist, metacarpo-phalangeal joints of the hand, metatarsal-phalangeal joints of the foot and the atlanto-occipital joint of the vertebral column
147
Which synovial joint classifications are now often interchanged in textbooks?
ellipsoidal and condylar synovial joints
148
What are examples of synovial saddle (diarthrosis sellar) joints?
carpometacarpal joint of the thumb, talocrural joint of the ankle and the calcaneocuboid joint of the foot
149
What are examples of diarthrosis cotyloid joints?
femur-acetabulum of the innominate articulation at the hip and the humerus-glenoid cavity of the scapula articulation at the shoulder
150
What is the number of vertebrae in a typical adolescent?
33 segments
151
What is the number of vertebrae in a typical adult?
26 segments
152
What constitutes the spine?
the 24 presacral segments; the cervical, thoracic, and lumbar vertebrae
153
How many segments unite to form the typical sacrum?
5 segments
154
How many segments unite to form the typical coccyx?
4 segments
155
Which mammals do not have seven cervical vertebrae?
the two toed sloth, manatee, ant bear, and three toed sloth
156
Which mammals have more than seven cervical vertebrae?
the ant bear and three-toed sloth
157
Which mammals have less than seven cervical vertebrae?
the two toed sloth and manatee
158
What does the term "cervical" refer to?
the region of the neck
159
What does the term "thoracic" refer to?
breast plate or chest; it referred to the armor bearing region of the torso
160
What other term is often used to identify the vertebral segments of the chest?
the dorsal segments; the dorsals
161
What is the typical number of segments in the dorsal or thoracic region?
12 segments
162
What does the term "lumbar" refer to?
the loin; the region between the rib and the hip
163
What is the typical number of segments in the lumbar region?
5 segments
164
What does the term "sacrum" refer to?
the holy bone or holy region
165
What does the term "coccyx" refer to?
a cuckoo birds' bill or cuckoo birds' beak
166
What is the length of a typical male spinal column?
about 70 cm or 28 in
167
What is the length of a typical female spinal column?
about 60 cm or 25 in
168
What is the length difference between a typical male and typical female spinal column?
about 3 in
169
What is the length of the male cervical region (both measurements)?
about 12 cm or 5 in
170
What is the length of the male thoracic region (both measurements)?
about 28 cm or 11 in
171
What is the length of the male lumbar region (both measurements)?
about 18 cm or 7 in
172
What is the length of the male sacrum (both measurements)?
about 12 cm or 5 in
173
Based on the numbers for the individual regions of the vertebral column, what is the length of the male spine (both measurements)?
about 58 cm or 23 in
174
What levels of the vertebral column specifically accommodate weight-bearing transfer?
S1-S3 at the auricular surface
175
What is specifically responsible for shape and position of the human frame?
comparative anterior vs. posterior height of the vertebral body and comparative anterior vs. posterior height of the intervertebral disc
176
What organ(s) is(are) specifically associated with the horizontal axis of the skull?
the eye and the vestibular apparatus of the inner ear
177
When does the embryonic disc form?
second week in utero
178
When does gastrulation occur or a 3-layered embryo form?
third week in utero
179
Invagination of ectoderm along the primitive streak gives rise to what embryonic structure?
notochord
180
What is the name given to the mesoderm that will give rise to the vertebral column?
paraxial mesoderm
181
What embryonic structure gives rise to the somites?
paraxial mesoderm
182
Name the areas of cellular differentiation formed within the somite?
sclerotome, myotome and dermatome
183
What are the names of the successive vertebral columns formed during development?
membranous, cartilaginous, skeletal or osseous
184
Migration of a somite pair to surround the notochord forms what development feature?
the perichordal blastema
185
The perichordal blastema gives rise to what processes?
neural processes and costal processes
186
What is the name of the artery located between adjacent perichordal blastemae?
intersegmental artery
187
What forms between the sclerotomites of a perichordal blastema?
the intersclerotomal fissure (fissure of Von Ebner)
188
The intersclerotomal fissure (fissure of Von Ebner) gives rise to what developmental feature?
the perichordal disc
189
The union of a dense caudal sclerotomite and a loose cranial sclerotomite from adjacent perichordal blastema gives rise to what feature?
the vertebral blastema
190
What vessel will be identified adjacent to the vertebral blastema?
the segmental artery
191
when will cartilage first form in the membranous vertebral blastema?
beginning in the 6th embryonic week
192
What is the name given to the replacement of mesoderm by cartilage?
chondrification
193
What are the names given to the centers of chondrification within the vertebral blastema?
centrum center, neural arch center, transverse process center
194
How many centers of chondrification typically appear in the vertebral blastema?
six...2 for the centrum, 2 for the neural arches, 2 for each transverse process
