2 Flashcards
(499 cards)
1
Q
Know the S/S of increased intercranial pressure
A
HIGH BP and LOW HR
2
Q
Guarding the opening of the trachea is a thin, leaf-shaped valve called the
A
Epiglotitis
3
Q
A patient with a long bone fracture may suffer from a
A
Fat embolism
4
Q
The pulmonary arteries carries
A
deoxygenated blood to the lungs
5
Q
One pint of blood is
A
500cc’s
6
Q
Minute volume’s
A
Respiratory rate x Tidal volume
7
Q
Kidney’s rely on perfusion during the
A
systolic phase of blood and blood pressure
8
Q
Sudden onset of wheezing in one lung is
A
Foreign Body Inspiration
9
Q
The medical term for coughing up blood (pink, blood filled sputum) is
A
Hemoptysis
10
Q
All are microorganism except
A
Erythrocytes
11
Q
In a patient with myocardial infarction, the information the doctor can obtain over the radio is
A
Present complaints and history
12
Q
Dehydration has the following signs except
A
JVD
13
Q
A patient presents with rapid onset dyspnea, Urticaria (hives), tachypnea, and a blood pressure of 80/60. This patient is suffering from
A
Anaphylactic Shock
14
Q
Vomiting usually occurs during removal of an
A
EOA
15
Q
Pulse pressure is the
A
Difference between the systolic and diastolic
16
Q
If there is a question about which of the 5 or 6 P’s pick
A
Pressure (it was on the test but cannot remember the question but other people have told me the answer is Pressure)
17
Q
The whistling sound associated with asthma is called
A
Wheezing
18
Q
The purple colored lesions on the face and body from AIDS is called
A
Karposi Sarcoma
19
Q
Pale skin (pallor) is caused by
A
Vasoconstriction
20
Q
All are clinical signs of shock except
A
Constricted pupils
21
Q
Usual MAST deflation sequence is
A
Abdomen, right leg, left leg (inflation is left leg, right leg, abdomen)
22
Q
The rate of KVO is
A
10mL/hour
23
Q
When starting a tourniquet (venous constricting band) it is applied so
A
That it occludes venous return, but allow arterial flow
24
Q
The oxygen delivery device used for emphysema is the
A
Nasal cannula or venturi mask
25
The technique that will not help distend a vein for Venipuncture is to
Elevate the arm
26
A mini drip IV set delivers
60gtts/min
27
Carpal pedal spasm are caused from
Respiratory alkalosis and hyperventilation
28
Do not give a subQ injection to a patient that is in
Shock
29
The patient has blood gases of pH is 7.15, PCO2 is 60, PO2 is 60. The patient is in
Respiratory acidosis
30
Use an EOA when patient had overdosed on
Valium
31
The major hazard involved in a catheter through the needle system is the chance of
Catheter embolus
32
A patient has been intubated and only breath sounds are heard on the right side of the chest. You should attempt to fix this by
Pulling back the tube slightly and listening again
33
External jugular vein is not a
Central line
34
When intubating a child under 8, you should use an
Uncuffed tube
35
When you intubate a patient, it is not a must to
Use a Miller laryngoscope
36
A local complication of using an IV does not include
Causing sepsis
37
The patient has blood gases of pH-7.00, PCO2-35, PO2-95, HCO3-12. The most appropriate immediate action is to give
Sodium Bicarbonate
38
One of the indications for the MAST suit is
A pelvis fracture
39
The correct placement of a laryngoscope blade is
The Valecula
40
The patient with COPD has his respiratory drive triggered by
Decreased oxygen levels
41
A patient in a motorcycle accident. He has lacerations to his head that is actively bleeding. His vitals are, BP 80/40, P 110. Treat him by giving
actated Ringers wide open.
42
Hyperventilation helps to correct
Respiratory acidosis
43
The IV solution closest to blood plasma is
Lactated Ringers
44
A common side effect of Bretylium is
Postural hypotension
45
Common side effects of EPI subQ (SQ) or IV are
Palpations and high blood pressure
46
You are to draw up 400mg Dopamine that comes 25mg/cc. The number of cc’s you will draw up to put in the bag is
16cc’s
47
A major side effect of certain types of diuretic therapies is
Hypokalemia
48
The drug of choice for treating hyperkalemia is
Calcium Chloride
49
One of the adverse reactions of Isuprel is not
Bradycardia
50
Atropine works by
Blocking the effects of the vagus nerve
51
A 60 y/o patient complains of palpitations. His P-145, BP-110/60, R-24. He also has wide complex tachycardia. Treatment would be
Lidocaine 1-1.5mg/kg
52
In a chronic heroin user, the use of Narcan can cause
A withdrawal reaction
53
All of the following are true regarding Lidocaine, except that it
Decreases cardiac function
54
A 9-month pregnant pt has seizures. The treatment should be
Valium 5-10mg
55
A migrant worker has been picking tomatoes. He suddenly complains of a headache and dizziness. Upon a physical exam, he has a strong, bounding pulse and hot, flushed, dry skin. He also begins to have seizures. Treatment of this pt would not include using
Diazepam 15mg IV (Heat Stroke)
56
The most appropriate indication for ammonia ampules would be to
Terminate a syncopal episode
57
Narcan is used to reverse the respiratory depression of
Darvan
58
An individual with unknown drug is in respiratory distress, hypotensive, and in a stupor. He also has pinpoint pupils. The paramedic might suspect a
Morphine overdose
59
Narcan is effective in reversing the effects of
Narcotics and Opiate based derivatives
60
The pharmacological treatment of anaphylactic shock is
EPI and Benadryl
61
The fastest route of administration of the following IM, SQ, SC, ET is
ET
62
A side effect of a small pupils is not an affect of
Valium
63
Isuprel is used in
Bradycardia
64
You give 25gm of Dextrose from a 100cc amp of 50% Dextrose
50cc’s of Dextrose will be given
65
A drug used to decrease intracranial pressure is
Mannitol
66
An adult dose of activated charcoal is
1gm/kg
67
Lasix does not
Increase preload
68
Mallaril and Thorazine are in the category of
Tricyclic antidepressant
69
Common treatment of Tricyclic antidepressant overdose is
Sodium Bicarb
70
Two common Tricyclic antidepressant are
Elival and Tofranil
71
The first drug pediatric bradycardia is
Oxygen
72
Early signs of Lidocaine toxicity are
Tremors and parasthesia
73
A side effect that is not common of Atropine is
Bradycardia
74
The pediatric dose of subQ EPI is
0.01mg/kg
75
Isuprel is a
Beta stimulator
76
A doctor orders 1000mg of a drug. The drug comes packaged as 0.5gm/cc. the number of cc’s given will be
2cc’s
77
All of the following are acceptable indications for the administration of IV Nitro except
Ventricular Dysrhythmia’s (pain relief in unstable angina, PE, MI were the other choices)
78
The route that is not a parenteral route of drug administration is
Oral
79
A pt chief complaint is midsternal chest pain. The monitor shows sinus bradycardia with PVC’s, P 40, BP 90/60, and R 22. The first drug to administer is
Atropine
80
Do not use Lidocaine for
Bradycardia with PVC’s
81
Narcan reverse the effect of all except
Valium
82
A needle inserted into connective tissue is called
Subcutaneous
83
The pediatric dose of Lidocaine (1mg/kg) for a 20 pound child is
9mg
84
Norepinephrine is classified as an
Alpha and beta stimulator
85
Mag sulfate is used to treat
Calcium channel blocker overdose
86
Death could occur if along with alcohol, a person takes
Morphine and/or Valium(potentiating)
87
A pediatric dosage of subQ EPI is 0.01mg/kg. The patient weighs 57 lbs. The amount of EPI given is
0.3mg
88
The Lidocaine dose for pulseless V-Tach (and V-Fib) is
1-1.5mg/kg
89
The need for increasing the amounts of a drug in order to achieve a desire effect is called
Tolerance
90
When beta-receptors are stimulated
The heart rate increases
91
All bronchodilators except
Benadryl
92
Verapamil is contraindicated for
Wolff-Parkinson-White Syndrome (WPW)
93
An athlete has fallen and injured his ankle. His BP 120/80, P 50, and skin are warm and dry. Treatment is to
Splint the ankle and transport
94
A pediatric ingests lye by mouth. The best treatment is t
.Give milk (this question popped up on the State test in Nov. of 2008)
95
Verapamil and Adenocard are used to treat
VT
96
The adult dose of EPI in asthma is
0.3-0.5mg
97
In addition to Lasix, all of the following are used to treat pulmonary edema except
Solu-Medrol
98
The characteristic of an ectopic pregnancy can be all of the following except
Third trimester pregnancy
99
An appropriate action when dealing with a child is to
let the mother and father to travel with the baby
100
The common cause of convulsions in a child 6 months to 6 years is
Febrile illness
101
A child complains of “bells ringing in the head” and is hyperventilating. This can be caused by an
ASA overdose
102
In pediatric arrest, the initial dose of Sodium Bicarb is
1mEq/kg
103
When rescue arrives, a woman is found to be in childbirth with a prolapsed cord. You should not
Try to push the cord back inside.
104
The fundus is massaged after placental delivery in order to
Control bleeding
105
Pediatric weight in 6 months should
Be double the birth weight
106
The pediatric dose of Lidocaine is
1mg/kg
107
The most dangerous disorder causing upper airway stridor is
Epiglottitis
108
Abrupto placenta is presented by
Abdominal pain and dark red bleeding (if any)
109
Along with pitocin to help control postpartum hemorrhage, you should
Massage the fundus and place the baby on the mother’s breast
110
Care must be given when examining a child with a swollen epiglottis because this may cause
Laryngospasms that are common in children with Epiglottitis
111
SIDS occur in children most frequently under
6 months (range of SIDS is up to 1 year)
112
When the baby’s head is delivered, the paramedic should support the head by
Distributing his fingers evenly around the head
113
In normal delivery of a baby, the head should be
Face down
114
Using EPI to treat respiratory ailments
A “failure” suggests bronchiolitis and “success” suggest asthma
115
The paramedic should palpate the infant’s pulse by the
Brachial, carotid, or radial (depending on the child’s size)
116
When opening the airway of an infant do not exaggerate the head tilt because this
May obstruct the breathing passages
117
Normal delivery of a full-term infant 1 min. after delivery finds that it’s body is pink, extremities are blue, P 120, and is crying lustily while jerking it’s arms and legs. The APGAR score is
9
118
The stage whose ending is marked by the delivery of the placenta is the
Third stage
119
You are called at 3am to a female with pain in her lower abdomen, bloody urine, and fever of 2 days. The physical exam reveals tenderness over the bladder and otherwise normal vitals except for a temperature of 100 degrees F. She also states that she “may be pregnant.” Due to the signs and symptoms, you should suspect
Inflammation of the bladder
120
A 3 y/o is suffering from an asthma attack. The dose of EPI 1:1000 is
0.01mg/kg
121
A 6 y/o was burned. He has blisters on arms and hands, blistered chest and abdomen. The rule of nine states that his burn percentage is
0.27
122
You are transporting a multigravida whose last 2 childbirth were C-Sections. She appears near full term and has contractions every 3-4 min. apart. She complains of a tearing pain in her lower abdomen and she begins to go into shock. This suggest
uterine rupture
123
All of the following cause uterine bleeding during the first trimester except
Placenta Previa
124
A 23 y/o female who is obese and approximately 6 months pregnant just had a grand mal seizure. Her P 145, BP 240/130, and has edema of extremities. She can be diagnosed with
Eclampsia
125
Treatment of the #617 patient with all of the following except
Attempting to open her mouth with a padded tongue depressor
126
The normal time of labor for a women having her first baby is
18 hours
127
If a baby is having difficulty with shoulder delivery, assist by
Gently pressing the baby downward
128
Thrombi arising in deep veins of the legs are most likely to migrate to the
Lungs
129
Emesis should be induced for the ingestion of
Salicylate (ASA)
130
Rapid cooling of a heat stroke patient is done to prevent
Irreversible brain damage
131
As you assess your trauma patient, you determine his GCS. He is awake but confused; he obeys commands, but when not stimulated, he falls to sleep. He responds to voice by opening his eyes. What is his GCS?
13
132
A patient has sustained a stab wound of the neck that has lacerated the jugular vein. He is suspected of having an air embolism. The appropriate treatment is
Applying pressure to the wound and positioning on the left side
133
Which of the following decreases during the 3rd trimester of pregnancy
B/P
134
According to OSHA, what must be available on site where hazardous materials are stored?
MSDS
135
All of the following are true regarding electrical burns except
there is more external than internal damage (there is an entrance and exit wound, it may cause V-Fib, path of electricity may follow nerve pathways…where other answers)
136
When do you NOT give Lidocaine?
PVC’s with bradycardia
137
What is the most serious complication of a joint injury?
blood vessel damage
138
What is the best way for a paramedic to prevent an anaphylactic reaction when giving medications to a patient?
ask about allergy history
139
A telemetry system in which voice and an EKG can be transmitted from the field to the hospital at the same time is an example of a
multiplex system
140
A major side effect of Lasix is
Hypokalemia
141
Flat neck veins are common to all of the following except
cardiac Tamponade (dehydration, hypovolemia, Hemothorax…..where other answers)
142
The key to effective management in a disaster situation is:
the communication system
143
Which is corrected with hyperventilation?
respiratory acidosis
144
What do you do for a patient who has a partial upper airway obstruction (adult) with a good exchange?
encourage coughing
145
You have just delivered a newborn whose mother was hypovolemic due to blood loss. What is the recommended fluid replacement for this newborn?
10cc/kg
146
Narcan is used to reverse the respiratory depression of:
darvon
147
Poor airway compliance is found frequently in all of the following conditions except:
pleuritis
148
The pediatric dose for atropine is:
0.02mg/kg
149
A patient needs increased amounts of a drug to achieve the desire effect. This is known as
tolerance
150
Which of the following is NOT a normal part of the “fight-or-flight” response?
pupils constrict
151
What is the name of the tower that increases the transmission range of a portable or mobile radio?
repeater
152
You are called to treat a 22 y/o female with sudden onset of LLQ pain. She is 2 weeks late for her period, and is shocky. What is the most likely diagnosis?
ectopic pregnancy
153
All of the following are side effects of Verapamil except:
tachycardia (hypotension, dilation of coronary arteries, bradycardia….where the other answers)
154
Pale skin (pallor) is caused by:
vasoconstriction
155
You are examining an EKG strip where the P-R interval progressively gets longer until a QRS is dropped. This rhythm is known as all of the following except:
complete heart block (mobitz I, 2nd degree heart block type I, wenkeback…..where the other answers)
156
Which of the following oxygen delivery devices are most frequently used for a patient with emphysema?
nasal cannula (NRM, simple mask, OPA…where the other answers)
157
The medical term for coughing up blood (pink, blood-tinged sputum) is:
hemoptysis
158
Neurological findings that occur during or after dialysis as a result of imbalance of intracellular and extracellular fluids in the brain is known as:
disequilibrium syndrome
159
You have a patient with apparent injuries from a bar fight. The patient is obviously under the influence of alcohol. The patient refuses treatment and signs a release. Is the release valid?
NO, because he is under the influence of alcohol
160
Granting of the privilege by physicians to paramedics to perform skills is called:
delegation of authority
161
Abruptio placenta is a true emergency. It is characterized by:
abdominal pain and dark red bleeding
162
Movement of air into and out of the lungs depends on:
pressure changes of the thoracic cavity
163
A legal document that indicates a patient’s end of life request regarding resuscitation is known as:
DNR order
164
After completing a patient care report, the paramedic realizes that he forgot to enter the drug dose. What should he do?
add a dated and signed written addendum
165
You are treating a patient in July with hot, dry skin, a temperature of 106 degrees, and unconsciousness. What is the most likely diagnosis?
heat stroke
166
Your 23 y/o male patient presents with a sharp chest pain of short duration, and SOB. What is the most likely cause of this patient’s problem?
spontaneous pneumothorax
167
Maintaining equilibrium can be characterized as:
homeostasis
168
All of the following are schedule I drugs EXCEPT:
COCAINE (heroin, mescaline, LSD…where other answers)
169
Which of the following bite is most neurotoxic?
coral snake
170
The most common cause of PID is:
gonorrhea
171
Treatment of abdominal evisceration should include all except:
replace and cover eviscerating organs
172
All of the following are signs or symptoms of organophosphate poisoning except:
dry mouth (ABD cramping, diarrhea, constricted pupils….where the other answers)
173
A fracture of the elbow should always be immobilized:
in the position it was found
174
A patient presents with pulmonary edema. She should be given:
nitroglycerine to reduce preload
175
A 55 y/o patient has a pulse rate of 50. There is a P for every QRS and the P-R interval is 0.16. The patient is cold and clammy and the B/P is 70/50. Indicate the rhythm and the initial treatment
sinus bradycardia and atropine 0.5mg
176
The proper adult dose of EPI for asthma is:
0.3-0.5mg
177
A seizure which presents the clonic movements of one hand, one arm or leg or one side of the face is called:
focal motor
178
Which of the following is usually NOT a sign or symptom of increased intracranial pressure?
hypotension (bradycardia, irregular or unequal pupils, vomiting….where some of the other answers)
179
Supine hypotensive syndrome is caused from:
pressure from the uterus on the vena cava
180
Which of the following is not a complication of an IV?
hypotension (thrombus formation, cellulitis, infection…..where some of the other answers)
181
In a patient with COPD, the respiratory drive is triggered by:
a decrease in O2
182
Which one DOES NOT produce small pupils?
valium (heroin, Demerol, organo phosphates….where some of the other answers)
183
When intubating a patient, you MUST DO all of the following except:
use a miller laryngoscope (check lung sounds after intubation, check cuff for leaks, ventilate by other means prior to intubation…….where the other answers)
184
The first compensatory mechanism to be used to maintain homeostasis is:
bicarbonate buffer system
185
You have an IV running at 50gtts/min. You are using a macro 10. The physician wants to know how many cc per hour your IV is running
300cc/hr
186
A 55 y/o fell while playing basketball. He injured his right ankle. The skin is warm and dry. B/P 110/80 and pulse rate is 50. All of the following are appropriate except:
atropine 0.5 mg IV (EKG monitor, splint leg, frequent circulation checks….where the other answers)
187
Narcan reverses the effect of all of the following except:
valium (darvon, morphine, talwin…..where the other answers)
188
Which of the following is not a side effect of atropine:
sweating (tachycardia, blurred vision, dry mouth….where the other answers)
189
Hyperthyroidism which causes an increase in thyroid hormone circulating in the blood is also known as:
Graves’ Disease
190
A patient with a head injury suddenly has a left pupil that is fixed and dilated and the right is slow to respond to light. This is:
neurological crisis
191
All of the following are opportunistic infections associated with AIDS except:
appendicitis (thrush or monilia, TB, pneumonia….where the other answers)
192
A 40 y/o female presents with a two week loss of appetite, general malaise and RUQ tenderness. She tells you her stools are clay-colored and her urine is tea colored. What do you think is causing these symptoms?
hepatitis
193
A psychiatric patient is crying. What should you do?
listen and let him cry
194
The mechanism of injury can tell the paramedic about the patient’s condition. Of the injuries below, which would most likely occur with a collapsed steering column?
flail chest (basilar skull fracture, ruptured spleen, fractured pelvis……where the other answers)
195
Atropine works by:
blocking the effects of the vagus nerve
196
Which of the following infectious diseases are spread by droplets?
measles, mumps, chicken pox
197
Which of the following is false regarding burns?
there is insignificant damage to underlying soft tissue
198
When BETA receptors are stimulated, what happens?
heart rate increases
199
Verapamil is contraindicated in which of the following conditions?
W-P-W
200
Paradoxical chest wall movement that lessens respiratory efficiency may suggest a
flail chest
201
Which of the following is an isotonic crystalloid?
Normal Saline
203
A patient has lost feeling below the nipple line. This would indicate a spinal injury at the level of:
T4
204
By 4 to 6 months, a child should have:
doubled the birth weight
205
A crackling sensation in the neck due to air under the skin is called:
SQ emphysema
206
A patient complains of SOB. He has, upon assessment, a barrel chest and pursed lips. What is the most likely diagnosis?
emphysema
207
The pulmonary artery carries:
deoxygenated blood to the lungs
208
The patient has been exposed to dry lime all over his body. Your action would be:
brush off chemical then flush with water
209
A drug with a positive Inotropic effect will cause:
increased force of contraction
210
A patient with blood gas values of pH-7.15, PC02-60, P02-60 is suffering from
respiratory acidosis
211
The movement of gas from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration is:
diffusion
212
The kidneys are located:
retroperitoneal
213
A whistling sound heard in inspiration and expiration while auscultating lung field is called
Wheezing
214
The above strip represents:
1st degree block, W-P-W, Bradycardia, or NSR…(you figure it out)
215
Your patient has the above rhythm. He has no pulse and is not breathing. All of the following could be causes except
hypocarbia (cardiac Tamponade, fluid loss, hypoxia….where the other answers)
216
The above strip represents:
Sinus Bradycardia, Normal Sinus Rhythm, Bundle Branch Block, First degree AV block (you figure it out)
217
A hyperglycemic condition that only occurs during pregnancy is known as:
gestational diabetes
218
All of the following would have hyper resonant percussion sounds except:
Hemothorax (pneumothorax, asthma, emphysema…where the other answers)
219
Furosemide has all of the following effects or side effects except:
hyperkalemia (venodilation, reducing preload, increased urine output….where the other answers)
220
The term for stiffness and flexibility of airflow or airflow which occurs with minimal resistance is known as:
compliance
221
The most common indication for a surgical cricothyrotomy is:
.massive facial trauma
222
Polycythemia means
excessive RBC’s
223
You are at a MCI and are using the S.T.A.R.T. triage system to evaluate the victims. A patient has a respiratory rate of 40. What category does this put him into?
RED
224
The process by which the EMT sorts patients into categories of priority for care and transport is called:
triage
225
The presence of pouch-like herniations through the muscular layer of the colon is known as:
diverticulosis
226
The number one cause of bradycardia in newborns is:
hypoxia
227
You are called to the workplace of a 20 y/o male who came to work feeling ill. He is c/o a stiff neck, high fever, headache and backache. He is most likely suffering from:
meningitis
228
An individual with known drug abuse is in respiratory distress, hypotensive, and stuporous. He has pinpoint pupils. The paramedic might suspect:
morphine overdose
229
After you attach your patient to the EKG monitor, you note quite a bit of 60-cycle interference. Which of the following maneuvers would be most likely to correct this problem?
disconnect any electrical appliances in the vicinity
230
The depth of compressions for a child is:
1/3 to ½ the depth of chest wall
231
What types of frequencies are used for medical communications?
UHF, VHF
232
The master gland responsible for excreting oxytocin and ACTH is:
pituitary
233
A patient has been burned on the front of both legs and front of both arms. What % burn is it?
0.27
234
Two common Tricyclic antidepressants are:
Elavil and Tofranil
235
The pediatric dose of Lido is:
1mg/kg of body weight
236
You are called to the scene of a construction site accident. A 31 y/o male was working in a trench when the walls collapsed. His co-workers have freed his abdomen, chest, and head, but he is still trapped from the waist down. The patient appears to be purple from the shoulders up and is having marked difficulty breathing. His eyes are bulging, and his lips appear swollen. You suspect
traumatic asphyxia
237
In a case of malpractice, the courts will compare the actions of the defendant to the actions his peers would have taken under the same circumstances. This comparison is known as the:
standard of care
238
Heat stroke is caused by:
failure of the heat-regulating mechanisms
239
A child has overdosed on ASA. You would expect to see all of the following except:
hypoventilation
240
A liquid drug which is prepared using an alcohol process and which usually has some of the alcohol in the final preparation is a(n):
tincture
241
The primary concerns in treating a near-drowning victim are management of:
hypoxia and acidosis
242
Cribbing is most often used to:
stabilize a vehicle
243
You are assessing a pregnant patient in labor. She tells you this is the 4th time she has been pregnant and she had 2 miscarriages and one live birth. She is considered to be:
G4 P1(G means # of pregnancy and P means how many live births)
244
A 55 y/o female who is a mother of four complains of RUQ pain with nausea and vomiting you suspect:
cholecystitis (REMEMBER: lower quadrant pain usually means ectopic pregnancy)
245
When responding to a call lights and siren on a four lane highway, it is best to:
drive in the left lane so traffic can move to the right
246
The blue or purple colored lesions found on the face, mouth and other parts of the body of the AIDS patient is usually:
Kaposi’s sarcoma
247
A 16 y/o male was hit in the head with a baseball bat and has suffered a closed head injury. Which IV fluids are appropriate for this patient?
NS & LR
248
When is it NOT necessary to reassess ET tube placement?
after attaching a pulse oximetry unit
249
Your trauma patient is exhibiting signs of a tension pneumothorax. What would be your order of treatment?
Oxygen, Pleural decompression, Transport, IV
250
Which of the following is not a type of muscle?
involuntary
251
Fluid replacement for an adult trauma patient is based on:
20mL/kg bolus
252
Do not give a SC injection to a patient who:
.is in shock
253
The inner most layer of the uterus is the:
endometrium
254
You are called to the scene of a 70 y/o patient with SOB. His wife sts he has been having difficulty sleeping in a flat position for the last 2 nights. The patient has dried blood on his lips. Which of the following conditions is most likely the cause of his SOB?
pulmonary edema
255
Cardiac output
HR x stroke volume
256
The section of the brain which controls posture is called the:
cerebellum
257
The major extracellular cation is:
sodium
258
Endocrine glands do what?
excrete hormones into blood stream
259
Front windshields are made from:
laminated safety glass
260
Clinical signs of tension pneumothorax are all of the following except:
flat neck veins
261
Ms. J. is in DKA. Her breathing pattern is hypernea and tachypnea. What is this respiratory pattern called?
Kussmauls
262
What PPE should be worn during delivery?
gloves, mask, gown, protective eyewear
263
Which is the most appropriate sequence of treatment for a victim of an explosion?(REMEMBER: your ABC’s)
assess adequacy of airway, ventilate and oxygenate as indicated, stop arterial bleeding from a radial artery, treat a closed fracture of the femur(REMEMBER: restore the breathing, stop the bleeding, protect the wound)
264
A group of frequencies close together is called:
band
265
What is Urticaria?
hives
266
A patient with major burns has hypovolemic shock because of:
plasma loss
267
An extrapyramidal reaction is caused by what classification o0f drugs?
antipsychotics
268
A patient presents as follows – bizarre acting, cool, clammy skin, slurred speech, and staggers. The diagnosis for this patient is:
hypoglycemia
269
Radio frequencies are measured in:
megahertz
270
A drug that can be used instead of EPI to treat V-Fib is:
vasopressin
271
The senior citizen has special problems inherent to this aging process. The correct description of a body change due to the aging process is:
diminished vision
272
Metabolic acidosis occurs in all of the following except:
hyperventilation syndrome
273
You are called to the scene of a 2 y/o with difficulty breathing. He is using accessory muscles, has grunting respirations, and nasal flaring. Which of the following is the best treatment regime for this patient?
leave the child in mother’s lap, use a NRM and monitor progress
274
Which of the following is true regarding a basilar skull fracture?
raccoon’s eyes is a late sign
275
During a fire your partner falls down a flight of stairs. What method would you use to remove him from the burning building?.
clothes drag
276
Rescue arrives to find a woman in childbirth and upon examination finds the cord is prolapsed. Treatment would include all except:
push the cord back into the canal
277
What is the appropriate dose of EPI for asthma in an adult?
0.3 to 0.5 mL of a 1:1000 solution administered SQ
278
You are using an IV set with 15 drops per mL to administer 50mL per hour. How many drops per minute do you give?
13
279
The time from conception until delivery is known as:
prenatal
280
What type of cerebral hemorrhage usually occurs rapidly due to an arterial bleed?
Epidural DRUGS
281
#1 side effect of Bretylium
Hypotension
282
0.3 mg Epinephrine SQ for
Mild allergic reaction
283
110 lbs patient, What is the Lidocaine dose
50 mg, then 2 - 4 mg / min
284
17 lbs Pedi Lidocaine dose
8 mg
285
1st drug in PEA
EPI
286
20 drop set in 30 minutes running at 50 drops
75 ml
287
21 yr old Asthma patient, what drug
Albuterol 2.5 mg via Nebulizer
288
60 Drop Set in 30 minutes Running at 20 Drops
10 ml
289
60 gtts Set Run 15 gtts/min How much in one hour
15
290
60 gtts Set Run 20 gtts / min How much in one hour
30
291
60 mg
1 grain
292
60 yr. Old patient weighing 100 lbs. complains of palpitations. P 145, BP 110/60, R 24. Wide complex Tachycardia. Treatment
Lidocaine 1 – 1.5mg /kg, 50 mg IVP
293
65 kg patient, how much Epinephrine for allergic reaction
0.3 - 0.5 ml (1:1000) SQ
294
80 kg patient with PVC
100 mg Lidocaine
295
A 9 month pregnant patient has seizures. The treatment should be
Valium 5 - 10 mg
296
A common side effect of Bretylium is
Postural Hypotension
297
A complication from starting an IV is
Air Embolism & Phlebitis
298
A contraindication for Lidocaine is
Sinus Bradycardia with multifocal PVC's
299
A Doctor orders 1000 mg of a drug. The drug comes packaged as 0.5 gm / cc. The number of cc's given will be
2 cc's
300
A drug used in the field to counteract a severe Tricyclic OD is
Sodium Bicarbonate
301
A drug used to Decrease Intracranial Pressure is
Mannitol
302
A local complication of using an IV does NOT include
Causing Sepsis
303
A major side effect of certain types of diuretic therapies
Hypokalemia
304
A mini solution drip set is how many drops per minute
60
305
A Needle Inserted into Connective Tissue is called
Subcutaneous
306
A patient that has been taking Haldol & is exhibiting extra pyramidal reactions should be treated by giving
Benadryl
307
A patient’s Chief Complaint is Midsternal Chest Pain. The monitor shows Sinus Bradycardia with PVC's, P 40, BP 90/60, RR 22, the 1st drug to admin.
Atropine
308
A Pediatric Dosage of SQ Epinephrine is 0.01 mg / kg. The patient weighs 67 lbs. The amount of Epinephrine given is
0.3 mg
309
A Pediatric Ingests Lye by Mouth. The Best Treatment
Give Milk
310
A side effect of a Diuretic is
Hypokalemia
311
A side effect of small pupils is NOT an effect of
Valium
312
A side effect that is Not common of Atropine is
Bradycardia
313
Acetylcholine / Oxytocin
Secreted by the pituitary gland (pea shaped)
314
Acute Asthma
0.3 - 0.5 mg 1:1000 epi SQ
315
Adenosine
PSVT associated with WPW syndrome refractory to vagal maneuvers
316
Adenosine
Slows conduction through the AV node
317
Adenosine for SVT patient
6 mg, 12 mg, 12 mg, Rapid IV Push
318
Administration of drugs through a
Mini drip set
319
Administration of IV Hypertonic Solution on a Hydrated patient will
Draw Water from Cells to Vascular Space
320
After administering Naloxone, Paramedic should see
Combativeness
321
After O2, Monitor, and IV, in Acute Pulmonary Edema, what is Next most Appropriate
NTG 0.4 mg (1/150 gm) SL
322
After O2, what is the #1 for Chest Pain Relief
(MS) Morphine
323
Albuterol for asthma patient
2.5 mg / 3 ml NS
324
All are Bronchodilators, Except
Benadryl
325
All of the following are Acceptable Indications for the Administration of IV Nitro, Except
Ventricular Dysrhythmias (other choices: Pain relief in unstable angina, PE, MI)
326
All of the following are True Regarding Lidocaine, Except
It decreases Cardiac Function
327
Aminophylline dose
5 - 6 mg / kg
328
Amount of ringers if you lost 300 ml of blood
1200 cc (3 x amount lost)
329
An 80 kg. Patient who needs Lidocaine (scenario calls for Lido as treatment of choice Not Cardioversion due to description they give of the patient)
100 mg. Lido Bolus (best answer)
330
An Adult Dose of Activated Charcoal is
1 gm / kg
331
An individual with Unknown Drug is in Respiratory Distress, Hypotensive & in a Stupor. He also has Pinpoint Pupils. The Paramedic might Suspect
Morphine Overdose
332
Anti-depressants
Elavil (amitriptyline), Tofranil (imipramine)
333
Anti-psychotic
Haldol, Mellaril
334
ASA Overdose
Patient will Hyperventilate
335
Atropine
Blurred vision
336
Atropine works by
Blocking the Effects of the Vagus Nerve
337
Atropine does what
Blocks Vagus Nerve (parasympathetic)
338
Atropine pushed too slow at a too low a dose will cause
Paradoxical Bradycardia
339
Atropine under .5 mg
Paradoxical Bradycardia
340
Best Drug to Give in Cardiogenic Shock
Dopamine
341
Best place for IV cannulation, to avoid joints
Forearm
342
Beta Agonist
Tachycardia
343
Beta stimulation will cause all except
Vasoconstriction
344
Bicarb for Tricyclic (TCA)
OD with cardiac abnormalitities
345
Blood you don't have to worry about cross contaminating
Frozen Plasma
346
Brady with PVC's
Atropine
347
Cardiac arrest patient IV to KVO, Anticipate med. admin, What tubing
Mini drip
348
Cardiogenic shock, give
Dopamine
349
Chest pain, after O2, #1 pain relief
Morphine Sulfate
350
Chronotropic Drugs
Affect the heart rate
351
Cocaine is in what Drug Class
Type II
352
Common side effects of Epinephrine SQ or IV are
Palpations and High Blood Pressure
353
Common treatment of Tricyclic antidepressants overdose is
Sodium Bicarbonate
354
Complication of an IV
Air Emboli
355
Complication of Thrombolytic Therapy
Bleeding Out
356
Complications from IV administration
Phlebitis and Emboli
357
Contraindication for Lidocaine
Sinus Brady with PVC
358
Contraindication of SQ route is
Hypovolemic Shock
359
Contraindication for Verapamil
Pulmonary Edema, Cardiogenic Shock
360
Contraindications for Verapamil
WPW Syndrome
361
Contraindications for Verapamil, all except
Asthma
362
Contraindications of SQ Route
Hypotension
363
Contraindications of Verapamil
WPW Syndrome
364
Conversions
60 mg 1 gm …. 1 pint 500 cc
365
D5W main use
Medication Administration
366
Death could occur if along with alcohol, a person takes
Morphine and / or Valium
367
Diazepam for Status Epilipticus
2.5 mg - 10 mg Slow IVP
368
Diuretic Therapy with Lasix
Hypokalemia
369
Do Not give a Sub Q Injection to a patient that is in
Shock
370
Do Not use D5W on patient with
Pitting Edema & Dialysis
371
Do Not use Lidocaine for
Bradycardia with PVC's
372
Dopamine
15 gtts / min
373
Dopamine
Drug of choice in Cardiogenic shock
374
Dopamine
IV drip titrated to Pt. BP
375
Dose 2 mg / min, 2 g drug, 500 ml bag, Mini drip set, How much
30 gtts / min
376
Dose for Status Epilipticus of valium
2.5 mg - 10 mg IVP slow
377
Dose of Bretylium
5 mg / kg
378
Dose of Lidocaine
(#1) 1 – 1.5mg /kg, (#2) 0.5 - 0.75 mg/kg
379
Dr. orders 25 mg of a drug which comes packaged 10 mg / 2 cc. How much do you give
5.0 cc. Divide by 1/2
380
Drug Calculation
Ordered to run 20 ml over 30 minute with Microdrip
381
Drug Calculation - Ordered to run 200 mg - You have a Vial containing 20 ml / 25 mg
-8
382
Drug of choice for Cardiogenic Shock
Dopamine
383
Drug that Causes Pinpoint Pupils
Heroin
384
Drug that is a positive Inotropic
Increases force of cardiac contractions
385
Drug used for ICP
Mannitol
386
Drug used for increased ICP
Mannitol (diuretic)
387
Early Signs of Lidocaine Toxicity are
Tremors and Parasthesia
388
EKG Strip SVT Treatment
Adenosine 6 mg Rapid
389
Elavil / Tofranil
Two common Tricyclic antidepressants
390
EPI
Does Not decrease myocardial oxygen demand
391
EPI
SQ 1:1,000
392
EPI does Not do what
Decrease Myocardial O2 Demand
393
EPI for Anaphylaxis
0.3 mg / 0.5 mg SQ
394
Epi pediatric dose
1:1,000 - 0.1 mg / kg. Or 1:10,000 -0.01 mg / kg
395
Epinephrine
Does Not increase Myocardial Oxygen demand
396
Epinephrine
Vasoconstriction and Bronchodilator
397
Epinephrine stimulates heart in
Asystole
398
Epinephrine, Asthmatic
0.3 -0.5 mg SQ (1:1000)
399
Exclusion Criteria from Thrombolytic Therapy, All Except
Hip Surgery 2 yrs. Ago
400
External Jugular Vein is NOT a
Central Line
401
Federal Food Drug Cosmetic Act
Ensure safe manufacture of drugs
402
Female Overdose on Tricyclic
DO Not Give Ipecac
403
Furosemide (Lasix)
Vasodilatation
404
Furosemide (Lasix) can cause
Hypokalemia
405
Furosemide dose
20 - 80 mg Slow IVP (Also, 40 -80 mg IVP)
406
Given 25 mg/ml 20 cc Syringe comes 200 mg
ml 20g
407
Glucagon
Releases glycogen from the liver
408
Haldol is an Antipsychotic
Non - Antidepressant
409
How many Grams are in a Kilogram
1000g
410
Hypovolemic shock pre hospital fluid
2000 - 3000 ml
411
ICP
Mannitol
412
If you were to administer a drug what would you use
Mini Drip Set
413
IM Injection Angle
90 degrees
414
In a chronic heroin user, the use of Narcan can cause
A withdrawal reaction
415
In addition to Lasix, all of the following are used to treat Pulmonary Edema, Except
Solu - Medrol
416
In Adult Anaphylaxis what is the dose of EPI
0.3 - 0.5 mg 1:1,000 SQ
417
In Hypovolemic patient, Fluid replacement is
3 x the loss
418
In the field Adenosine is used for
PSVT
419
Increase drug amounts to achieve a desired effect
Titrated
420
Indications for Verapamil are all except
Cardiogenic Shock
421
Indications for Verapamil are all, except
Patient with wide ____ Ventricular Tachycardia
422
Inotropic Drugs
Increased Heart Rate Contractility
423
Inotropic Drugs
Strengthen or increase the force of cardiac contraction ex: Epi
424
Insulin
Protein released by Beta Cell
425
Isoproterenol
Increases myocardial O2 consumption
426
Isoproterenol dosing
2 - 10 mcg / min
427
Isuprel is a
Beta Stimulator
428
Isuprel is used in
Bradycardia
429
IV for COPD at KVO rate
5% Dextrose in Sterile Water
430
IV, Don't forget Magnesium Sulfate
After Seizures
431
Know about
Dopamine Dosages and Drip
432
Know Dopamine
400 mg / 250 or 800 mg / 500
433
KVO
10 cc / hr
434
Lactated ringers
Buffer must like plasma
435
Lactated Ringers
Replacement of Plasma ( Hypovolemia )
436
Lasix (Furosemide)
Vasodilator, Diuretic, Causes Dehydration, can cause Hypokalemia
437
Lasix does Not
Increase Pre - load
438
LEAN
Lidocaine, Epinephrine, Atropine, Narcan
439
Lidocaine
Toxicity is numbness and tingling
440
Lidocaine 2 gm / 500 ml run at 2 mg / min
30 Gtts
441
Lidocaine does for a 17 1/2 lb. Pediatric patient
8 mg
442
Lidocaine dose for 130 lb. patient
60 - 90 mg, then 2 - 4 mg / min
443
Lidocaine Doses
1st 1.0 - 1.5 mg / kg, 2nd. 0.5 - 0.75 mg /kg
444
Lidocaine Drip
4 mg / min
445
Lidocaine Drip
2 gm in 500 bag D5W at 30 gtts
446
Lidocaine drip using 60 gtts at 20 drops per minute will deliver what amount in a 30 mins trip to the hospital
10 mL
447
Lidocaine overdose or toxicity
Seizures, Hypotension, Muscle twitching & tremor
448
Lidocaine pediatric dose
1 mg / kg
449
Lidocaine side effect
Hypotension & Bradycardia
450
Lidocaine side effects
Muscle twitching, Seizures
451
Lidocaine Toxicity sign
Seizures
452
Lidocaine, used for all, Except
Bradycardia with PVC's
453
Lidocaine Toxicity
Seizures & Tremors
454
Magnesium Sulfate is used to treat
Calcium Channel Blocker Overdose
455
Main concern with Thrombolytics
Bleed Out
456
Main use of D5W
Medication Administration
457
Maintenance dose of Lidocaine 2 g in 250 mL with 60 gtts/mL admin. Infusion rate
15 gtts/min
458
Major complication of thrombolytic therapy
Bleeding Out
459
Mannitol
Given to Decrease ICP
460
Maximum amount of Crystalloid given to an adult trauma patient
2000 - 3000 ml
461
Med - 1
463
462
Medication for Organophosphate Poisoning
Atropine
463
Mellaril and Thorazine are categories of
Antipsychotic drugs
464
Mild Asthma
Albuterol 2.5 mg
465
Morphine is a
Vasodilator
466
Most common place for IO infusion
Proximal tibia
467
Most desirable fluid replacement for hemorrhagic shock
Lactate Ringers
468
Most severe complication of IV
Air Embolism
469
Muscle for IM
Deltoid
470
Narcan
Reverses respiratory depression of Darvon
471
Narcan give to OD patient, how do they present
Combative, Anxious
472
Narcan is effective in reversing the effects of
Narcotics and opiate based derivatives
473
Narcan is medication for
Opiates
474
Narcan is used to reverse the respiratory depression of
Darvon
475
Narcan used for all overdose listed, Except
Valium
476
Narcan will reverse
Darvon & OD
477
Nor epinephrine causes
Vasoconstriction
478
Nor epinephrine is
Alpha Sympathetic
479
Nor epinephrine is classified as an
Alpha & Beta Stimulator
480
One of the adverse reactions of Isuprel is NOT
Bradycardia
481
One pint of blood
500 cc's
482
Other names for Verapamil
Isoptin & Calan
483
Overdose of Tricyclic causes all, Except
Inverted P - Wave
484
Parasympathetic blocker
Atropine
485
Parental routes of drug administration
SQ, IM, IV, IO, ET
486
Patient has taken 10 mg of valium, but normally needs 20 - 30 mg. What is this called
Tolerance
487
Patient is taking Digoxin is in V -Tach with a pulse, Why does your treatment Not work
Because they are on Digoxin
488
Patient is using diuretics, you can suspect
Hypokalemia
489
Patient shows signs of PE, 2 IV's have been started, next you
Administer .4 mg Nitro
490
Patient with persistent Hypotension
"Dopamine" is in list at "2 mcg / kg / min" "Dobutamine 2 - 20 mcg / kg / min" (?)
491
Person in SVT (shown strip) with WPW you give
Adenosine 6 mg (due to SVT)
492
Positive Inotropic Drug
Increases Heart Contractility
493
Preferred IM site in the field
Gluteus (Buttocks) (chose Deltoid first if given)
494
Preferred site for IM in the field
Deltoid
495
Pregnant with Seizures
5 - 10 mg Diazepam (Valium)
496
Primary buffer system is
Bicarbonate
497
Procainamide is used for the following conditions
Ventricular Dysrhythmias
498
Pulmonary Edema, 1st Drug
0,4 mg NTG
499
Route: Slowest to Fastest
PO, SQ, ET, IV
500
Routes for administration of Valium
Rectally, IV. IM
