2. Aeroplane Performance

Question 1

2.1 What type of engine does your aircraft have? Describe it.

Answer 1

Cessna 152

4-cylinder horizontally opposed

110 rated BHP

233.3 cu. in.

air cooled

Question 2

2.2 What type of fuel and oil does it require?

Answer 2

100LL,100
MLL-L-72851
Ashless dispersant oil

Question 3

2.3 What is the minimum and maximum oil capacity?

Answer 3

Minimum oil: 4 US quarts

Maximum oil: 6 US quarts (standard)

Question 4

2.4 What is the total usable and unusable fuel?

Answer 4

Usable fuel: 24.5 US gallons

Unusable fuel: 1.5 US gallons

Question 5

2.5 Describe (or draw) the fuel system of your aircraft.

Question 6

2.6 Does the aircraft have a fuel pump?

Answer 6

gravity force fed

Question 7

2.7 If the fuel vent became blocked, what could happen?

Answer 7

Fuel starvation could occur. With no fuel, the engine will stop.

Question 8

2.8 What type of fluid does the nose oleo require?

Answer 8

Nose oleo: MIL-H5606 Hydraulic fluid

Question 9

2.9 What are the recommended tire pressures?

Answer 9

Main wheels: 21 psi

Nose wheel: 30 psi

Question 10

2.10 What type of flaps does your aircraft have?

Answer 10

Single slot type

Question 11

2.11 What type of ailerons does your aircraft have?

Answer 11

The Cessna 152 is equipped with differential ailerons
that move through 20 degrees upwards and 15 degrees downwards.
and Frise ailerons

Question 12

2.12 Is your aircraft equipped with an elevator, or a stabilator?

Answer 12

elevator

Question 13

2.13 Does the trim tab move in the same direction as the elevator, the stabilator or the anti-servo tab?

Answer 13

No. It does not move in the same direction as the elevator.
No. It does not move in the same direction as the stabilator.
Yes. It moves in the same direction as the anti-servo tab. (Ex. Diamond Katana)

Question 14

2.14 How does the cockpit heater system work?

Answer 14

A shroud installed around the exhaust muffler allows the air to be warmed before it is channelled into the cockpit.
Note: It is absolutely critical that the exhaust system be free of any defect (ex. perforations); otherwise, deadly carbon monoxide may enter the cockpit.

Question 15

2.15 Of what does the winterization kit usually found on a small aircraft consist? When should it be used?

Answer 15

The winterization kit normally consists of two plates to partially cover the cowl nose cap opening, insulation for the engine crankcase breather line and a few placards.

The equipment should be installed when the temperatures are consistently below -7°C.

Question 16

2.16 What are the minimum/maximum engine temperatures for takeoff?

Answer 16

38 c
119 c
100° – 245°F

Question 17

2.17 What are the maximum load factors for the test aircraft?

Answer 17

• Flaps Up: +4.4g, -1.76g
• Flaps Down: +3.5g

Question 18

2.18 What does “maximum crosswind component” refer to?

Answer 18

The maximum crosswind component is the maximum crosswind for which adequate control of the aircraft has been demonstrated during takeoff and landing as part of the certification process. It is not considered to be limiting.

For Cessna 152 is 12kts

Question 19

2.19 Determine the following for the flight test aircraft:

a. voltage of the electrical system.
b. voltage of the battery.
c. ampere strength of the alternator.
d. ampere hours of the battery.

Answer 19

a. voltage of the electrical system.
28 volt
b. voltage of the battery.
24 volt
c. ampere strength of the alternator.
60 amp
d. ampere hours of the battery.
14 amp hour

Question 20

2.20 How does the ammeter work?

Answer 20

The ammeter indicates the flow of current from the alternator to the battery or from the battery to the airplane electrical system.

Note: The alternator is driven by a belt via the crankshaft. If the belt snaps, the alternator can no longer supply electrical power, so all the electrical power will come from the battery which, no longer being recharged by the alternator, will eventually be empty.

Question 21

2.21 In the event of the ammeter showing a complete deflection to the right (an excessive rate of charge) and the voltage light illuminating, how would you handle this situation in flight?

Answer 21

In the case of the C-152, the POH says that continuous charging of the battery could lead to its overheating. To prevent this, an over-voltage sensor will automatically shut down the alternator. If applying the proper procedures fails to solve the problem, then the flight should be terminated.

Question 22

2.22 If the ammeter was deflected to the left (an insufficient rate of charge) and the voltage light illuminated, how would you handle this situation in flight?

Answer 22

In the case of the C-152, the POH says that the continuous discharge of the battery indicates that the alternator is not supplying power to the system and should be switched off. All non-essential equipment should be turned off and the flight terminated as soon as practical.

Question 23

2.23 How can you determine a high/low, or over-voltage, situation?

Answer 23

The red voltage light may either indicate an overcharging or undercharging situation. The ammeter will indicate which situation actually exists.

Question 24

2.24 In the event of a total electrical failure, how will it affect the magnetos?

Answer 24

It will not affect the magnetos at all. The magnetos run off the crankshaft (engine power). They are independent of the aircraft’s electrical system. (Refer to diagram of the electrical system in the POH.) Therefore, if you turn the master switch off, the magnetos will not be affected, nor will the engine.

Question 25

2.25 Name the pitot-static instruments.

Answer 25

a. vertical speed indicator. b. altimeter. c. airspeed indicator.

Question 26

2.26 Which pitot-static instrument(s) utilize the pitot tube? The static port?

Answer 26

Pitot tube: airspeed indicator. Static port: airspeed indicator, vertical speed indicator and altimeter.

Question 27

2.27 If the pitot tube gets blocked, which instrument(s) will be affected? What about a static port blockage?

Answer 27

Pitot tube blockage: airspeed indicator. Static port blockage: airspeed indicator, altimeter and vertical speed indicator.

Question 28

2.28 How will the airspeed indicator react to pitot tube blockage?

Answer 28

In a climb, the airspeed indicator will over-read and in a descent, it will under-read.

Question 29

2.29 How will the airspeed indicator react to static port blockage?

Answer 29

In a climb, the airspeed indicator will under-read and in a descent, over-read.

Question 30

2.30 How will the altimeter and vertical speed indicator react to a pitot tube blockage? How will they react to a static port blockage?

Answer 30

Pitot tube blockage: not affected because the altimeter and the vertical speed indicator are not connected to the pitot tube. Static port blockage: altimeter will freeze at last reading before blockage because the static pressure is trapped in the instrument; vertical speed indicator will indicate "0" once the static air pressure has equalized in both the capsule and the case of the instrument.

Question 31

2.31 Name the gyroscopic instruments.

Answer 31

a. attitude indicator. b. heading indicator. c. turn coordinator (turn and bank or turn and slip indicator).

Question 32

2.32 How are they powered?

Answer 32

Attitude indicator: vacuum Heading indicator: vacuum Turn coordinator or turn and slip indicator: electrical

Question 33

2.33 How do you know if the information from the gyro instruments is reliable?

Answer 33

a. checking if the suction gauge is "in the green". b. checking that there are no "flags". c. performing an instrument check during taxi.

Question 34

2.34 Name the major sources of error on the heading indicator.

Answer 34

Bearing friction and the earth's rotation are the major sources of error on the heading indicator. Note: If it precesses more than 3 degrees in 15 minutes, it is unreliable.

Question 35

2.35 How often must you reset the heading indicator? Under what conditions can you set it?

Answer 35

The heading indicator should be reset at least once every 15 minutes. It can only be set in straight (wings level), unaccelerated flight; also in stabilized climbs and descents.

Question 36

2.36 Does the turn coordinator indicate the amount of bank?

Answer 36

No. The turn coordinator does not indicate the amount of bank. > Shows rate of turn and roll. > In the example above (far right) the A/C is flying straight with the right wing low. > Needle indicates rate of turn and direction of turn. > Does not show rate of roll info. > Rate of turn = How fast the nose of the A/C is moving across the horizon.

Question 37

2.37 What is the inclinometer? How does it work?

Answer 37

The inclinometer is an instrument used to measure the attitude of an aircraft relative to the horizontal. It is usually made of a curved glass tube, partially filled with a clear liquid and holding a black ball made of glass, steel or agate. The inclinometer works on the principle of gravity

Question 38

2.38 How do you lean the mixture for best economy cruise? For best power?

Answer 38

best power 1:14 best economy 1:15

Question 39

2.39 What is the danger of running the engine too lean?

Answer 39

Running the engine too lean may cause overheating and detonation.

Question 40

2.40 When you apply carburetor heat, why do you get a decrease in performance?

Answer 40

When carburetor heat is applied, hot air is introduced into the mixture. As hot air is less dense than cold air, the fuel to air ratio becomes richer, too rich for best performance. Therefore, when using the carburetor heat for extended periods in cruise flight, it is a good idea to lean the mixture.

Question 41

2.41 How do you determine if carburetor icing is present?

Answer 41

You can determine if carburetor icing is present by applying carburetor heat and watching the indications on the tachometer. RPM drop carb heat on RPM rise and stop carb heat off RPM rise back to original

Question 42

2.42 In flight, you notice a drop in oil pressure and a rise in oil temperature. What can you expect?

Answer 42

A drop in oil pressure coupled with a rise in oil temperature would indicate engine problems and possible imminent engine failure.

Question 43

2.43 During the engine run-up, you discover that the oil pressure gauge is inoperative. Can you depart anyway?

Answer 43

No. The oil pressure gauge is part of the aircraft equipment requirements for day VFR flight.

Question 44

2.44 Quote from memory the following speeds: Vx, Vy, Vs, Vso, Va, best glide.

Answer 44

Vx - 55 Vy - 67 Vs - 40 Vso - 35 Va - 104 best glide - 60

Question 45

2.45 In relation to the best rate of climb speed (Vy) and the best angle of climb speed (Vx), what is the normal climb speed?

Answer 45

The best angle of climb ensures the maximum altitude gain over a given distance; for example, when an obstacle has to be cleared on takeoff. As the angle required to clear the obstacle is greater than normal, the speed at which it can be achieved is quite low (Vx) and is meant to be used for a short time only. The best rate of climb on the other hand ensures the maximum altitude gain in a given period of time. Since this will be executed over a longer distance, the climb angle will be flatter, resulting in a greater airspeed (Vy). However, other factors, such as engine cooling and forward visibility, may dictate that an even flatter climb be performed. The flatter the angle of climb, the higher the corresponding airspeed.

Question 46

Define Vs.

Answer 46

Vs = stall speed. This is the minimum speed at which the aircraft is controllable in steady flight.

Question 47

2.47 What is the designation for the power off stalling speed with flaps up? How is it depicted on the airspeed indicator?

Answer 47

lower limit of the green arc.

Question 48

2.48 How does weight affect the stall speed?

Answer 48

An increase in weight translates into an increase in stall speed.

Question 49

2.49 How does bank affect the stall speed?

Answer 49

The greater the angle of bank, the higher the stall speed.

Question 50

2.50 What is the designation for the power off stalling speed of the aircraft with flaps (and gear if applicable) down? Is it possible to see it on the airspeed indicator?

Answer 50

It is called the VSO. It corresponds to the lower limit of the white arc.

Question 51

2.51 Define Va.

Answer 51

VA= manoeuvring speed. It is the maximum speed at which the airplane will not be overstressed at full deflection of control surfaces.

Question 52

2.52 What happens to Va with an increase in weight?

Answer 52

VA increases with an increase in weight.

Question 53

2.53 Define Vfe. Can you read it on the airspeed indicator?

Answer 53

VFE = maximum flaps extended speed. This is the maximum speed at which the flaps can be lowered. Do not exceed this speed with flaps extended. It corresponds to the upper limit of the white arc. VFE refers to the maximum speed at which any amount of flap can be lowered, not only full flaps.

Question 54

2.54 What is the significance of the yellow arc on the airspeed indicator?

Answer 54

The yellow arc is referred to as the "caution range". It starts at V NO and terminates at VNE. Manoeuvres must be conducted with caution in smooth air only.

Question 55

2.55 What does Vno stand for? How is it indicated on the airspeed indicator?

Answer 55

VNO = maximum structural cruising speed. This is the speed starting at which operations must be conducted with caution and only in smooth air. It corresponds to the lower limit of the yellow arc (the caution speed range).   Note: Since it is impossible to guarantee that turbulence will not be encountered and that air will be smooth, the airplane should not be operated intentionally in this range.

Question 56

2.56 What is the Vno for your test aircraft?

Answer 56

111 kts

Question 57

2.57 Define Vne. Is it indicated on the airspeed indicator?

Answer 57

Never exceeded speed Must never exceeded in any operation

Question 58

2.58 What is the Vne for your test aircraft?

Answer 58

149 kts

Question 59

2.59 What is the precautionary approach speed for your test aircraft?

Answer 59

60 kts flaps 20

Question 60

2.60 What do you call the speed that provides the best lift to drag ratio?

Answer 60

Best glide speed best lift to drag ratio

Question 61

2.61 Using the Takeoff Distance chart provided in the annex (page 126), calculate the total distance to clear a 50 ft obstacle given the following conditions: a. sea level. b. temperature +15°C. c. dry grass runway. d. no wind.

Question 62

2.62 How would an increase in temperature and/or altitude affect the takeoff run?

Answer 62

high temperature = longer take off run increase in field altitude = longer take off run

Question 63

2.63 Using the Cruise Performance chart provided in the annex (page 128), determine the hourly fuel consumption and the true airspeed of the aircraft given the following conditions: a. 2,200 RPM. b. temperature +5°C. c. altitude 5,000 feet. d. no wheel fairings.

Question 64

2.64 Using the same Cruise Performance chart, determine the fuel consumption at 65% power given the following: a. altitude 5,000 feet. b. temperature +15°C.

Question 65

2.65 Using the Landing Distance chart provided in the annex (page 127), calculate the landing distance required given the following conditions: a. temperature +20°C. b. pressure altitude 3,000 feet. c. dry grass runway. d. 4 kt tailwind.

Question 66

2.66 What is the difference between a sideslip and a forward slip?

Answer 66

forward slip = nose point to the wind not the flight path side slip = wing to the wind to counter act the crosswind, nose to the flight path In the sideslip, the longitudinal axis is parallel to the runway. The sideslip is used for crosswind landings. In the forward slip, the longitudinal axis is not parallel to the runway centreline. The forward slip is used to lose altitude without increasing airspeed. It is often used on approach to landing.

Question 67

2.67 In a sideslip, does the airspeed indicator over-read or under-read?

Answer 67

It depends, among other things, on which side of the fuselage the static port is located. Whether the airspeed indicator over-reads or under-reads, it can be dangerous because during the approach, you are closer to the stall speed. For this reason, in performing any sideslip, you should use a slightly higher than normal speed to avoid an inadvertent stall.

Question 68

2.68 When executing a short field landing, why do you retract the flaps during the ground roll?

Answer 68

When retracting the flaps, you are changing the camber of the wing. As a result, less lift is produced, so more weight will be transferred to the wheels for maximum braking effectiveness and less chance of skidding.

Question 69

2.69 In a climbing turn, which wing should stall first?

Answer 69

higher wing stall first as higher AOA

Question 70

2.70 In a descending turn, which wing will stall first?

Answer 70

in a descending, turning stall the inside or down wing will stall first. It is traveling slightly slower through the air and reaches its critical angle of attack before the up wing, leading to a spin in the direction of the turn.

Question 71

2.71 In a level turn, which wing should stall first?

Answer 71

The inside wing stalls first because it is generates less lift (at the same AoA) as a result of moving slower then the outside wing.

Question 72

2.72 Why is aileron not used to control a wing drop when a stall is imminent?

Answer 72

When stall, the ailerons start losing their effectiveness. using aileron will elevate the stall. Since both wings will not be stalled equally, any further use of aileron will make it worst. You must use the rudder, but remember that it is also not very effective at such low speeds.

Question 73

2.73 How do you recover from a spin?

Answer 73

power idle opposite rudder to stop the rotation rotation stop, neutral rudder ease out of dive back to cruise

Question 74

2.74 Can you spin the aircraft if it is in the normal category?

Answer 74

no

Question 75

2.75 Why is it dangerous to have the flaps down during a spin?

Answer 75

Flaps tend to induce flatter spins and, during recovery, V FE (maximum flap extended speed) will be exceeded by a wide margin. Also, flaps might reduce the effectiveness of the tail section, notably the rudder, due to deflected airflow

Question 76

2.76 According to the POH, at what altitude must recovery from a spin be completed?

Answer 76

In Canada 2000 AGL In USA 1500 AGL

Question 77

2.77 How do you recover from a spiral dive? What is the main difference between a spin and a spiral dive?

Answer 77

spiral dive - power idle - roll wings level - ease out of dive - wait for airspeed back down - back to cruise

Question 78

2.78 What would you do if you had an engine fire during start-up?

Answer 78

DURING START ON GROUND 1. Cranking – CONTINUE, to get a start which would suck the flames and accumulated fuel through the carburetor and into the engine. If engine starts: 2. Power – 1700 RPM for a few minutes. 3. Engine – SHUTDOWN and inspect for damage. If engine fails to start: 1. Cranking – CONTINUE in an effort to obtain a start. 2. Fire Extinguisher – OBTAIN (have ground attendants obtain if not installed). 3. Engine – SECURE. a. Master Switch – OFF. b. Ignition Switch – OFF. c. Fuel Shutoff Valve – OFF. 4. Fire – EXTINGUISH using fire extinguisher, wool blanket, or dirt. 5. Fire Damage – INSPECT, repair damage or replace damaged components or wiring before conducting another flight.

Question 79

2.79 What would you do if you had an engine fire during flight?

Answer 79

ENGINE FIRE IN FLIGHT 1. Mixture – IDLE CUT-OFF. 2. Fuel Shutoff Valve – OFF. 3. Master Switch – OFF. 4. Cabin Heat and Air – OFF (except wing root vents). 5. Airspeed – 85 KIAS (If fire is not extinguished, increase glide speed to find an airspeed which will provide an incombustible mixture). 6. Forced Landing – EXECUTE (as described in Emergency Landing Without Engine Power).

Question 80

2.80 What would you do in the case of an electrical fire during flight?

Answer 80

ELECTRICAL FIRE IN FLIGHT 1. Master Switch – OFF. 2. All Other Switches (except ignition switch) – OFF. 3. Vents/Cabin Air/Heat – CLOSED. 4. Fire Extinguisher – ACTIVATE (if available). WARNING After discharging an extinguisher within a closed cabin, ventilate the cabin. If fire appears out and electrical power is necessary for continuance of flight: 5. Master Switch – ON. 6. Circuit Breakers – CHECK for faulty circuit, do not reset. 7. Radio/Electrical Switches – ON one at a time, with delay after each until short circuit is localized. 8. Vents/Cabin Air/Heat – OPEN when it is ascertained that fire is completely extinguished.

Question 81

2.81 What would you do if you had a cabin fire during flight?

Answer 81

CABIN FIRE 1. Master Switch – OFF. 2. Vents/Cabin Air/Heat – CLOSED (to avoid drafts). 3. Fire Extinguisher – ACTIVATE (if available) WARNING After discharging an extinguisher within a closed cabin, ventilate the cabin. 4. Land the airplane as soon as possible to inspect for damage.

Question 82

2.82 What would you do if you had a wing fire during flight?

Answer 82

WING FIRE 1. Navigation Light Switch – OFF. 2. Strobe Light Switch (if installed) – OFF. 3. Pitot Heat Switch (if installed) – OFF. NOTE Perform a side slip to keep the flames away from the fuel tank and cabin, and land as soon as possible, with flaps retracted.

Question 83

2.83 What would you do should you experience an engine failure during the takeoff roll?

Answer 83

ENGINE FAILURE DURING TAKEOFF RUN 1. Throttle – IDLE. 2. Brakes – APPLY. 3. Wing Flaps – RETRACT. 4. Mixture – IDLE CUT-OFF. 5. Ignition Switch – OFF. 6. Master Switch – OFF.

Question 84

2.84 What would you do should you experience an engine failure just after takeoff?

Answer 84

ENGINE FAILURE IMMEDIATELY AFTER TAKEOFF 1. Airspeed – 60 KIAS. 2. Mixture – IDLE CUT-OFF. 3. Fuel Shutoff Valve – OFF. 4. Ignition Switch – OFF. 5. Wing Flaps – AS REQUIRED. 6. Master Switch – OFF.

Question 85

2.85 What would you do if you had a total communication failure in flight?

Answer 85

Switch off/ on again pull out/ in your headset again check alternator if still charging (slow discharge of batter can cause radio gradually fail) while operating in Class B, C or D airspace, the pilot-in-command shall:   a. leave the airspace (either by the shortest route or by landing at the aerodrome for which the control zone has been established). b. set the transponder to code 7600 (if so equipped). c. inform ATC of actions taken as soon as possible. If you start squawking 7600 near a tower controlled airfield, start circling outside the airspace and wait for light gun signals from ATC

Question 86

2.86 What would you do if you inadvertently flew into icing conditions?

Answer 86

INADVERTENT ICING ENCOUNTER 1. Turn pitot heat switch ON (if installed). 2. Turn back or change altitude to obtain an outside air temperature that is less conducive to icing. 3. Pull cabin heat control full out to obtain maximum defroster air temperature. For greater air flow at reduced temperatures, adjust the cabin air control as required. 4. Open the throttle to increase engine speed and minimize ice build-up on propeller blades. 5. Watch for signs of carburetor air filter ice and apply carburetor heat as required. An unexpected loss in engine speed could be caused by carburetor ice or air intake filter ice. Lean the mixture for maximum RPM, if carburetor heat is used continuously. 6. Plan a landing at the nearest airport. With an extremely rapid ice build-up, select a suitable “off airport” landing site. 7. With an ice accumulation of 1/4 inch or more on the wing leading edges, be prepared for significantly higher stall speed. 8. Leave wing flaps retracted. With a severe ice build-up on the horizontal tail, the change in wing wake airflow direction caused by wing flap extension could result in a loss of elevator effectiveness. 9. Open left window and, if practical, scrape ice from a portion of the windshield for visibility in the landing approach. 10. Perform a landing approach using a forward slip, if necessary, for improved visibility. 11. Approach at 65 to 75 KIAS depending upon the amount of ice accumulation. 12. Perform a landing in level attitude.