2

Question 1

A Captains Special Report (CSR) should be submitted for:
Select one:

Bleeds off take off, operations at 74990 kg, SAFA inspections findings.
OFP does not agree with the ATC flight plan, SAFA inspections findings.
SAFA inspections findings only.
Operations at 74990 kg & SAFA inspections findings only.

Answer 1

z

Question 2

A flight plan will automatically deactivate at STD plus:

Answer 2

15

Question 3

After departing an airport and currently below MSA, ATC give radar vectors that deviates from the SID/PLOG. Can you accept it?
Select one:
a. Yes, provided obstacle clearance criteria and operating conditions are observed
b. Yes, as long as you are a Captain with 500hrs PIC or more
c. Yes, as long as you have ground contact
d. No, you must always stick to the SID and refuse any direct routings

Question 4

After using the “Controlled Rest” procedure how long should you leave between the rest and recovery period to overcome the effects of sleep inertia?
Select one:
a. 35 mins
b. 30 mins
c. 20 mins
d. 15 mins

Answer 4

20 mins

Question 5

At what distance must you be at least in order to use a mobile phone whilst refuelling the aircraft?
Select one:
a. 3m of the refuelling point
b. 3.5m of the refuelling point
c. There is no minimum distance to mobile phone usage
d. 2.5m of the refuelling point

Answer 5

3 m

Question 6

At what height off the ground is the tower reported wind?
Select one:
a. 7 m AGL
b. 20 m AGL
c. 12.5 m AGL
d. 10 m AGL

Answer 6

10 m

Question 7

At what N2% indication should the anti-collision beacon be switched off after engine shutdown?
Select one:
a. Below 25% N2
b. Below 20% N2
c. Above 20% N2
d. Above 25% N2

Answer 7

Below 20%

Question 8

Can reported meteorological visibility be converted to RVR for calculation of take-off minima?
Select one:
a. Yes, provided only reported visibility is available
b. No, the conversion may not be used for calculating take off minima
c. Yes, in all circumstances
d. Yes, provided it is ATC reported visibility

Answer 8

no

Question 9

Can the aircraft be refuelled with the engines running?
Select one:
a. Yes, it can be. It’s an non normal procedure and both flight and cabin crew will need to plan it
b. Refuelling or defueling is not authorised with engine(s) running
c. Yes, it can be. It’s a normal procedure
d. Yes, it can be. It’s an non normal procedure and GOPS, ENGR’s and OPS will plan it in advance

Answer 9

b

Question 10

Can the Captain self-position onto stand where electronic guidance or marshalling is required?
Select one:
a. Yes, provided ATC are notified and give permission
b. No, it is not permitted to self-position onto stands for which electronic guidance or marshalling is required
c. Yes, so long as there is a centreline and stop bar
d. Yes, so long as the area is clear

Answer 10

No

Question 11

Contingency fuel shall be:
Select one:
a. 0.05
b. The higher of: Either 5% or 3% (En-route alternate) of the planned trip fuel or, in the event of in-flight re-planning, 5% or 3% (ERA) of the trip fuel for the remainder of the flight OR an amount to fly for five minutes at holding speed at 1500ft above the destination aerodrome in standard conditions
c. Either 5% or 3% (En-route alternate) of the planned trip fuel or, in the event of in-flight re-planning, 5% or 3% (ERA) of the trip fuel for the remainder of the flight
d. An amount to fly for five minutes at holding speed at 1500ft above the destination aerodrome in standard conditions

Question 12

Does RYR use dedicated CAT IIIA approach plates?
Select one:
a. Yes. They are found at the back of Navtech Brick 3
b. Yes. They will be included with the other airfield plates
c. No. The CAT 1 plates are used replacing minima with 50ft RA and 200m RVR, providing associated 10-series (General) plate shows CAT IIIA approval
d. No. Airports with CAT III approaches are included on the applicable ILS chart

Question 13

For brake cooling on a turnaround the parking brake shall be released, only after complying with company procedure, for:
Select one:
a. The brakes must be released for brake cooling, and the brakes shall be set when brake cooling times are satisfied
b. Exactly 25 minutes
c. Exactly 5 minutes
d. Exactly 1 minute

Question 14

Fuel: What is the definition of Final Reserve Fuel (Reserve/Hold fuel)
Select one:
a. Fuel to allow 30 minutes of flight at holding speed at 1500ft AAL in standard conditions
b. 1800kgs
c. 2200kgs
d. Diversion fuel plus 5% contingency

Question 15

Fuel: Which of the following would lead you to declare a Fuel Mayday?
Select one:
a. When the calculated usable fuel on landing is greater than final reserve fuel
b. When the calculated usable fuel on landing is less than final reserve fuel
c. Always when less than 2000kgs
d. Always when less than 1800kgs

Answer 15

b

Question 16

How are FIR boundaries highlighted during the cruise?
Select one:
a. There is no requirement to highlight FIRs on the PLOG
b. Crews should locate FIR boundaries on the high level chart for situation awareness
c. Highlight FIR boundaries on the OFP. Identify FIR point and insert fix into the FMC
d. Highlight FIR boundaries on OFP but no do not enter into FMC fix page

Answer 16

c

Question 17

How many minutes for wake separation do you need when departing from an intermediate holding point on the same runway as an A380:

Select one:
3 minutes
4 minutes
1 minute
2 minutes

Question 18

How many minutes for wake separation do you need when departing from an intermediate holding point on the same runway as an B757 which departed from the full length:
Select one:
No minimum wake turbulence gap
3 minutes
2 minutes
4 minutes

Answer 18

2

Question 19

How much fuel over Flight Plan fuel may be carried without explanation on the voyage report?
Select one:
a. 300kgs
b. Block fuel rounded up to the nearest 100kg plus 100kgs
c. 100kgs
d. 200kgs

Answer 19

b

Question 20

How should details of a delayed departure be officially recorded?
Select one:
a. By VHF radio to the handling agent
b. Using the EFL delay menu and supported with CP remarks
c. There is no requirement to record details of the dela
d. Over the flight intercom to the dispatcher

Answer 20

b

Question 21

If no Outer Marker/4NM position exists, above what altitude must the Captain decide to continue or go-around if the reported RVR is less than landing minima?
Select one:
a. 1500ft AGL
b. 1000ft AAL
c. 500ft AAL
d. Glide slope intercept.

Answer 21

b

Question 22

If the NOTAM’s or ATC give a report of failed or downgraded lighting or approach equipment at your destination, where can you obtain information on how this affects your approach and landing minima regarding a CAT II approach?
Select one:
Handy-dandy
QRH, low visibility briefing
Operations Manual Part A 8.1.3.4.10
Operations Manual Part A 8.4.2.4

Answer 22

8.4 OMA is Low Vis Ops

Question 23

If the surface wind at destination exceeds 20kts the Captain will make the following PA when releasing Cabin Crew:
Select one:
a. passengers, please be careful on the ramp with the strong winds
b. exercise caution due to high winds
c. no comments required
d. caution when extending air stairs

Question 24

If you were unable to shut an engine down using the normal means, what should the Captain do at the end of the duty day?
Select one:
File a Captain’s Special Report
Put it in the Voyage Report
File an ASR
Nothing as Operations will already be aware of it

Question 25

In the cruise, for operations other than LNAV Select one: a. Fly M0.76 minimum b. Fly at least 15 kts above the minimum manoeuvring speed (lower amber band) c. Fly at least 10 kts above the minimum manoeuvring speed (lower amber band) d. Fly at least M0.75 above FL300

Question 26

In the event that two weather related missed approaches have been carried out, can a third approach be made? Select one: a. Yes, but only if weather information shows an improvement to double the visibility and cloud base of previous reported weather b. Only if Operations request it c. No, only two approaches are allowed at any destination d. Yes, but not a forth

Answer 26

a

Question 27

Is it acceptable to practice a CAT II/III A approach to a CAT I runway? Select one: a. Yes, if visibility is 5000m and cloud base 500ft or greater b. Yes, if visibility is 1500m or greater and ceiling 500ft or higher c. No, unless the CAT II/IIIA hold is used by ATC for departing traffic d. Never

Answer 27

d

Question 28

Is it allowed to fuel and board with Persons of Reduced Mobility (PRM) on board? Select one: a. No b. Yes, subject to local airport byelaws & restrictions c. Yes d. Yes, if there is a refuelling supervisor

Answer 28

b

Question 29

Is it necessary to file an ASR for all Go-arounds? Select one: a. Only for those that involve a non-normal condition b. Only for those below the landing gate c. Yes d. Only for those initiated below 1000ft AAL or above if there are additional reportable circumstances

Answer 29

b

Question 30

Is the sight of only Sequenced Flashing Lights at CAT I minima considered sufficient visual reference to continue the approach below DA? Select one: a. Yes, no lights are required as it is an Autoland. b. Yes, any lights will suffice. c. No. They give no roll reference. d. No, you need the all the lights from the last 300m of the approach lighting system

Question 30

It is considered best practice to request “standard speeds” from ATC when higher speeds are offered. These speeds are: Select one: a. 220kts at the IAF, 200kts on base and 180kts on final approach track b. 180kts on base turn only c. 210kts at the IAF & 180kts on base d. 220kts at the IAF, 180kts on base and 180kts on final approach track

Question 31

May the Cockpit Voice Recorder CB be pulled in flight? Select one: Yes, you are allowed to pull any CBs in flight Yes, provided a CSR is completed No. Yes, but only if directed by Maintrol

Question 32

May you accept a line up clearance before receiving the “Cabin Secure” signal? Select one: a. Yes, provided ATC are informed b. Yes, provided there are no aircraft on final approach that may be affected by a delay on the runway c. Yes d. No

Question 33

Oil: What is the minimum dispatch oil quantity for Boeing 737-800 operations? Select one: a. 12 quarts b. Above the red band c. 14 quarts d. 12 litres

Answer 33

a

Question 34

On the ground what should the MCP Altitude window be set to? Select one: a. 0 b. It doesn’t matter as it will be set with the clearance c. The expected altitude/FL for departure d. The expected altitude/FL +100ft or cleared altitude/FL when received

Answer 34

d

Question 35

Recording weather on the OFP: Select one: a. Need not be recorded if weather forecast (for one hour before to one hour after the expected time of arrival) at both airfields is equal to or better than 5km and 1000feet b. Is required including at least one enroute alternate c. The weather for the aerodrome of departure and landing shall be recorded on the OFP. Best practice is to obtain what additional weather you need to complete the flight d. Need not be recorded for flights less than one hour scheduled block time

Question 36

Should the take-off weight be increased to facilitate the tankering of fuel? Select one: a. Never tanker fuel such that the takeoff weight exceeds 66990 kg if at all possible b. Never tanker fuel such that the takeoff weight exceeds 71990 kg if at all possible c. Tankering is not limited by variable MTOWs of 66,990 and 69,990. Placard weights shall be increased to accommodate tankering requirements d. No, ensure 66990kgs is the maximum T/O weight

Answer 36

c

Question 37

Spurious Windshear Warnings: Select one: a. Must never be ignored b. An approach may be continued at the discretion of the Captain if the warning has been briefed c. Always requires a Go around d. May be ignored if visual and the aircraft is stable

Answer 37

b

Question 38

Tankering Limitations: Select one: a. The commercial decision to tanker fuel will be made automatically by LIDO and Captains are required to tanker the fuel recommended by LIDO unless there are sound operational reasons for not doing so b. Crews are never required to tanker fuel c. The commercial decision to tanker fuel will be made automatically by LIDO. This must always be taken. d. LISO LIDO never recommends tankering of fuel.

Answer 38

a

Question 39

The emergency frequency 121.50 shall be selected on VHF 2 and the volume adjusted to hear transmissions: Select one: Once level at the expected cruise altitude/Flight Level Above FL100 At all times in flight Once cleared to the expected cruising altitude/Flight Level

Answer 39

Above FL100

Question 40

The following is true regarding fuelling supervisor in the UK: Select one: a. They must stay on the headset at all times during refuelling b. This function is not applicable to disembarking of passengers c. They must ensure that the ground area beneath the exits intended for emergency evacuation and the slide deployment areas are kept clear while refuelling is taking place d. They must call the flight by mobile phone should the headset be unavailable

Question 41

The maximum speed in the climb is: Select one: a. 250kts, or faster if cleared by ATC regardless of airspace category b. 250kts, or faster if cleared by ATC and in Class E, F or G airspace only c. 250kts, no exceptions d. 250kts, or faster if cleared by ATC and in Class A, B or C airspace only

Answer 41

d

Question 42

The Mode S feature of the transponder will only function if; Select one: a. The correct flight callsign is entered in the RTE page 1 during preflight (the prefix is always RYR…) b. It is in TA/RA only c. It is selected to ATC1 d. The correct flight callsign is entered in the RTE page 1 during preflight (the prefix is always FR…)

Answer 42

a

Question 43

Wake Turbulence category on Take Off: What is the minimum interval between a medium and a preceding heavy aircraft, departing from same position on a runway? Select one: 1 minutes 2 minutes 3 minutes 2.5 minutes

Answer 43

2min

Question 43

The PF must strictly follow a TCAS RA even if: Select one: a. Conflicting instructions have been issued by ATC b. There is visual contact to the other traffic c. All of the other answers are correct d. The RA response capability is limited by aircraft performance

Answer 43

c

Question 44

There is a hijack/unlawful interference situation on board. What is the correct procedure in relation to the flight deck door? Select one: a. None of the other answers are correct b. Leave the door locked normally and do not use the deadbolt system c. Open the door d. Use the deadbolt “Locked key inoperative” position to ensure door is locked

Answer 44

d

Question 45

Wake Turbulence category on Approach: What is the minimum separation between a medium aircraft following a heavy aircraft on approach? Select one: a. 7NM, 4 minutes non radar b. 3NM, 2 minutes non radar c. 4NM, 3 minutes non radar d. 5NM, 3 minutes non radar

Answer 45

d

Question 46

Weather Radar: Which of the following statements is correct Select one: a. The Commander shall have the weather radar selected on for take-off, climb, cruise and descent/approach in IMC and at night b. The PM shall have the weather radar selected on for take-off, climb, cruise and descent, approach and landing in IMC and at night c. The PF shall have the weather radar on for take off d. Use of the weather is at Commanders discretion except it must be on when there is thunderstorm activity in the area

Answer 46

a

Question 47

What actions should be taken after vacating the runway following an RTO >80kts? Select one: a. Calculate the required turn-around time from the brake cooling schedule b. All of the other answers are correct c. Ask ATC for parking on taxiway/ return to stand, Call Maintrol and report a high speed RTO, do not T/O again until cleared by Maintrol d. File an ASR on completion of duty

Answer 47

b

Question 48

What actions should the captain take if the aircraft is the subject of a SAFA Inspection? Select one: Establish if it “Is this a SAFA inspection? The Inspectors Name/Number and ask "Are there any Level 1, 2 or 3 findings?" Ask for a copy of the report and email to fileareport@ryanair.com, file a ASR on return to base All of the other answers are correct Call DUB OPS if you disagree with the inspector. Inform Maintrol if there is a technical finding

Answer 48

All other correct

Question 49

What are the individual components of the NITS drill? Select one: a. None of the above b. Nature; Intentions; Time available; Special instructions (including whether an SOS demo is required) c. Nature; Time allowable; Special instructions (including whether an SOS demo is required) d. Nature; Intentions; Special procedures (including whether an SOS demo is required)

Answer 49

b

Question 50

What are the minimum RVR requirements for a CAT III A approach? Select one: a. TDZ 200m, MID 125m, STOP 125m b. TDZ 300m, MID 125m, STOP 125m c. TDZ 200m, MID 125m, STOP 75m d. TDZ 200m, MID 200m, STOP 200m

Question 51

What are the limits associated with requesting an “orbit” in order to regain the vertical profile during approach? Select one: a. VMC conditions and not less than 10nm form touchdown b. All of the other answers are correct c. At MSA or 3000’ whichever is higher d. Max configuration of Flap10 and Speedbrake

Answer 51

b

Question 52

What are the visibility and cloud base criteria for Monitored Approaches? Select one: a. ILS 1000m visibility and 300ft cloud base. NPA 2000m visibility and 1000ft cloud base b. ILS 1000m visibility and 300ft cloud base. NPA 3000m visibility and 1000ft cloud base c. ILS 300m visibility and 1000ft cloud base. NPA 3000m visibility and1000ft cloud base d. ILS 300m visibility and 300ft cloud base. NPA 3000m visibility and 1000ft cloud base

Answer 52

c

Question 53

What would you set on the BARO minima for a visual approach? Select one: a. 500ft AAL b. Circling minimums c. No minimums required for a visual approach d. CAT 1 minimums for the runway in use

Answer 53

a

Question 54

What flight level does the OFP represent? Select one: a. The OFP flight level is not linked to the LIDO flight planning optimization tool b. The OFP represents the OPTIMUM level; crews should, where possible, ask for flight levels up to the maximum c. The flight levels on the OFP represent the MAXIMUM altitude d. The flight levels on the OFP are optimum flight levels as determined by the LIDO flight planning optimization tool

Answer 54

d

Question 55

What information must be retained on the ground for each flight or series of flights? Select one: a. Copy of the OFP, Copies of the relevant parts of the tech log, Route specific NOTAM documentation if edited by Ryanair, Mass and Balance documentation and special loads notifications b. Copies of the relevant parts of the tech log, Route specific NOTAM documentation if edited by Ryanair, Mass and Balance documentation and special loads c. Copy of the OFP, Route specific NOTAM documentation, Mass and Balance documentation if edited by Ryanair and special loads d. Copy of the OFP, copies of the relevant parts of the tech log and route specific NOTAM documentation if edited by Ryanair

Question 56

What is Ryanair policy regarding acceptance of a Traffic Service from ATC? Select one: a. Decline a Traffic Service from ATC and ask for a Basic Service instead b. Only acceptable in controlled airspace c. A Traffic Service is acceptable if it gives us a shortcut d. Not to accept a Traffic Service when a Deconfliction Service is available while operating in uncontrolled airspace

Question 57

What is Ryanair policy regarding intersection take-offs? Select one: a. An ASR should be filed b. We should always use the full length of the runway c. Crews should plan for an intersection take off if it shortens the taxi route d. A captain’s special report is required

Answer 57

c

Question 58

What is the absolute minimum visibility for take-off in Ryanair Flight Operations? Select one: a. 200m b. 350m c. 125m d. 175m

Answer 58

d

Question 59

What is the correct terminology for initiating a NITS briefing? Select one: a. “What is the Password” b. “Standby for NITS” c. “This is a NITS briefing, please listen carefully” d. “The Nature of the situation is….”

Answer 59

c

Question 60

What is the crosswind landing limit for First Officers with 500 hours or less in Ryanair? Select one: a. Crosswind component 20kts (MA included) b. There is no restriction on F/O’s crosswind landings c. Crosswind component less than 15kts on wet runways d. Crosswind component 15kts (MA excluded)

Question 61

What is the distance that the B737-800 aircraft covers at 1 ENG INOP cruising speed in still air? Select one: 400NM 427NM 350NM 396NM

Question 62

What is the formula to calculate the additional trip fuel burn when ATOW exceeds FPL TOW on non-tankering sectors? Select one: a. 30kgs for every extra tonne of fuel multiplied by the flight time b. 20kgs for every extra ton of fuel multiplied by the flight time c. 2.5% of additional fuel carried (in kg) x flight time (in hours) d. 200kgs per flight hour for each extra tonne

Answer 62

c

Question 63

What is the limit is used to determine an altimeter error in RVSM airspace? Select one: a. There is no deviation allowed and ATC must be informed if any occurs b. +/- 75ft, between the Captains altimeter and first officer’s altimeter c. +/- 200ft, between the Captains altimeter and first officer’s altimeter d. +/- 150ft, between the Captains altimeter and first officer’s altimeter

Answer 63

b (c would be for not RVSM)

Question 64

What is the maximum difference between the FMC GP Angle and the Approach Plate GP angle allowed for a RNAV (GPS, GNSS) Approach? Select one: a. +/- 3.0° b. +/- 1.5° c. +/- 0.1° d. +/- 1.0°

Answer 64

c

Question 65

What is the maximum surface wind speed for ground operations? Select one: a. 50kts b. 60kts c. 80kts d. 40kts

Answer 65

d

Question 66

What is the minimum potable water level required for dispatch? Select one: a. 1/2 full b. Potable water is not mandatory for flight; However, if bars are NOT loaded with potable then the aircraft should not depart with potable water less than 1/8 full c. Potable water is not mandatory for flight but if bars are not loaded with water, then the aircraft should not depart with potable water less than 1/4 full d. 1/4 full

Question 66

What is the minimum altitude to commence a turn on departure? Select one: a. 1000’ AAL b. 200’ AAL, unless a lower altitude is specified on the SID c. 500’ AAL d. 400ft AAL, unless a lower altitude is specified in the SID

Answer 66

d

Question 67

What is the minimum Fire Category that can acceptable when planning for a take-off alternate or a destination alternate? Select one: a. 2 categories below aeroplane RFFS b. There is no minimum category c. Cat 2 is the minimum d. Cat 8, but not less than Cat 7

Answer 67

d

Question 68

What is the minimum wingtip clearance for self-manoeuvring taxiing without a marshaller guiding the wing tip? Select one: a. There is no specified distance. It is up to Captain’s discretion b. 10ft c. 20ft d. 15ft

Question 69

What is the normal fire category for Ryanair destinations? Select one: a. Cat 5 b. Cat 6 c. Cat B d. Cat 7

Answer 69

d

Question 70

What is the only approved command to initiate a line of communication with the cabin crew in an emergency/non normal situation? Select one: a. Press the Cabin Attendant call button twice b. Press the Cabin Attendant call button once c. Bing the cabin using the “Cabin attend” call button and over the PA handset “No.1 to the flight deck” repeat twice d. Bing the cabin using the “Cabin attend” call button and over the PA handset “No.1 to the flight deck”

Answer 70

d

Question 71

What is the required number of cabin crew for boarding when the aircraft is refuelling? Select one: a. Three until we have 150 passengers on board and then we need 4 b. One CSA for every 50 passengers on board but at all time a minimum of 3 c. One CSA for every 50 passengers on board but at all time a minimum of 2 d. Four at all times when refuelling

Answer 71

c

Question 72

What is the Ryanair FMC cruise speed policy? Select one: a. Cost index or fixed SPEED/MACH indicated on OFP and accept ECON speeds by the FMC b. Use Econ speeds generated by the FMC at Cost Index of 30 c. Use Econ speeds generated by the FMC at Cost Index of 6 d. LRC and Cost Index of 30

Answer 72

a

Question 73

What is the Ryanair policy for pilots operating the refuelling panel? Select one: a. Pilots are not allowed to operate this panel b. Pilots are allowed to operate this panel however the refueller must know that the panel cannot be pressurised whilst the pilot operates the switches at the panel c. Pilots are allowed to operate this panel however there must be an engineer to supervise d. Pilots are allowed to operate this panel however the passengers are not allowed to board the aircraft

Answer 73

b

Question 74

What is the Ryanair policy if a Flap 1 setting is required for take-offs? Select one: a. All of the other answers b. Intersection take off is not permitted c. Captain’s only T/O d. No derate or ATRT allowed

Answer 74

a

Question 75

What is the Ryanair policy regarding Nav aid selection? Select one: a. If using LNAV mode for approach the Nav aids shall be selected to allow reversion to raw data in the event of mode failure b. There is no policy for selecting Nav aids for departure or arrival c. Nav aids shall be selected to enable the SID/STAR and instrument approach to be flown in raw data d. Both Nav 1 and 2 must show the same frequency for approach

Answer 75

c

Question 76

What is the Ryanair policy regarding thunderstorm activity during approach and landing? Select one: a. Avoid the thunderstorm visually and continue on the approach b. It is always captains discretion to fly through a thunderstorm c. Use the weather radar and it is acceptable to fly through red areas d. Avoid making an approach if a thunderstorm is active over the airfield or there are cells on the final approach track within 3NM of the field

Answer 76

d

Question 77

What is the Ryanair sterile cockpit policy? Select one: a. Flight Crew shall avoid all unnecessary conversation during the climb and descent b. No unnecessary conversation in the cruise or descent c. Flight Crew shall avoid conversation not directly related to the safe operation of the aircraft from commencement of pushback to engine shutdown on stand d. Flight Crew shall avoid conversation not directly related to the safe operation of the aircraft from commencement of pushback to TOC and from TOD to engine shutdown on stand

Answer 77

a

Question 78

What is the wake turbulence category of the Boeing 737-800? Select one: a. Light b. CAT D c. Medium d. Heavy

Answer 78

c

Question 79

What lights should be switched on when crossing an active or non-active runway? Select one: a. Strobe lights b. Logo light c. Landing lights d. Retractable landing lights

Answer 79

a

Question 80

What parameters can ATC view via the Enhanced Mode S transponders? Select one: a. Flight number, current heading, speed and V/S selected on the MCP b. Heading, altitude and speed selected on the MCP, current V/S and angle of bank c. Flight Number, current heading, altitude and speed selected on MCP plus the current V/S d. Flight number, current heading and speed

Question 81

What shall the Captain do when the calculated usable fuel on landing, at the nearest adequate aerodrome where a safe landing can be performed, is less than final reserve fuel? Select one: a. File a CSR on completion of the flight duty b. Inform Operations c. Make a distress call to ATC (MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY, FUEL, call-sign) d. Declare a ‘Priority Landing due to Low Fuel (only)

Answer 81

c

Question 81

Whose responsibility is it to pull the yellow collared circuit breaker (behind the Captain’s seat) at the earliest opportunity following a serious incident? Select one: a. The Captain’s b. The Airport Authority c. It is not specified d. The Engineer’s

Answer 81

a

Question 82

What should be done with sections of the Tech Log that are not applicable to the flight (i.e. de-icing?) Select one: a. They must be struck through to ensure all entries are contemporaneous unless the area is non shaded, then it can be left blank b. They can be ignored as they do not affect the flight c. You must fill in and sign all elements of the Tech Log d. There are never any sections of the Tech Log that are not applicable to the flight

Answer 82

a

Question 83

What should the Captain do when informed by the CSS that an entry has been made in the Cabin Defect Log? Select one: a. Instruct the CSS to inform the engineer b. The Captain does not need to know about the Cabin Defect Log c. Check it for defects that might affect the airworthiness of the aircraft and if found transfer to the Tech Log d. Transfer it to the Tech Log

Answer 83

c

Question 84

What should the commander do if a thunderstorm comes overhead the airfield during fuelling? Select one: a. Consider suspending the fuelling operation b. Consider suspending boarding c. Consider suspending the refuelling supervisor d. Inform the engineer that he must do the walkaround

Answer 84

a

Question 85

What should you do if your aircraft registration does not match that of your LIDO flight plan? Select one: a. Take an extra 1000kg of fuel to account for any performance differences b. Delete the aircraft registration on the OFP and retain in the flight envelope c. In the case of an unscheduled aircraft change the flight may not be commenced until a new OFP has been generated d. You do not need to take any action

Answer 85

c

Question 86

What weather criteria must a Takeoff alternate fulfil? Select one: a. The forecast 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA must be above the required landing minima (CAT II/IIIA approaches not permitted) b. The forecast 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA must be above the required landing minima including CAT2/3 minima c. Above landing minima at time of departure d. Above destination take off minima at time of departure

Answer 86

a

Question 87

When can the Captain derive an equivalent RVR value by converting the reported met visibility as outlined in Table 8 OPS PART A 8.1.3.4.9: Select one: a. Whenever the Captain decides that he wants to know the RVR b. Anytime that RVR reports are not given c. Only when the approach minima is published solely as an RVR and RVR reports are not available at the time of the approach d. If requested by ATC

Answer 87

c

Question 88

When is it considered necessary to record en-route weather on the PLOG? Select one: a. Only recommended during periods of generally poor weather. Preference is to obtain weather for enroute Ryanair bases b. We only need enroute weather if a diversion is considered likely c. Enroute weather should always be recorded d. On flights of greater than 1-hour duration and during periods of generally poor weather. Preference is to obtain weather from VOLMET

Question 89

When is it necessary to nominate a Takeoff alternate? Select one: a. If the weather at the departure airfield is forecast to be below minima b. If the weather at the departure airfield is at or below the applicable aerodrome minima or it would not be possible to return to the departure airport for other reasons c. When the weather at your destination airfield is below minima d. When the weather at your destination airfield is below minima and it lies within 1-hour single engine cruise

Answer 89

b

Question 90

When is supplemental oxygen required to be carried on board? Select one: a. On all flights where the aircraft is pressurised and operates above 10,000ft b. It is only required if a passenger has pre-booked it c. On flights of more than 1hr 30mins duration. d. At all times when there are passengers

Answer 90

a

Question 91

When must the commander select at least two destination alternates? Select one: a. No destination alternate weather information available. b. First destination alternate is below minima c. Destination forecast from 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA is below planning minima plus 100feet / 200metres d. Destination forecast from 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA is below minima or no weather information available for destination

Answer 91

c

Question 92

When obtaining enroute weather: Select one: a. Never try and get the weather when monitoring the ATC frequency. Always hand over the radio b. Maintain a listening watch on the active frequency c. Do not pick up enroute weather d. Ensure the airfield is within 30 minutes flight time on a single engine

Answer 92

a

Question 93

When operating in RVSM airspace, what is the tolerance for an Assigned Altitude Deviation (AAD)? Select one: a. +/- 200ft b. +/- 300ft c. +/- 350ft d. +/- 250ft

Answer 93

b

Question 94

When should the Captain call “CONTINUE” during a Monitored Approach? Select one: a. At the minima call only b. The F/O should call “LAND” when visual c. At or before the minima when he/she has the required visual references for landing d. There is no need as the aircraft calls “CONTINUE”

Answer 94

c

Question 95

Where should the Tech Log be stored on board the aircraft? Select one: a. All of the other answers are correct b. In front of the Captain’s seat c. In the bracket provided behind the Captain's seat d. In a fireproof location

Answer 95

c

Question 96

Where would you normally ascertain if a runway is approved for a CAT III approach? Select one: a. Approved CAT III runway list in OMA b. OMB c. The applicable runway chart d. QRH CAT II/III checklist

Answer 96

a