2014 Study Material Flashcards
(663 cards)
1
Q
Collision reports (Should/Shall) normally be available to the public within eight working days?
A
Shall
2
Q
The following collision may be documented as a report: a motor vehicle non-traffic collision, as defined, which involved an injury? (True/False)
A
True
A collision may be documented as a REPORT when one or more of the following conditions apply:
A. A motor vehicle non-traffic collision, as defined, which involved an injury.
B. Area commanders should establish Area Standard Operating Procedure providing for the documentation of a collision using the report format in which the only injury or injuries involve “Complaint of Pain” claim(s) provided the party(s) exhibits no visible physical injuries, refuses medical treatment at the scene, and is not transported to a medical facility.
C. A collision involves damage to private property and the driver is unable to notify the property owner in compliance with CVC Section 20002, but notifies this Department without unnecessary delay.
D. A collision involves property damage only (includes vehicle fire and tow-away) or an officer witnesses the collision causing violation and issues a citation at the scene of a property damage only collision.
E. A collision involves a late-reported injury as defined.
F. A citizen insists a collision be documented which is not otherwise included within the categories of an INVESTIGATION or a REPORT, such as a private property collision involving property damage only.
3
Q
. Per the CIM, a fatal injury is death as a result of injuries sustained in a collision, or an injury resulting in death within __ days of the collision?
A. 15 Days
B. 7 Days
C. 30 Days
D. 3 Days
A
30 days
4
Q
- A roadblock was setup to stop a suspect. The suspect collided into it unintentionally. Is this a motor vehicle collision or legal intervention?
A
Legal Intervention
Legal Intervention:
A. A roadblock was set up to stop a suspect. The suspect collided into it, either intentionally or unintentionally.
B. A police officer intentionally caused his/her vehicle to collide with a
pursued vehicle in an attempt to terminate the pursuit.
C. A police officer fired bullets into a moving suspect vehicle. The driver
subsequently lost control and collided into another vehicle or object.
Motor Vehicle Collision:
A. A driver other than the intended suspect unintentionally collided into a
roadblock.
B. A suspect, while eluding the police, lost control of his/her vehicle and
collided into another vehicle.
C. While pursuing a suspect, a police officer lost control of his/her vehicle
and collided into another vehicle, or object.
D. While in pursuit of a violator, a police officer unintentionally collided with
the suspect’s vehicle.
5
Q
a driver other than the intended suspect unintentionally collided into the roadblock. Is this a motor vehicle collision or legal intervention?
A
Motor Vehicle Collision
6
Q
A person falls from a motor vehicle and dies during a parade, on a designated parade route, within an unincorporated area. Is this a motor vehicle non-traffic collision? (Yes/No)
A
No
This includes collisions involving a motor vehicle in-transport occurring off-highway on public or private property.
B. Off-highway collisions not involving a motor vehicle in-transport and events
such as airplane crashes on highways or train accidents that do not meet the
definition of a motor vehicle collision are the responsibility of the sheriff, police
department, coroner, Workers’ Compensation Appeals Board, or appropriate
federal authority.
C. Excludes:
1. Property damage, personal injury, or death resulting from an organized racetrack or drag strip competition event.
- Property damage, personal injury, or death resulting from an activity on a designated parade route.
- Property damage, personal injury, or death sustained during an actual
agricultural operation. - Property damage, personal injury, or death resulting from operation of a
forklift vehicle within an industrial plant or other building. - Property damage, personal injury, or death sustained during a sanctioned bicycle race on the authorized closed course. The closed course must involve an actual highway closure.
7
Q
A person overturns a forklift in an industrial plant within an unincorporated area and receives major injuries. Is this a motor vehicle non-traffic collision? (Yes/No)
A
NO
8
Q
. A person is accidentally poisoned from carbon monoxide generated by a motor vehicle in-transport on a highway and dies. Is this a motor vehicle traffic collision? (Yes/No)
A
YES
A motor vehicle in-transport that set an object in motion without the motor vehicle itself doing the actual striking. For example: The vehicle’s load or parts fell from the motor vehicle and the load or parts were struck by another motor vehicle.
- A motor vehicle in-transport involved in a non-collision event. For
example: Accidental poisoning from carbon monoxide generated by a motor vehicle; injury or damage sustained from a motor vehicle fire; occupants falling from a motor vehicle; occupants jumping from a motor vehicle prior to an imminent collision; damage only to a truck that jackknifes; damage to pushed or towed vehicles that collide with one another; or injury to an occupant of a motor vehicle due to the motion of the vehicle. - A school bus transporting students struck a bump in the roadway causing a student to strike his/her face on a seat, injuring the student
9
Q
. A school bus collision with pupils on board which occurs entirely on private property resulting in property damage only and where no applicable CVC violation has occurred need not be documented. (True/False)
A
True
SCHOOL BUS COLLISION: A motor vehicle collision that results in personal injury
or property damage anywhere in California involving one of the following vehicles:
A. School bus, as defined, while transporting any school pupil at or below the 12th grade level to or from a public or private school or to or from school activities.
B. Youth bus, as defined, when actually carrying children at or below the 12th grade level directly from a public or private school to an organized non-school related youth activity within 25 miles of the school.
C. School pupil activity bus (SPAB), as defined, when actually carrying school pupils at or below the 12th grade level to or from public or private school activity, or to residential schools.
D. General public paratransit vehicle (GPPV), as defined, when actually carrying pupils at or below 12th grade level to or from a public or private school or school activity.
All collisions that meet the definition of a school bus collision shall be documented as an INVESTIGATION. When a collision does not meet the definition of a school bus collision, the collision may be documented as a report.
A school bus collision with pupils on board which occurs entirely on private property resulting in property damage only and where no applicable CVC violation has occurred need not be documented.
A collision involving a school bus, youth bus, SPAB, or GPPV, that occurs
within city limits and no pupils were on board at the time of the collision, does not
meet the definition of a school bus collision and investigative responsibility rests
with the local law enforcement agency.
Injuries sustained to pupils while boarding or alighting from a stopped school
bus, youth bus, SPAB, or GPPV, are not considered motor vehicle traffic collisions.
10
Q
Injuries sustained to pupils while boarding or alighting from a stopped school
bus, youth bus, SPAB, or GPPV, are not considered motor vehicle traffic collisions. (True/False)
A
True
11
Q
In the event a single vehicle collision occurs exactly on a boundary line between two jurisdictions or districts, the collision should be reported by the jurisdiction or district from which the vehicle was traveling? (True/False)
A
True
12
Q
CHP officers shall use which form to advise victims of violent crime of certain entitlements?
A
CHP 170, Notice to Victims of Violent Crimes
13
Q
A reference such as “Refer to Collision Report” may be made in the Arrest-Investigation Report, however, there should be no reference to the arrest report in the collision narrative. (True/False)
A
True
14
Q
. The CHP should use the CHP 555-03 only when an involved party comes into the CHP office to fill out a report and the collision involves what conditions?
A
The California Highway Patrol (CHP) should use the CHP 555-03 only when an
involved party comes into the CHP office to fill out a report and the collision involves:
A. One or two parties,
B. No injuries or fatalities, and
C. No anticipated prosecution, or
D. Non-injury hit-and-run collisions where prosecution is not anticipated or no
follow-up information is available.
The CHP shall use the CHP 555-03 to document all counter reports.
15
Q
A CHP 418, or CHP 418A as applicable, (Should/Shall) be made available to each party of interest at a collision scene.
A
Shall
16
Q
Under what circumstances may a supervisor correct an original traffic collision investigation/report, and how are the corrections to be made?
A
B. When the officer is unavailable, a supervisor or a member designated by
the commander may make corrections. Changes may be made by drawing a
line through the incorrect word(s) or figure(s). Enter the correct information
directly over the information lined out, followed by the initials of the individual
making the correction and the date.
17
Q
A preliminary investigation shall be submitted when the traffic collision report cannot be completed within the __ day limit?
10
5
15
3
A
15
18
Q
- What types of traffic collisions (at a minimum) shall be initially reviewed by a supervisor?
A
Sergeant and Officer-In-Charge
A. Shall ensure a CHP 553 is attached to each traffic collision investigation or report.
B. Shall ensure at a minimum, all major injury and fatal traffic collisions are
initially reviewed by a supervisor.
C. Shall comment, as necessary/appropriate, then initial the CHP 553, when returning the report to the investigating officer.
19
Q
The sergeant or OIC shall initial the CHP 553 when the investigation/report is returned to the investigating officer for correction. (True/False)
A
True
20
Q
not a question: Train Vs. Vehicle explanation
A
A train is not a motor vehicle by definition for the purposes of collision reporting. Therefore, a train vs. vehicle collision is only reported if the collision involves a motor vehicle in-transport. A train vs. pedestrian collision is not documented on a CHP 555.
21
Q
- CAHP Representative _________ have access to employees to represent them in all matters relating to the administration of the MOU
A. May
B. Should
C. Shall
D. Shall Not
A
C. Shall
22
Q
Upon the request by an employee, a CAHP Representative or employee shall be allowed ___ hours of release time to assist the requesting employee in arbitration.
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
A
D. 4
23
Q
3. How many levels are there in the Grievance Process? A. 4 B. 5 C. 6 D. 7
A
B. 5 Informal Level (Immediate Supervisor), Level 1 - Area Command, Level 2 - Division, Level 3 - Commissioner, Level 4 - Director of Cal HR
24
Q
5. How many levels are there in the Citizen's Complaint Process? HPM 10.4 A. 4 B. 5 C. 6 D. 7
A
A. 4
Acceptance, Investigation, Processing, Closing
25
6. “Minor Discipline” refers to:
A. A suspension without pay for five days or less
B. A pay reduction that is 5 percent or less and lasts no more than 5 months
C. A forced relocation
D. A or B
E. ALL the above
D. A or B
A. A suspension without pay for five days or less
B. A pay reduction that is 5 percent or less and lasts no more than 5 months
26
```
7. Officers certified bilingual and who are assigned to a command with a demonstrated need, shall receive an additional _____ per month.
A. 2 ½ percent
B. 5 percent
C. $50
D. $100
E. $250
```
D. $100
27
```
8. Motorcycle officers in categories 1 or 2 shall receive an additional _____ per month.
A. 2 ½ percent
B. 3 percent
C. 4 percent
D. $100
E. $250
```
C. 4 percent
28
9. Once the IDR process is initiated as the avenue for disputing items, an employee shall not file a grievance or a complaint on the same matter.
A. True
B. False
A. True
29
```
10. The employee’s CTO balance shall not exceed ________ hours.
A. 480
B. 516
C. 736
D. 816
```
A. 480
30
1. All commands ________ develop a written command-specific EOP to provide for the effective use of CHP resources in response to emergency incidents which may affect the command. (1-4)
1. Shall - All employees are required to review their command-specific EOP annually.
31
2. In order to maintain readiness and test the effectiveness of their emergency plans, all field commands _____ conduct or participate in at least two emergency preparedness exercises annually. 50.1 1-5
Shall
32
3. ________ will be the statewide coordination point for departmental resource commitments to major disasters. (50.1 1-8)
CHP Headquarters, ENTAC - California Highway Patrol Headquarters, Emergency Notification and
Tactical Alert Center (ENTAC) will function as the Department’s statewide Department Operations Center (DOC) for departmental resource commitments to major disasters.
33
4. Actions taken and tasks assigned in response to emergency incidents will comply with what three (3) priorities: (3-17)
Life-Safety efforts, Incident Stabilization, Property Conservation efforts
Life Safety: Determine if life is at immediate risk, this includes responders and the public.
Incident Stabilization: What should be done to keep the situation from becoming worse?
Property Conservation: What can be done to protect or minimize damage to public and private property? Are there any environmental issues that need to be addressed? For example, will a hazardous materials spill affect a nearby lake or stream? Is there a toxic plume that
requires evacuation?
34
5. Division and Area EOPs ______ be considered "living" documents that are subject to continuous review, evaluation, and revision. Commanders ______ establish procedures for all employees to review and receive annual training on their Command's EOP.
Shall/ shall
35
6. Area EOPs _______be submitted for review in accordance with the direction of the respective Division Chief.
Shall
36
7.________ are responsible for emergency incident planning and overall coordination of emergency incident activities occurring at all locations within their Areas where the Department has primary investigative authority. (3-2)
Sergeants
Commissioners
Area Commanders
Academy Personnel
Area commanders
37
8. A supervisor/manager ________ respond to emergency incidents, including crime scenes, not within the investigative authority of the Department, but which occur on or adjacent to freeways and highways and significantly impact traffic management within the Department's jurisdiction.
1. shall
38
9. The CHP on-scene ________ shall ensure that assisting agencies are properly and promptly integrated into the ICS operation.
Incident Commander
Fire Captain
Officer
Dispatcher
incident commander (IC)
39
10. The dispatch of, or request for, necessary emergency resources (personnel and equipment) ________ be delayed for the purpose of verifying the actual need for emergency services. (3-4)
1. shall not
40
11. ICS responsibilities must continue until all emergency operations at the scene have been terminated, and Order has been restored. True/False?
True
41
12. (True/False) For small incidents of short duration, an action plan need not be elaborate or written. (3-10)
1. True
42
13._______ are primarily used for scheduled or anticipated events requiring the non-routine deployment of personnel. (3-20)
Manuals
Schedules
Operations Plans
None of the Above
1. Operational Plans
43
14. Mobile or portable radio transmitters and/or cellular telephones ________be operated within 300 feet of a bomb search or suspected explosive device. (4-2)
Shall
Should
Shall Not
Should Not
1. shall not
44
15. IED related - Personnel shall not conduct _______ of vehicles or state-owned, highway-related structures. (50.1 4-40)
Entry Searches
Inspections
Inventories
1. Entry searches - An entry search is the accessing of any closed space. This includes opening closed containers, locked closets, cabinets, desk drawers,
lockers, vehicle doors, glove boxes, hoods, trunks, and commercial carrier luggage compartments. Instructors and search team members shall not conduct entry
searches. Contact the CHP Hazardous Device Detail (HDD) or local Explosive Ordnance Disposal unit to conduct an entry search.
2) Searches conducted by CHP personnel shall be limited to visual and facility searches only. Personnel shall not conduct entry searches of departmental facilities, vehicles, or state-owned highway-related structures.
45
16. IED Related - Searches shall be conducted with a search team consisting of _____ regardless of the threat. (50.1 4-40)
one Officer
at least 2 individuals
at least 4 individuals
any amount of individuals
1. at least two individuals - Searches shall be conducted with a search team consisting of at least two individuals regardless of the threat.
46
17. Commanders _______ ensure an employee evacuation alarm system is installed in their facility to comply with Title 8, Article 165, CCR and _______ ensure evacuation drills be performed annually at their facility. (5-3)
1. shall / should
47
18. Commanders shall establish a process for annual review of the plan by each employee. This review shall be documented on a _______ (5-4)
CHP 112
CHP 702
CHP 712
STD 99
1. CHP 712, Employee Emergency Action Plan Review
48
19. Within 30 calendar days of the conclusion of a localized emergency operation, what documentation shall be submitted to the appropriate field division commander with copies forwarded to the Office of Assistant Commissioner, Field and EOS? (7-10)
Investigation Report
After-Action Memorandum
Emergency Action Plan
1. After-Action Memorandum
49
20. At the conclusion of a tactical alert an after action report is to be completed and submitted to the Office of Assistant Commissioner, Field and a copy forwarded to EOS, within _______ . (7-11)
20 Days
30 Calendar Days
60 Calendar Days
45 Business Days
1. 60 calendar days
50
1. The mission of the SSP (Safety Services Program) is to provide for the protection of life and property through the delivery of law enforcement services to state government?
True / False
True. To provide for the protection of life and property through the delivery of law enforcement services to state government.
(HPM 100.70 Pg. 1-3)
51
2. If an allied law enforcement agency cannot or will not respond to a crime on state property, the CHP ____ respond and handle the investigation to its conclusion.
a. Will
b. Shall
c. Should not
d. Will not
a. Will
| HPM 100.70 Pg. 1-3
52
3. What are Reimbursable Service Agreements?
a. Agreements between private and public entities who are working for the state
b. Agreements in which the contracting state agency reimburses the CHP for law enforcement or security services provided at a specific location while the contracting agency conducts state-related business
c. Agreements in which private companies are conducting state business and require approval from SSP and division chiefs
d. Agreements between CHP and state agencies to provide security and transportation
b. Agreements in which the contracting state agency reimburses the CHP for law enforcement or security services provided at a specific location while the contracting agency conducts state-related business
(HPM 100.70 Pg. 1-5)
53
4. The CHP has jurisdiction over those matters related to the security of state employees, property, and occupants of state property.
True or False
True
| HPM 100.70 Pg. 2-3
54
5. If a road patrol officer needs help on an investigation, what is the Supervisor’s role?
a. Supervisors take incident command and complete the investigation
b. Supervisors call division to complete investigations
c. Supervisors may request, through their Area commander, assistance from investigators assigned to Division to complete investigations requiring specialized skills.
d. Supervisors may step in as lead investigator until relieved by someone in the chain of command
c. Supervisors may request, through their Area commander, assistance from investigators assigned to Division to complete investigations requiring specialized skills.
(HPM 100.70 Pg. 2-3
55
6. In instances where no immediate threat exists to the safety of state employees, property, or occupants of a state property and the CHP determines a response is not necessary, the on-duty supervisor shall advise the client agency to complete what form?
a. STD 99
b. CHP 99
c. STD 9
d. CHP 9
a. STD. 99, Report of Crime/Incident on State Property.
| HPM 100.70 Pg. 2-3
56
7. When a local law enforcement agency is unable or unwilling to provide requested services as outlined in an MOU, CHP ____ handle these incidents to conclusion.
a. Shall
b. Should
c. May
d. Should not
a. Shall
| HPM 100.70 Pg. 2-4
57
8. The CHP Area commanders or their designees ____ periodically meet with local law enforcement agencies to discuss law enforcement response to state facilities.
a. Shall
b. Should
c. May
d. Should not
a. Shall
| HPM 100.70 Pg. 2-5
58
9. When specialized skills are needed to effectively complete a criminal investigation, supervisors ___ request assistance from Division investigators possessing the desired skills. Supervisors ___ also request assistance from local law enforcement agencies consistent with established MOUs and Area SOPs.
a. Shall & Shall
b. Should & Should
c. May & May
d. Should & May
c. May and May
| HPM 100.70 Pg. 2-6
59
10. California Highway Patrol personnel _____document all crimes, miscellaneous law enforcement related incidents, or services provided on state- owned or state-leased property for statistical record keeping purposes.
a. Shall
b. Should
c. May
a. Shall
| HPM 100.70 Pg. 3-3
60
11. Completed STD. 99 forms shall be retained at the Area or Division level for a period of ___ years from the date of the report.
a. 2
b. 4
c. 5
d. 3
a. 2
| HPM 100.70 Pg. 3-4
61
12. The ______database was developed to collect statistical data to capture information for the State Legislature. The database was designed to produce additional reports that, when requested, may be useful to the CHP and the state agencies it serves.
a. NCAS
b. SCARS
c. SCAS
d. NCES
b. SCARS
(HPM 100.70 Pg. 3-5)
division and/or area shall sign a uniformed or nonuniformed SCARS data entry person. they are responsible for entering information contained dint he STD 99 for crimes occurring within their geographic region.
ALL STD 99 info shall be entered into the SCARS database within 10 days following receipt of the STD 99
SCARS database will be managed by Protective Services Division, Emergency operations and safety services (EOSS) section.
62
13. State agencies are requested to forward a completed STD. 99 to the CHP Area office with jurisdiction where the crime/incident occurred within ____ business days of the date of the incident.
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 7
b. 10
| HPM 100.70 Pg 3-5
63
14. Sergeants ____ complete a CHP 112, Management Summary, for each calendar-month worked. The forms shall reflect relevant daily activity totals and activity comment entries.
a. Shall
b. Should
c. May
d. Should not
a. Shall
| HPM 100.70 Pg. 4-1
64
15. SSP activity time may be documented in the Activity time summary section A through Z
True or False
False
Do not record any SSP activity time in this section. (HPM 100.70 Pg. 4-1)
700 series beat codes have been designated for SSP activities
Duty code 91 shall e used to report overtime accumulated while personnel are performing any sip actvity
65
16. Beat code 700 ______ be used by all officers and sergeants to report all reimbursable hours worked (both regular or overtime) when assigned to an SSP contract activity.
a. Shall
b. Should
c. May
d. Should not
a. Shall
| HPM 100.70 Pg. 4-1
66
17. Supervisors ______ consider and prioritize requests for service at the appropriate level and assign officers as resources allow in SSP related incidents.
a. Shall
b. Should
c. May
d. Should not
b. Should
| HPM 100.70 Pg. 5-1
67
18. Supervisors will ensure the appropriate level of response to requests for service by evaluating the potential consequences of the situation. Supervisors should consider and prioritize patrol services and requests for service at the appropriate level, and
assign officers as resources allow.
True or False
True
| HPM 100.70 Pg. 5-2
68
19. Supervisors _____ monitor levels of response for service and emergency calls from state government agencies to ensure the response is appropriate and consistent with local MOUs and SOPs.
a. Shall
b. Should
c. May
d. Should not
b. Should
| HPM 100.70 Pg. 5-2
69
20. Supervisors ______ encourage officers to accept new responsibilities on beats which have been identified as requiring knowledge of general law enforcement techniques.
a. Shall
b. Should
c. May
d. Should not
b. Should
| HPM 100.70 Pg. 5-2
70
1. The (rank) within the Office of Community Outreach and Recruitment is in charge of the general coordination of the statewide Recruitment Program.
a. Sergeant
b. Officer
c. Lieutenant
d. Captain
a. Sergeant
| HPM 70.16 Ch 1-4
71
2. Under the ADA, persons addicted to drugs, but who are no longer using drugs illegally and are receiving treatment for drug (are/are not) protected by the ADA from discrimination on the basis of past drug addiction.
Are
| HPM 70.16 Ch. 6-4
72
3. What are the eight phases to the Cadet selection process?
1) Application Prescreening
2) Written Examination
3) Physical Ability Test
4) Visual Acuity/Color Vision Tests
5) Qualifications Appraisal Panel Interview
6) Applicant Investigation
7) Medical Evaluation
8) Psychological Written Examination
HPM 70.16 Ch. 9
73
4. Recruitment for nonuniformed classifications is coordinated through what headquarter’s Division? What Section within that Division?
Special Relations Section
Management Selection and Recruitment
Selections and Recruitment Section
Personnel Management Division / Selection Standards and Examinations Section (SSES)
Personnel Management Division / Selection Standards and Examinations Section (SSES)
HPM 70.16 Ch 10-3
74
5. The Department maintains a Cadet Candidate Mentoring Program. Officers who volunteer to be a mentor are to record time spent mentoring a candidate on the CHP 415, Daily Field Record. True or False?
Beat Code?
a. 714
b. 811
c. 901
d. 849
True, use beat code 811
| HPM 70.16 Ch. 12-6
75
6. Approximately how many hours per month should the Area Commander consider sufficient time for mentor officers to conduct mentoring contacts with candidates?
a. 4 hours per quarter
b. 4 hours per month
c. 8 hours per month
d. 8 hours per quarter
b. 4 hours per month
| HPM 70.16, Ch 12-5
76
7. (rank/s) may qualify for 40 hours of recruitment time off (RTO) when mentoring cadets who successfully graduate from the Academy. Who maintains the list of cadet candidates and their mentors to verify RTO?
a. Officers only / The officers
b. Officers and Sergeants / The officers
c. Officers and Sergeants / Filed Division Recruitment Coordinators
d. Officers only / Field Division Recruitment Coordinators
c. Officers and Sergeants / Field Division Recruitment Coordinators
HPM 70.16, Ch. 12-7 and 8
77
8. Who has the responsibility to select ride-along officers when a cadet candidate requests a ride-along?
a. Shift Sergeant
b. Training Sergeant
c. Field Lieutenant
d. Area Commander
d. Area Commanders
| HPM 70.16 Ch. 13-3
78
9. CLETS may be accessed to obtain a criminal history check of any individual approved by the department to ride along on patrol duty with an officer. True or False?
False, all aspects of CLETS may be queried on ride-along participants, but the department does not permit a criminal history check on individuals already in the application process.
HPM 70.16 Ch. 13-4
79
10. An Area approves a ride-along for a 22 year old male. A CLETS check shows a history of reckless driving and multiple speed violations. After the ride-along, the male decides to apply for Cadet. What shall the Area do with the printed CLETS information?
a. Forward the CLETS printout to the candidates background investigator to assist with the background process.
b. The CLETS printout shall be destroyed, but the candidates background investigator should be advised of the violations
c. The CLETS printout shall be destroyed immediately, shall not follow the candidate, and shall not be forwarded to the applicant’s background investigator, mentor, or recruiter.
d. The CLETS printout should be destroyed immediately, shall not follow the candidate, and shall be forwarded to the applicant’s background investigator, mentor, or recruiter.
c. The CLETS printout shall be destroyed immediately, shall not follow the candidate, and shall not be forwarded to the applicant’s background investigator, mentor, or recruiter.
HPM 70.16 Ch 13-4
80
Question 1: Lawfully observing growing marijuana in a private, fenced backyard does or does not give you the right to go seize it without a warrant, exigent circumstances, or consent.
Answer: Does Not (Section II – B)
81
Question 2: Is the following scenario lawful or not: Officer who was trying to locate resident stood on the public side of a side yard gate and raised himself three inches on his tip toes to look over six-foot fence. His observation of a cocked revolver in the side yard did not amount to a search. Suspecting that the resident was home (warm car hood and light on in garage) and knowing that a seven-year-old child lived there, the officer lawfully jumped over the fence to retrieve the gun based on exigent circumstances.
Answer: His observations and the entry to seize the revolver were lawful. Section III
82
Question 3: In the following scenario may the police seize the pipes? Police, while arresting a suspect at the door to his hotel room pursuant to two arrest warrants, observed in plain view two glass cocaine pipes inside the room.
Answer: The officers were entitled to seize the pipes. However, even though the pipes provided probable cause that there were more narcotics or paraphernalia inside the room, a search warrant was needed before the officers could lawfully search the room. Section III - A
83
Question 4: Were the officer’s actions legal in the following scenario? Neighbors reported that they had not seen the victim for two weeks, and officers had received two calls expressing concern for the victim. One month earlier they had responded to a domestic disturbance reported at the victim's apartment. No one had responded to a note from the police asking the victim to call, there was mail in her mailbox, and officers found the front door unlocked after receiving a neighbor's report that someone had been banging on the door.
Answer: Warrantless entries may be appropriate when police are looking for an occupant "reliably reported as missing." The officers lawfully entered the apartment based on the totality of the circumstances indicating an emergency situation. Section IV- A - 2
84
Question 5: May the officers force a warrantless entry in the following scenario? Officer responded to ADW call and found an infant brutally cut and injured. Reliable information indicated the assailant was drunk and had gone home, where he lived with his own young son. After discovering a trail of fresh blood and broken glass at the residence, knocking and announcing at the front and back doors, and observing the lights go out in response.
Answer: Yes, the officer could legally force a warrantless entry based on concern for the son. Section IV – A - 2
85
Question 6: May officers enter a residence to arrest a misdemeanor DUI suspect who had immediately gone inside after driving and appeared uncooperative in that he attempted to evade contact with the officers who could see and hear him inside the residence and attempted to flee through the back door.
Answer: Yes, under specific circumstances. NOTE: The California Supreme Court specifically declined to approve warrantless entries for the apprehension of all misdemeanor DUI suspects. Section IV - D
86
Question 7: Was the officer’s search proper in the following scenario? An officer responded to a report of "shots fired" at Apartment 5 of an apartment complex. The officer saw blood leading from the door of Apartment 5 to the laundry room where he discovered the dead victim. A little later, other officers responded and began a search for evidence that might lead to immediate apprehension of the murderer. The officers found contraband and a vehicle registration slip in the name of M. Amaya, Jr.
Answer: The search was proper and the evidence was admissible. Section IV - F - 1
87
Question 8: In the following scenario, must the officers knock and notice before they entered the bedroom door? Officers executing a search warrant at a residence one morning knocked, announced repeatedly, and were "refused" admittance by the lack of any response within a reasonable period of time even though a woman at the front window had seen them approaching. They opened the unlocked front door, found the woman and detained her in one room, and continued down the hallway to a closed bedroom door. There they knocked, stated "Police, search warrant," and simultaneously opened the door and entered, without waiting for any "refusal."
Answer: "Having fully complied with section 1531 at the outer door, the officers were under no constitutional or statutory obligation to repeat the knock-notice litany once inside." Section V – C - 2
88
Question 9: Why should you ALWAYS ask for consent to search even when you have other authority for the search?
Answer: In case the other grounds for the search (e.g., exigency or warrant) are later ruled insufficient. See examples below:
Example: A homeowner calls in to report a burglary. After entry of the victim's home, the officers "sense" that the victim may be dealing in narcotics. The officers request and obtain permission to search anywhere in the house. They discover crime-related evidence, which will be admissible on the independent ground of consent. Section VI – A - 1
Example: Officers serve a search warrant and find a lot of evidence. Later, the warrant is ruled defective and all of the evidence is suppressed. A simple request for consent to search prior to showing the resident the warrant might have saved all of the evidence. Section VI – A - 1
89
Question 10: Was the officer’s actions in the following scenario lawful? Officers arrested defendant in her motel room, ordered her to lie on the floor, and handcuffed her while they secured the area. One officer lifted the mattress of the only bed in the room, which was approximately three feet from the defendant, and found a stash of narcotics and paraphernalia.
Answer: The search under the mattress was a valid search incident to arrest. Section VII
90
1. Pursuant to section 23100 VC, California’s DUI statues apply where?
a. Upon the freeways, and elsewhere throughout the state (including fire roads, state parks, rest areas).
b. Upon the county roads (including state parks, rest areas, public property, private property).
c. Upon the highways, and elsewhere throughout the state (including fire roads, state parks, rest areas, public property, private property).
d. Elsewhere throughout the state (including fire roads, state parks, rest areas, public property, private property).
c. Upon the highways, and elsewhere throughout the state (including fire roads, state parks, rest areas, public property, private property).
91
2. Section 23572 (a) VC provides for increased penalties when convicted of 23152 VC and a minor under _____ years of age was a passenger in the vehicle at the time of the offense.
a. 12
b. 14
c. 16
d. 18
b. 14
92
3. If a person is determined not to be under the influence of alcohol and/or drugs after the chemical testing, the arresting officer should notify his/her supervisor of the situation.
a. True
b. False
b. False
93
4. How long shall blood and urine specimens be retained for?
a. One month from the date of collection.
b. 90 days from the date of collection.
c. Six months from the date of collection.
d. One year from the date of collection.
d. One year from the date of collection. even if the case is adjudicated prior to the year expiring.
94
5. Section 23550 VC makes Section 23150 VC punishable as a felony if the offense occurs within ____ years of ____ or more DUI related convictions.
a. ten; three
b. ten; four
c. seven; three
d. seven; four
a. ten; three
95
6. Areas shall prepare a Checkpoint Operational Plan for each checkpoint planned and submit it to Division so that it may be approved at least _______ prior to the scheduled date of the operation.
a. 48 hours
b. 72 hours
c. 5 days
d. 1 week
d. 1 week - 70.4 8-6
96
7. The sobriety checkpoint team leader is responsible for completing the CHP 205, Checkpoint Activity form. A copy of this form shall be forwarded to Division not later than when?
a. The close of business the first workday after the checkpoint.
b. Within 48 hours of the conclusion of the checkpoint.
c. Within 72 hours of the conclusion of the checkpoint.
d. Within 5 working days of the conclusion of the checkpoint.
b. Within 48 hours of the conclusion of the checkpoint.
97
8. How many departmentally approved FST’s are there?
a. 3
b. 8
c. 9
d. 10
c. 9
98
9. When arrested for 23152 or 23153 VC, a speed enhancement, Section 23582 VC, adds a 60 day enhancement for any person who drives 20 MPH or more over the maximum, prima facie, or posted speed limit on a freeway or 30 MPH or more over the speed limit on any other street or highway and in a manner prohibited by 23103 VC.
a. True
b. False
b. False
99
10. Areas may adopt a Cite and Release Program for misdemeanor DUI arrests upon the approval of who?
a. Commissioner
b. Dep. Commissioner
c. AC, Field
d. Division Chief
c. AC, Field
100
11. Commercial drivers arrested for DUI with a BAC of 0.01 or more, but less than 0.04, the officer shall issue CHP 215 for 34506.3 VC, failure to comply with CHP regulations - BAC of 0.01 percent or greater, the driver shall be placed out-of-service for how many hours?
a. 8
b. 12
c. 18
d. 24
d. 24
101
12. Per policy, any person arrested for 23152 or 23153 VC shall only be given a formal admonishment relative to the Implied Consent Admonition.
a. True
b. False
b. False
102
13. The three test battery consisting of Horizontal Gaze Nystagmus (HGN), Walk and Turn, and the One-Leg-Stand were determined to be the most reliable. Using these three tests, what is the reliability rate for identifying drivers with BACs at or above the legal limit?
a. At least 88%
b. At least 89%
c. At least 90%
d. At least 91%
c. At least 90%
103
14. How much time does an officer have to submit the DS 367M to DMV for breath tests?
a. 48 hours
b. 72 hours
c. 5 days
d. 7 days
c. 5 days
104
15. Are people arrested for bicycle or motorized scooter DUI requested to submit to a chemical test?
a. No
b. Yes
a. No
105
16. How long are blood and urine specimens retained for?
a. 90 days from date of collection
b. 6 months from date of collection
c. 1 year from date of collection
d. 2 years from date of collection
c. 1 year from date of collection
106
17. How often are PEBT machines checked for accuracy?
a. Every 10 days
b. Every 100 tests
c. Every 10 days or 100 tests
d. Every 10 days or 150 tests
d. Every 10 days or 150 tests
107
18. How many Nonconsensual Chemical Tests does the department have?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
a. 1
108
19. Enhanced Nonconsensual Chemical Tests apply to all arrests where alcohol or drug influence is an element of the offense?
a. True
b. False
a. True
109
20. How long are checkpoint operational plans kept on file by the Area?
a. Minimum 1 year plus current year
b. Minimum 1 year plus prior and current year
c. Minimum 2 years plus prior and current year
d. Minimum 2 years plus current year
d. Minimum 2 years plus current year
110
1) The Purpose of the Employee Assistance Program (EAP) is to provide confidential, professional assistance to any employee with behavioral or personal problems which may impair his/her job performance, attendance, or conduct.
True- Ch.1, 1-1, 1(a) HPM 10.5
111
Prepaid professional counseling sessions are only available for work related personal issues.
False- Ch.1, 1-1, 2(b)(1) - wide range of personal issues (family, marriage, etc...) HPM 10.5
112
3) Unit 5 and 7 employees and their families are entitled to 7 sessions for each unrelated problem type per year.
True- Ch.1, 1-2, 4 HPM 10.5
113
4) Accessing the Peer Support Program (PSP )system must go through a supervisor approval procedure.
False- Ch. 1, 1-3, 5(a) HPM 10.5
114
5) The Peer Support Program (PSP) is to prevent or lessen potential negative emotional impact of a critical incident on a departmental employee.
True- Ch. 2, 2-1, 1(a) HPM 10.5
115
6) No records will be maintained which identify employees who utilize the Peer Support Program
True- Ch. 2, 2-2, 4(a) HPM 10.5
116
7) It is CHP policy to assist any employee who seeks help with a substance abuse problem. If he/she seeks assistance prior to becoming the subject of an adverse action for misconduct, the request shall be treated in a confidential manner.
True- Ch.3, 3-1, 3(a) HPM 10.5
117
1. Vehicles carried on a car carrier or on a bed of slide bed tow truck are considered ________________? (1-3)
Cargo - HPM 81.2
118
2. What shall be documented in the “Remarks” section of the 180 in the above question? (1-3)
a) License number.
b) Vehicle identification number.
c) Description.
d) All of the above.
d) All of the above. - HPM 81.2
a) License number.
b) Vehicle identification number.
c) Description.
119
3. 180’s completed for impound as evidence per CVC 22655.5 shall be retained for ______ years unless court proceedings require them to be kept longer. (1-5)
a) One.
b) Two.
c) Three
d) Five.
b) Two. - HPM 81.2
120
4. If an officer doesn’t enter an estimated value of a vehicle on the 180 within 3 days, the tow operator is required to make an appraisal. (1-6)
True/False?
true - HPM 81.2
121
5. While inventorying a vehicle, the driver or other occupants in the vehicle request possession of property from inside the vehicle (e.g., purse, clothing, backpack). The officer conducting the inventory may pat the item down for weapons for the officer’s safety before handing it over. (1-7)
True/False?
True - HPM 81.2
122
6. In the event that both Agency Hold and 22850.3 CVC boxes are marked, an officer __________ obtain the approval of a supervisor when possible. (1-9)
Should/Shall?
Should - HPM 81.2
123
7. Whenever a vehicle or part has a vehicle identification number (VIN) obviously mutilated or removed and comes into the possession of an officer, it should be seized. A supervisor or vehicle theft investigator’s approval __________ be obtained prior to seizure. (2-4)
Should/Shall?
Should - HPM 81.2
124
9. An officer ____________ obtain the approval of a supervisor when possible prior to impounding a vehicle for 14602.6(a)1VC (Suspended, revoked, unlicensed driver/30-day hold). (2-5)
Should/Shall?
Should - HPM 81.2
125
10. When using storage authority 22651(h)1VC, officers shall not remove vehicles from private property if the property is ____________ by the driver or person in control of the vehicle. (2-24)
a) Owned.
b) Leased.
c) Rented.
d) All of the above.
d) All of the above. - HPM 81.2
a) Owned.
b) Leased.
c) Rented.
126
11. When there is reason to believe it is not a legitimate report, essential information is being withheld, or a theft does not appear to exist; the individual shall be cautioned as to the criminal consequences of making a fraudulent report. However, if the individual insists, the report ________ be accepted. (3-3)
Should/Shall?
Shall - HPM 81.2
127
12. Records for vehicles which have not been recovered shall be retained for a period of _____ years plus the current year.
a) One.
b) Two.
c) Five.
d) Ten.
d) Ten. - HPM 81.2
128
13. When a license plate is recovered, the SVS shall be queried to determine if the plate has been reported lost or stolen. (3-12)
True/False?
True - HPM 81.2
129
14. All plates coming into the possession of CHP offices shall be held for ________. Plates unclaimed after that period shall be delivered to the nearest DMV office. (3-12)
a) 30 days.
b) 1 week.
c) 24 hours.
d) 1 year.
a) 30 days. - HPM 81.2
130
15. The CHP 180 (pages 2, 3, and 4), provides the RO and LO information regarding the post-storage hearing process. In order to be granted a post-storage hearing, the RO, LO, or their agent is required to request a hearing within __________ of the date on the notice. (4-3)
a) 5 business days.
b) 10 days.
c) 24 hours.
d) 72 hours.
b) 10 days. - HPM 81.2
131
16. The Area commander shall designate a ______________ as the hearing officer. A hearing officer shall not be the same officer who stored/impounded the vehicle. (4-4)
a) Sergeant.
b) Lieutenant.
c) Sergeant or Lieutenant.
d) Auto tech.
c) Sergeant or Lieutenant. - HPM 81.2
132
17. All vehicles and/or vehicle components seized as evidence _________ be referred to the evidence contract tow service. (6-7)
Should/Shall?
Shall - HPM 81.2
133
18. If a vehicle has been inadvertently towed and stored by a CHP rotation tow operator, it shall be transferred to the contract tow facility as soon as possible. (6-7)
True/False?
True - HPM 81.2
134
19. The failure of a company to provide towing, emergency road service, or storage complying with the provisions of the agreement may result in a written reprimand, suspension, or termination of the agreement. (7-4)
a) Written reprimand.
b) Suspension
c) Termination.
d) All of the above.
d) All of the above. - HPM 81.2
a) Written reprimand.
b) Suspension
c) Termination
135
20. If the on-scene tow truck driver requests additional tow trucks and/or equipment be dispatched to the scene, the officer/scene manager shall evaluate the need for additional equipment and the request shall be made through ___________________. (7-10)
a) The communications center.
b) The tow truck owner.
c) The shift sergeant.
d) The tow truck drivers dispatcher.
a) The communications center . - HPM 81.2
136
If a State Trooper encounters an unlicensed driver (12500VC) during a sobriety checkpoint, the Trooper shall do what: (2-3)
a) Make a reasonable attempt to identify the vehicle’s RO.
b) Give the RO or agent until the end of the checkpoint to remove the vehicle.
c) Impound the vehicle immediately pursuant to Section 22651(p)VC.
d) Both A & B.
d) Both A & B. - HPM 81.2
a) Make a reasonable attempt to identify the vehicle’s RO.
b) Give the RO or agent until the end of the checkpoint to remove the vehicle.
137
1. The ________________ is legally and morally responsible for the safety of its employees.
Department (HPM 10.6 pg 1-1)
138
2. All ____________/_______________ shall receive training from Departmental Training Division, Occupational Safety Unit to familiarize themselves with safety and health hazards.
supervisors/managers HPM 10.6 pg 3-1)
139
3. Each command should have a __________ ____________ to assist the commander with occupational safety program and procedures.
Command Safety Coordinator (HPM 10.6 pg 2-6) - CSC shall be appointed for minimum term of assignment of one year and shall be at the rank of supervisor or above.
140
4. If a complaint letter is issued by the _________________, the command of the unsafe condition/environment has 14 days to investigate and respond in writing.
DOSH, Division of Occupational Safety and Health (HPM 10.6 pg 5-1)
141
5. The following forms are required whenever a CHP vehicle is involved in a collision: CHP 555/556 (t/c report), CHP 208 (Accident Prevention Report), CHP 442 (Individual Accident/Injury Safety Record), and a STD ___ (Report of Vehicle Accident). And how many hours do you have to complete it
STD 270, and 48 hours (HPM 10.6 pg 6-2)
142
6. Supervisors are required to take uniformed employees for annual defensive driver training for ____ hour.
1 (HPM 10.6 pg 8-2)
143
7. The Injury Illness Prevention Program (IIPP) is a CHP manual. (True/False?)
False (HPM 10.6 pg 4-1) - it is neither a manual nor a guide. it is a stand-alone document, similar to the EAP. Annual review of the IIPP and EAP shall be documented on a CHP 712A (IIPP) and CHP 712 (EAP)
144
8. Hearing Conservation is a part of the Hazardous Conditions and Substance Exposure Control Program. (True/False?)
True (HPM 10.6 pg 9-3)
145
9. If an employee sustains a serious or fatal injury involving a body part protected by personal protective equipment (PPE), the command shall ensure the equipment is preserved as _______________.
Evidence (HPM 10.6 pg 10-3)
146
10. What CHP form is used to report quarterly accident and injury statistics involving CHP employees?
CHP 113 (Accident and Injury Report) (HPM 10.6 pg 3-5)
147
11. __________ are responsible for ensuring that their subordinates receive appropriate health and safety training, monitoring employee job performance, and ensuring that employees follow healthy and safe work practices.
Supervisors (HPM 10.6 pg 1-3)
148
12. Each field Division’s __________ and __________ ____________ shall prepare a composite CHP113 for accidents and injuries occurring within their Divisions.
Health, Safety Coordinator (HPM 10.6 pg 3-5)
149
13. PPE (Personal Protective Equipment) _______ be used when engineering and/or administrative controls are not feasible or in an emergency.
Shall (HPM 10.6 pg 10-1)
150
14. Each filed Division's Occupational Safety Coordinator, headquarters OSC, and Executive Office OSC shall prepare a composite CHP113 report and it shall be forwarded to OSU (Occupational Safety Unit) no later than the ______ day of the ________ month following the report period.
First, Second (HPM 10.6 pg 3-5)
151
15. All employees who frequently (once a month or more) are required to drive on _________ __________ shall be trained in defensive driving techniques.
Official Business (HPM 10.6 pg 8-1)
152
16. The _____________ is the departmental arbitrator in interpreting rules, standards, policies, procedures, and definitions relative to departmental safety programs.
DOSB, Departmental Occupational Safety Board (HPM 10.6 pg 2-1)
153
17. The supervisor has the responsibility to determine the preventability of recordable vehicle accidents, injuries, and illnesses. (True/False?)
False (HPM 10.6 pg 3-3) - the commander has the responsibility.
154
18. Every command shall implement and maintain a written IIPP (Injury and Illness Prevention Program). (True/False?)
True (HPM 10.6 pg 4-3) - to focus on preventing work-related injuries and illnesses to employees.
155
19. When a command receives a complaint letter from Dept. of Industrial Relations, or Division of Occupational Safety and Health, a copy of the Complaint letter and a copy of the command’s response are to be posted for a minimum of ____ days or until the unsafe condition is corrected.
Three (HPM 10.6 pg 5-1)
156
20. All employees are personally responsible for reporting unsafe or unhealthy conditions, procedures, or work practices to a supervisor. (True/False?)
True (HPM 10.6 pg 1-3)
157
21. In the event of a serious injury or death, every employers shall report it to _________, as soon as practical but not longer than ____ hours in the event the injury or death occurred at your place of employments or in conjunction with the duties of your employment.
DOSH & 8 hours (HPM 10.6 Annex C, pg 5-17)
If the employer can demonstrate that exigent circumstances exist, the time frame
for the report may be made no longer than 24 hours after the incident.
158
1. The Engineering and Traffic Surveys (ETS) must be within _____ years of the radar speed violation date on target roadways.
5 - 100.4 1-5
159
2. Expired Engineering and Traffic Surveys (ETS) pursuant to 40802 VC allows exemptions periods of ___ and ___ years.
7/10 - 100.4 1-5
160
4. Area radar coordinators should / shall provide a radar enforcement guide to radar operators in the Area.
Shall - 100.4 2-4
161
5. In an effort to minimize exposure to microwave transmissions, radar operators shall use the _____ feature when the radar unit is not in use.
RF Hold - 100.4 4-3
162
6. Radar operators are required to complete _____ hours of initial radar training before they are eligible to be radar certified.
54 total hours (24 classroom 80% or higher on written / 30 field within 90 days of classroom - ) 100.4 5-3
163
7. When conducting an audit of the Area radar program, the auditor shall randomly select a minimum of _____ radar/lidar citations from Area files.
5 - 100.4 7-3
164
8. Division radar coordinators may assign Area radar coordinators to conduct audits for them. However, an Area coordinator should / shall not conduct an audit of their home Area.
shall - 100.4 7-3 - program audit is required to be performed at intervals of no longer than 24 months after the last audit and may be conducted more frequently.
165
9. All Officers shall complete _____ speed and distance estimations during phase 2 filed training and record data on a CHP 99.
100 - 100.4 5-3 50 moving and 50 stationary - During training officer SHALL not take enforcement action for speed violations based on radar readings.
166
10. Radar Officers must be re-certified every _____.
calendar year
167
11. The radar unit shall have its calibration checked for accuracy when? ______________________ .
at the beginning and the end of the shift
168
12. Radar shall be used as a _____ to an independent estimation of speed by the Officer.
supplemental
169
13. Radar/lidar audits: Division will report the results of each successful Area audit to headquarters within _____ calendar days from the date of the audit.
10 - 100.4 7-6 -
for areas in which discrepancies were found, the division's report shall be routed to RPS as necessary. this report shall be forwarded within 20 calendar days of the audit.
170
14. Completed Radar calibration check logs shall be maintained in Area files for _____ years rotating and shall be kept available for court testimony.
a. 1 plus current
b. 2
c. 3
d. 5
3 - 100.4 5-9 - local procedure may dictate longer retention rate due to the late adjudication of cases involving radar/lidar
171
15. Each radar unit purchased for CHP use must be tested by an approved testing facility (independent of the manufacturer) prior to use as an enforcement tool. Equipment used by the Department must be identified as an approved device by the ______ Conforming Product List.
a. NHTSA
b. SWITRS
c. IACP
d. DGS
IACP (International Association of Chiefs of Police) Conforming Products List - 100.4 1-6
172
1. Where does the Department receive its authority to authorize awards for state employees?
Government Code (150.1/1-1)
173
2. State and Departmental awards for employees of the CHP are considered prestige awards comparable to distinguished service medals granted to the military and civilian employees of the Federal Government.
True (150.1/1-2)
174
3. Who can be the recipient of a Superior Accomplishment Award?
Employees not designated as supervisory or managerial (150.1/2-7)
175
4. The 10851 award is considered a Department-Level Award.
True (150.1/3-1)
176
5. What two Department-Level Awards are available to employees of allied government agencies?
Certificate of Appreciation and 10851 Award (150.1/3-1)
177
6. Are Non-uniformed CHP employees eligible for the Individual Safety Recognition Program?
Yes (150.1/6-1)
178
7. A gold 10851 Award is a ___________.
Lifetime Achievement Award. (HPM 150.1 3-20)
179
8. A blue 10851 Award is a ____________.
Master Award. (HPM 150.1 3-19)
180
9. To obtain a 10851 award an Officer must meet what criteria?
6 Rollers w/ arrests or 3 Rollers and 9 Ducks or Develop information of a theft ring with two or more suspects and at least ten vehicles. (HPM 150.1 3-18)
181
10. Is the 10851 Award available to allied agencies?
Yes, upon request (HPM 150.1 3-20)
182
1. Enforcement __________ be taken on the day following the day of expired registration. (1-3)
a. Shall
b. Should
a. Shall
183
2. When fees have been deposited but the application is incomplete, the proper enforcement violation should be Section 4000 (a) (1) VC? (1-3)
a. T
b. F
a. T
184
3. Section 22651 (o) VC authorizes officers to impound a vehicle that has an expired registration in excess of ____ months? (1-5)
a. 3
b. 6
c. 9
d. 12
b. 6
185
4. Which of the following would NOT be acceptable evidence of application for registration and/or payment of proper fees? (2-1)
a. Registration Card
b. Money Order
c. Suspense Receipt
d. Insurance Card
d. Insurance Card
186
5. Vehicle Code Section 6700 (A) requires an owner to apply for California registration within ____ days after gainful employment or residency is established in this state? (3-3)
a. 10
b. 14
c. 20
d. 30
c. 20
187
6. Whenever any member of this department suspects a foreign registration violation exists they are encouraged to utilize a CHP 69 (resident registration follow-up form). (3-8)
a. T
b. F
a. T
188
7. Which three types of fees are collected for the registration of commercial motor vehicles (CMV)? (5-1)
a. Prima facia Fee
b. Basic Registration
c. Vehicle License Fee (VLF)
d. Unladen Weight Fee
b. Basic Registration
c. Vehicle License Fee (VLF)
d. Unladen Weight Fee
189
8. Permanent Fleet Registration (PFR) and Permanent Trailer Identification Plate (PTIP) Program are both accepted as Special Types of Commercial Registration? (5-15).
a. T
b. F
a. T
190
9. A car dealer must have a license to sell, buy, or trade vehicles before DMV will issue Special Plates? (8-3).
a. T
b. F
a. T
191
10. Special plates or Dealer Plates may NOT be seized if the plates have been _______. (8-7)
a. Expired
b. Issued for a different vehicle
c. Revoked
d. Cancelled
b. Issued for a different vehicle
192
1) What two areas of information do the CHP Public Affairs involve?
a. External. (News Media, Public Relations, Traffic Safety, etc.)
b. Internal. (Image building/employee support, Employee Recognition, etc.)
- HPM 90.1
193
2) Responsibility for pursuing an effective public affairs program is vested in _______ ________, ___ _______ _______, uniformed and non-uniformed.
a. Every employee
b. At every level
- HPM 90.1
194
3) Personnel (shall or should) not discuss matters of a politically sensitive nature without approval from OPA.
a. Shall. - HPM 90.1
195
4) Press cards shall only be authorized by whom and are valid for how long?
a. Commissioner, 3 Years - HPM 90.1
196
5) ____________ ___________ is the relationship between the CHP and various local groups developed to further the best interests of the community members and the department.
a. Community relations/involvement - HPM 90.1
197
6) Which CHP form was designed for the purpose of releasing information to the media?
a. CHP 288, Report of Collision. - HPM 90.1
198
7) Normally, all information released at an emergency scene shall be coordinated through a _________ __________.
a. Scene manager. - HPM 90.1
199
8) Whose approval is required prior to giving the names of persons killed in collisions/incidents to the media at the scene?
a. Coroner. - HPM 90.1
200
9) Which penal code authorizes properly identified members of the news media from entering locations where newsworthy events have occurred?
a. 409.5 PC - HPM 90.1
201
10) Access to media should be denied if the access would clearly interfere with the emergency crews or equipment, or if it is a _______ _______.
a. Crime scene. - HPM 90.1
202
11) Video or audio recordings made by on-board patrol cars may be released upon approval of whom?
a. Commissioner only - HPM 90.1
203
12) Holiday Fatal Reporting Requirements concern which Holidays?
a. New Year’s Day
b. Memorial Day Weekend
c. Independence Day
d. Labor Day Weekend
e. Thanksgiving Weekend
f. Christmas Day
- HPM 90.1
204
13) Information required to be reported during the holiday reporting period consists:
a. The number of _______ _______ in CHP jurisdiction. (fatal collisions)
b. The number of persons _______ in CHP jurisdiction (killed)
c. People killed in CHP jurisdiction wearing ______ ______ (safety belts)
d. Number of persons killed in incorporated ______ traffic collisions. (city)
e. Number of _______ driving arrests. (drunk)
- HPM 90.1
205
14) Media Advisories are invitations to the media to cover an event and should be sent at least how many days in advance?
a. one - HPM 90.1
206
15) When providing a taped interview for electronic media and a question deals with a confidential policy or issue, the reporter must be advised that the information is ____ ____ ____ ____.
a. Not subject to release - HPM 90.1
207
16) Groups of people normally targeted for outreach and education by the CHP are as follows.
a. _________ (military)
b. _________ (schools)
c. _________ (fleet operators)
d. _________ (State Employees)
- HPM 90.1
208
17) The CHP ____, Media Guide, summarizes the rights of the media under the current laws and details releasable information?
a. 960 - HPM 90.1
209
18) Which Vehicle Code section establishes statutory authority for the release of accident reports?
a. 20012 - HPM 90.1
210
19) The name of a victim of any crime is considered? _________ _________
a. Non-releasable information. - HPM 90.1
211
20) Results of BAC test are ____________ information.
a. Releasable. - HPM 90.1
212
1. Every arrested person has the right to make __________ completed phone calls immediately upon being booked.
(three) - HPM 100.69
213
2. When a violator refuses to sign a CHP 215, the arresting officer shall notify______________.
(on duty supervisor) - HPM 100.69
214
3. TRUE/FALSE If at any time during the transport to the jail, the violator changes his/her mind and decides to sign the CHP 215, they shall be allowed to.
(True) - HPM 100.69
215
4. When a minor is in custody, they have the right to make ____________ phone calls, one to their __________________, the other may be to an _____________.
(two/parent or guardian/attorney) - HPM 100.69 1-6
The calls, except where physically impossible, are to be allowed no later than one hour after the minor is taken into custody. Such calls are to be made at public expense if within the local calling area. Calls must be made in the presence of an officer or employee.
216
5. TRUE/FALSE A minor can be detained in an adult lock up facility and in the same room as adults.
(False) - HPM 100.69 1-6
217
6. A minor that is 14 years or older, and has violated a criminal law, may be temporarily detained in a secure detention like a police or sheriff lock up for no more than _________ hours.
(six) - HPM 100.69 1-6/1-7
Not an adult JAIL facility unless a chemical test is necessary. in that case, no contact with adult in-custodies or inmates shall be made and continuous supervision is required.
218
7. As it relates to departmental procedures: In no event shall a minor be present in an adult detention facility for more than ____ hours.
two - HPM 100.69 1-9
When necessary to take a minor to a facility for a chemical test: A minor’s presence in a law enforcement facility or jail shall not be unnecessarily extended. The minor shall be removed as soon as reasonably possible. In no event shall a minor be present in an adult detention facility or jail for a continuous period in excess of two hours.
Policy also dictates: Arrests of minors who are 14 years of age or older under the provisions of Section 625.3 WIC shall be handled in accordance with Section 626.6 WIC. Section 207.1 WIC states Legal Authority dictates a minor over the age of 14, and meeting specific criteria, may be detained in a lockup, not jail, for no longer than 6 hours.
219
8. Prior to issuing a CHP 215 for a private persons arrest, _____________________ of the person arrested must have been accepted.
( legal custody) - HPM 100.69
220
9. TRUE / FALSE There is no requirement for the officer accepting custody of a person arrested by a private person to determine probable cause for the arrest. However, if facts of the arrest become known to the officer, and they are satisfied that there are insufficient grounds for making a criminal case against the person arrested, the arrested party should be released.
(true) - HPM 100.69
221
10. Any law enforcement agency shall not refuse to accept a state medical marijuana ID card issued by CDPH, unless that officer has reasonable cause to believe the info contained in the card is _________________.
(fraudulent or false) - HPM 100.69
222
11. The two methods of destroying controlled substance are______________________ and _________________.
(Allied agency burn / Department’s own burn) - HPM 100.69
223
12. All possible hate crime reports (should/shall) be reviewed by an ___________________________ to confirm that the incident was a hate crime.
(should/on duty supervisor) - HPM 100.69
224
13. When a person is arrested by this Department, and released from custody without being formally charged with an offense, that person (should/shall) be issued a ___________ which (Should/Shall) be issued by a ________________.
(shall / CHP 103) (Should/supervisor) - HPM 100.69 1-28
When a person arrested (arrest includes issuance of a CHP 215) by this Department is released from custody without being formally charged with an offense, that person shall be issued a CHP 103.
A CHP 103 should normally be issued by a supervisor. If a supervisor is not available, the arresting officer may issue the certificate.
225
14. When issuing a CHP 103, the original shall be filed in the ______________ and a copy shall be given to the _________________.
(Area office / person being released) - HPM 100.69
226
15. When a person poses a danger to themselves or others, due to a mental illness, officers may detain that person and place a 5150 hold for up to ___________ hours, for treatment and evaluation.
(72) - HPM 100.69
227
16. Can Departmental employees initiate EAS Broadcast?
(Departmental employees shall not initiate EAS broadcasts without ENTAC approval.) - HPM 100.69
228
17. Departmental employees who have knowledge or suspect child abuse or neglect shall report the instance to__________________. )
(Local County Designated Agency LCDA - HPM 100.69
229
18. If a child cannot be released to a parent, guardian or responsible adult, the officer shall notify____________ to assume custody of the child. (
Social services) - HPM 100.69
230
19. AMBER Alerts shall only be initiated by the Department through ___________. (
ENTAC) - HPM 100.69
231
20. TRUE / FALSE The purpose of the Silver Alert is to issue and coordinate alerts for persons reported missing that are 55 years of age or older.
(FALSE – 65 years or older - HPM 100.69
232
1) Classification of data. What are the two classes of information that require extra precaution?
(Chapter 1, pg.1-6)
1. Confidential & Sensitive information.
Confidential is exempt from disclosure under the provisions of the public record act.
Sensitive - maintain by state agencies that requires special precautions to protect from unauthorized modification or deletion. - may either be public or confidential, requiring a higher than normal assurance of accuracy and completeness - example is departmental financial transactions where the key factor for sensitivity is integrity.
Data addressed to a specific person may also be classified as personal and confidential
233
2) Officers (Should/Shall) not leave computers accessing/displaying confidential information unattended? (Chapter 1, pg. 1-7)
2. Shall
234
3) All confidential and/or sensitive departmental work products and rosters maintained by a command and needed to conduct state business (Should/Shall) be secured at all times.
(Chapter 1, pg. 1-7)
3. Shall
235
4) The connection of any personally-owned desktop/laptop computer or device(s) (e.g., printers, scanners, plotters, USB flash drives, wireless access points, removable hard drives, network switch/hubs) to the Department’s network is strictly prohibited. (True/False)
(Chapter 1, pg. 1-11)
4. True
236
5) You walk into the briefing room and notice one of your officers has changed his background image on his CHP owned laptop to a picture of Denzel Washington on the movie Training Day. Is this a violation of policy? (Yes/No)
(Chapter 1, pgs. 1-16,17)
5. Yes
237
6) Officers are required to sign the CHP 101, Appropriate Use of Automated Information & Systems Statement, on an annual basis, biannual basis or quarterly?
(Chapter 2, pg. 2-3)
6. Annual
238
7) Officers (Shall/Should) not send e-mail messages to anyone they would not normally call directly on the telephone.
(Chapter 3, pg. 3-3)
7. Shall
239
8) Officer Smith asks you if it’s ok if he runs his wife’s DL through CLETS so he can make sure he is getting a fair car insurance quote. You tell him since it’s for his spouse that he is ok to make the check. Was this the right decision? (Yes/No)
(Chapter 6, pg. 6-4)
8. No
240
9) Can an officer load personally owned software on a departmental computer if it is for the purpose of performing work related activities (e.g., collision investigation drawings)? (Yes/No)
(Chapter 10, pg. 10-8)
9. No
241
10) Does an employee need to request permission to use e-mail Web access? (Yes/No)
(Chapter 11, pgs. 11-3,4)
10. Yes (using the CHP 109, Information Technology Request)
242
1. When must a public safety officer be informed of their constitutional rights?
A. Upon the initiation of an investigation
B. Prior to any disciplinary action taken
C. Prior to or during any criminal interrogation
D. When it is deemed that the officer may be charged with a criminal offense
E. When both C and D are true
E. When both C and D are true - POBR
C. Prior to or during any criminal interrogation
D. When it is deemed that the officer may be charged with a criminal offense
243
2. An officer has the right to be represented by a representative of his or her choice:
A. Upon the filing of a formal written statement of charges
B. Whenever an interrogation focuses on matters that are likely to result in punitive action
C. Whenever the officer believes it is necessary to have a representative present
D. A or B
E. All the above
D. A or B - POBR
A. Upon the filing of a formal written statement of charges
B. Whenever an interrogation focuses on matters that are likely to result in punitive action
244
3. Pursuant to HPM 10.2, the POBR protections extend to:
A. Public Safety Officers
B. All unformed and nonuniformed employees of the CHP
C. All CHP Employees except cadets
D. All CHP Officers with the rank of Sergeant or below
C. All CHP Employees except cadets - POBR
245
4. Pursuant to 3304 GC, a public agency is required to impose any disciplinary action within one year of the public agency's discovery of the act, omission, or other misconduct giving rise to the discipline.
A. True
B. False
B. False - HPM 10.2 11-6 - If the investigation of the allegation is not completed within one year of the public agency's discovery by a person authorized to initiate an investigation of the allegation of an act, omission, or other misconduct, then punitive action shall not be taken. If the agency determines that discipline may be taken, it shall complete its investigation and notify the public safety officer of its proposed discipline by a Letter of Intent or Notice of Adverse Action articulating the discipline that year. If the investigation is completed with the one-year period, disciplinary action could be undertaken outside of the one year period.
246
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5. If the public agency decides to impose discipline, the public agency shall notify the public safety officer in writing of its decision within _______ of its decision, except if the public safety officer is unavailable for discipline.
A. 48 Hours
B. 5 Business Days
C. 10 Days
D. 30 Days
```
D. 30 Days - POBR
247
6. No public safety officer shall have a locker or other space for storage that may be assigned to the employee searched, except:
A. In the employees presence
B. With the employees consent
C. With notification to the employee that a search will be conducted
D. With a valid search warrant
E. Any of the above
E. Any of the above - 10.2 11-10 section 3309 - section shall apply only to lockers or other space for storage that are owned or leased by the employing agency
248
7. Upon a finding by a superior court that a public safety department maliciously violated any provision of this chapter, the court may:
```
A. Order injunctive relief
B. Order extraordinary relief
C. Order the department to pay a civil penalty of up to $25,000/occurrence.
D. A and B only
E. A, B, and C.
```
E. A, B, and C. - POBR
A. Order injunctive relief
B. Order extraordinary relief
C. Order the department to pay a civil penalty of up to $25,000/occurrence.
249
8. If, during a conversation with a sergeant, information surfaces which indicates the employee is likely to be subject to an adverse action, the supervisor shall:
A. Cease the solicitation of information and inform the employee of the right to representation.
B. Inform the employee of the right to representation and seek a waiver of that right before continuing the contact.
C. Provide the employee with a written statement of their rights and obtain a signed acknowledgement.
D. None of the above are required by the POBR.
A. Cease the solicitation of information and inform the employee of the right to representation. If a representative is requested, the meeting should be postponed to allow the employee a reasonable opportunity to obtain representation - 10.2 11-13
250
9. Directing an employee to prepare a memorandum (describing the employee’s version of the matter in question) when an adverse action is warranted is prohibited.
A. True
B. False
A. True - POBR
251
10. If an officer believes that any portion of the material is mistakenly or unlawfully placed in their file, the officer may request, in writing, that the mistaken or unlawful portion be corrected or deleted. Such a request must be responded to within ____________.
A. 30 Days
B. 60 Days
C. 90 Days
D. 120 Days
A. 30 Days - POBR
252
1. What does policy state regarding CHP officers conducting traffic enforcement stops for the purpose of drug interdiction? - HPM 81.5
A) Officers shall not conduct traffic enforcement stops for the primary purpose of drug interdiction in the absence of probable cause or reasonable suspicion to believe the motorist or an occupant of a vehicle is involved in illegal drug related activity.
253
2. Which department of the CHP is responsible for overseeing the training, initiate training audits, and evaluate reports? Which office is the OPI for all drug programs outlined in HMP 81.5? - HPM 81.5
A) Enforcement Services Division, Filed Support Section is the OPI for all drug programs outlined in this manual.
254
3. What level of approval shall be obtained prior to the seizure of any asset by department personnel? Also, when a stop resulting in asset forfeiture occurs outside of their assigned area or division, which area provides the felony number and case number? - HPM 81.5
A) A supervisor’s approval shall be obtained prior to the seizure of any asset by departmental personnel. Felony numbers should normally be obtained from the area where the stop was made-all reports routed through that area.
255
4. What is the time allotted to hold seized property? What steps must be done to initiate asset forfeiture procedures? - HPM 81.5 2-8
A) The investigating law enforcement agency may hold seized property for up to 15 days to determine if there is sufficient evidence to file for forfeiture of the property. Within the 15 days, the investigating law enforcement
agency must notify the district attorney, preferably in writing, of their intent to initiate asset forfeiture procedures. After 15 days, the asset must either be returned to the owner or held as evidence (or held for another legal reason). 2-8
256
5. Law Enforcement Agencies shall notify the Franchise Tax board where there is reasonable cause to believe the property seized has a value in excess of - HPM 81.5
A) $5,000.00
257
6. All individuals who claim no interest or ownership in the seized assets shall be requested to sign a - HPM 81.5
A) CHP 304 – Disclaimer of Ownership of Assets and Waiver of Right to Notice of Seizure.
258
7. What is the minimum equity departmental requirement for vehicles, airplanes, and vessels seized? - HPM 81.5
A) Vehicles with a minimum equity of less than $5,000 should not be seized. Airplanes and vessels do not have established minimum equity values, they are handled on a case by case basis.
259
8. Money that is chemically analyzed or examined by a canine unit can be stored in the same storage facility as narcotics. True or False? - HPM 81.5
A) Money that is chemically analyzed or examined by a canine unit shall not be stored in the same storage facility as narcotics.
260
9. Prior to the on duty supervisor authorizing a whisper stop, what information shall be obtained? - HPM 81.5
A) – Requesting Agency, Contact Supervisor telephone number, officer safety concerns, what type of action is desired by the requesting agency, and any other information which will ensure a successful contact with the vehicle’s occupants.
261
10. The CHP is a ______ contact/relay point and has the training and authority to deal with drug smugglers within the state. - HPM 81.5
a. Main
b. Important
c. Centralized
d. Irrelavant
c. Centralized
262
1. The term “correspondence” as used in this manual describes all communications prepared on departmental letterhead and on the CHP 51WP, Memorandum template, except: - HPM 5.1
A. Publications transmittal memorandums.
B. Management Memorandums.
C. Category 2 Correspondence deemed “personal” by the author.
D. Category 3 Correspondence.
A. Publications transmittal memorandums. - 5.1 1-3
263
2. Correspondence shall be acted upon as soon as practicable. However, if the desired information cannot be furnished within _____ working days from the date of receipt, the correspondence shall be acknowledged with an interim response. - HPM 5.1
A. 10 Business Days
B. 15 Working Days
C. 2 Weeks
D. 72 Hours
B. 15 Working Days - 5.1 1-4 (prompt replies)
264
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3. Category 1 correspondence is prepared on a CHP 51WP, and shall be used for: - HPM 5.1
A. Intradepartmental Correspondence
B. Intrastate Correspondence
C. Interdepartmental Correspondence
D. A & C Only
```
D. A & C Only - correspondence to appointed officials shall be prepared as a memorandum and also used to address other state agencies
265
4. File numbers shall consist of a minimum of ______ elements (separated by periods) and shall be used on all headquarters correspondence. - HPM 5.1
A. Three
B. Four
C. Five
D. Six
B. Four - 5.1 2-6
1. Signature's Location Code
2. Signatory Identification
3. Composer
4. OPI
266
5. The second and each succeeding page of a letter or memorandum shall be headed with: - HPM 5.1
A. The name of the addressee(s), the page number and the date one inch from top.
B. The name of the addressee(s), the address of the addressee and the date one inch from top.
C. The page number and the date one inch from top.
D. The page number, the document control number and the date one inch from top.
A. The name of the addressee(s), the page number and the date one inch from top.
267
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6. Comm-Nets may be used to establish policy for a period of ____ calendar days. - HPM 5.1
A. 15
B. 30
C. 60
D. 90
```
D. 90 - 5.1 6-3
268
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7. The author will prepare the Comm-Net as a Microsoft Word Document,using standard upper and lower sentence case, in _______ font size 12, with one inch margins - HPM 5.1
A. Arial
B. Courier New
C. Time New Roman
D. Agency FB
```
A. Arial 5.1 6-3
single Paragraph comm-nets shall be double spaced
no special formatting
269
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8. All correspondence shall be due back to the office of the signatory in _____ days, thus allowing for review, edits if necessary, and signature. - HPM 5.1
A. Three
B. Five
C. Seven
D. Nine
```
C. Seven
270
9. Abbreviations are never to be used in the inside address of CHP correspondence. - HPM 5.1
A. True
B. False
B. False - 5.1 2-7
Abbreviations are not to be used in the inside address of CHP correspondence, with the exception of state name (CA=California) and NE, NW, SE, SW at the end of a street name.
271
10. The term “Font” describes: - HPM 5.1
A. A set of characters and symbols that have a unique design.
B. Letters of the same size, stroke weight, and style.
C. A description of characters sharing a similar slant, width and design.
D. A & C are both correct
B. Letters of the same size, stroke weight, and style.
272
1. Effective July 1, 2012, SPB merged with the Department of Personnel Administration, creating the _____________________. - HPM 10.3
A. SPBDPA
B. California Department of Human Resources
C. California Department of Personnel Resources
D. California Board of Human Resources
B. California Department of Human Resources
273
2. “AWOL” is the separation of an employee who is AWOL for ____ or more consecutive working days whether the absence is voluntary or involuntary. - HPM 10.3
```
A. 3
B. 5
C. 7
D. 9
E. Any amount of time when the employee is absent without leave
```
B. 5
274
3. Retired Peace officers shall be denied CCW privileges: - HPM 10.3 Chapter 10
A. When retirement is in lieu of termination
B. They retire due to psychological disability
C. For good cause
D. Any of the above
D. Any of the above
A. When retirement is in lieu of termination
B. They retire due to psychological disability
C. For good cause
275
4. If the MOU is in conflict with GC 19838, the MOU is controlling. - HPM 10.3
A. True
B. False
A. True
276
5. Who is required to maintain a contact telephone number? (list all that apply) - HPM 10.3 (personnel Transactions manual)
A. All uniformed employees
B. Nonuniformed Section Commanders, Division chiefs, and their alternates
C. Public Safety Dispatchers and Supervisors I/II
D. All area Senior Administrative personnel.
F. Public Safety Operators
A, B, C, E
12-3: All uniformed employees, Public Safety Operators, Public Safety Dispatchers, Public Safety Dispatch Supervisors I/II, nonuniformed section commanders and Division chiefs and their alternates shall maintain a contact telephone number. In those instances where it can be shown that the maintenance of telephone service is a hardship upon the employee, or that service cannot be obtained, the employee shall provide an effective substitute method of contact.
277
6. A retired peace officer is entitled to maintain permanent confidentiality of his/her home address. - HPM 10.3
A. True
B. False
A. True
278
7. In Catastrophic Leave situations, an employee may receive donations of all the following except: - HPM 10.3
```
A. Sick Leave
B. Annual leave
C. Vacation
D. CTO
E. Personal leave
```
A. Sick Leave
279
8. Employees may receive or donate eligible leave credits between family members for serious health conditions or for ________________. - HPM 10.3
A. Bereavement leave in the case of an immediate family member.
B. Parental/adoption leaves
C. Bereavement leave for any family member described in MOU 47.b.
D. Any leave approved by the area commander.
B. Parental/adoption leaves
280
9. Donated credits which are unused shall be returned to the appropriate donor in what order? - HPM 10.3
A. On a first received, first returned basis.
B. In order of departmental seniority
C. On a last received, first returned basis.
D. As dictated by the area commander.
C. On a last received, first returned basis.
281
10. During the Academy, each employee is required to complete a CHP 18, Annual Internal Investigation Policy which is permanently retained in the employee’s field folder. - HPM 10.3
A. True
B. False
B. False - A copy of the Department's Inconsistent and Incompatible Activities Statement is forwarded by Human Resources Section (HRS) with the appointment documents for each new employee. During orientation, each employee is required to complete a CHP 18, Annual Internal Investigation Policy; once completed, the CHP 18 will be permanently retained in the employee's field folder.
282
11. If an employee whishes to engage in secondary employment, a the employee shall complete and submit to _______ a CHP 318 in triplicate along with a detailed job description of the secondary employment activity. - HPM 10.3
A. The Division Cheif
B. The Area Commander
C. His/her immediate supervisor
D. Any of the above
C. His/her immediate supervisor
(1) If the CHP 318 is approved for employment for 30 calendar days or less duration, one copy shall be given to the employee and the original shall be filed in the employee's field folder. Forwarding of copies to higher levels is not necessary. The employee may engage in the activity.
(2) If the CHP 318 is approved for employment in excess of 30 calendar days, the commander shall deliver one copy to the employee, file one copy, and forward the original to the next level of review.
283
12. Pursuant to HPM 10.3, the following in an alcohol related “Incompatible Activity:” - HPM 10.3 4-9
A. Reporting for or returning to work when not completely recovered the effects of alcohol.
B. Reporting for or returning to work with a BAC over a .01%
C. Reporting for or returning to work with a BAC over .04%
D. Reporting for or returning to work within 12 hours of consuming an alcoholic beverage.
A. Reporting for or returning to work when not completely recovered the effects of alcohol.
- Also, Drinking on Duty is prohibited. State vehicles shall not be operated by departmental employees after consumption of alcoholic beverages. In certain emergency circumstances, it is recognized that employees may be recalled to duty during off duty hours where the operation of state vehicles is unplanned. Employees who have consumed alcoholic beverages and are asked to respond to work due to emergency
operational needs, must exercise caution, sound judgment, and prudence before responding.
284
13. Employees shall not actively participate in politics while on duty and/or in uniform. - HPM 10.3
A. True
B. False
A. True
285
14. Which of the following is not specifically prohibited as an “incompatible activity” in HMP 10.3, Chapter 14: - HPM 10.3
A. Uniformed employees shall not engage in secondary employment activity on the premises, nor be an owner, agent, or employee of a private ambulance company.
B. Uniformed employees shall not be involved in court referred traffic violator schools, and shall not perform any function in court referred traffic violator school when the amount of the salary depends on the number of attendees.
C. Employees shall not be an expert witness in vehicle accident related cases.
D. Uniformed employees shall not accept any paid political position in state or local government.
D. Uniformed employees shall not accept any paid political position in state or local government.
Page 14-D-1
The holding of any elective or appointive public office may be inconsistent or incompatible with the employee's duties and with the duties, functions, and
responsibilities of the CHP. Before accepting any appointment to or becoming a candidate for a public office, employees shall gain departmental approval as set forth
herein.
286
15. Incident Reports (CHP 2) should be utilized to accomplish the following: - HPM 10.3
A. Outstanding levels of performance
B. Efforts toward self-improvement
C. Methods for correcting inappropriate employee behavior
D. Any of the above
D. Any of the above
A. Outstanding levels of performance
B. Efforts toward self-improvement
C. Methods for correcting inappropriate employee behavior
287
16. An involved employee shall be afforded the opportunity to review and sign the CHP 2. In the event the employee refuses to sign the CHP 2, the supervisor shall indicate ____________. - HPM 10.3
A. Inform the employee that they are subject to further disciplinary action if they refuse to sign.
B. Notify the commander of the employee’s refusal.
C. Write “Refused to Sign” in the employee signature box.
D. Do nothing as the employees are not required to sign the CHP 2.
C. Write “Refused to Sign” in the employee signature box.
288
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17. An employee may file a written response within _____ days to any adverse comment. - HPM 10.3
A. 10 working days
B. 15 days
C 30 days
D. 60 Days
```
C 30 days
289
18. If an employee desires to have others in the Department informed of his/her medical condition, the employee shall: - HPM 10.3
A. Notify his/her immediate supervisor in writing of his desire.
B. Notify his/her area commander in writing of his desire.
C. Complete a CHP 282, Waiver of Medical Privacy Rights.
D. Complete a CHP 369, Authorization to Release Medical Information for Public Disclosure.
D. Complete a CHP 369, Authorization to Release Medical Information for Public Disclosure.
290
19. The maximum amount of sick leave an employee can accumulate is __: - HPM 10.3
A. 816 hours
B. 1002 hours
C. 1168 hours
D. There is no limit
D. There is no limit
291
20. Uniformed employees shall not be considered for overtime if the assignment would result in the employee working more than _____ hours in any 24 hour period. - HPM 10.3
A. 14 hours
B. 16.5 hours
C. 18 hours
D. 18.5 hours
B. 16.5 hours
292
1. Officers _______ (shall/should) not use OC spray at a distance of less than ___ feet, and _________ (shall/should) not spray it directly into a subject’s eyes at a distance of less than ___ feet. (Reference pg. 26-2) - HPM 70.6
A. Should - 3 - should - 5
B. Shall - 5 - should - 3
C. Shall - 3 - should – 6
D. Shall – 3 – should - 5
D. Shall – 3 – should - 5
293
2. An officer may discharge a weapon at an animal under all of the following circumstances, except. (2-4)- HPM 70.6
A. Self-defense or the defense of others
B. In order to kill an animal damaging a vehicle
C. Necessary to kill a critically injured animal
D. Necessary to destroy a rabid animal or one attacking livestock
B. In order to kill an animal damaging a vehicle
294
3. While on a hunting trip with several friends who are fellow officers with the CHP and allied agencies, an officer is climbing through some thick brush when his hunting rifle accidentally discharges. The round narrowly misses one of the hunting partners, and fortunately, no one is injured. The officer ___________ report the incident upon his return to duty. (2-8)- HPM 70.6
A. Shall
B. Should
C. Does not need to
C. Does not need to
295
4. Upon the conclusion of the investigation into an officer-involved shooting, the Memorandum of Findings will be retained in the officer’s Personnel File for. (2-20)- HPM 70.6
A. 3 years + the current year
B. Until the DA determines whether or not criminal charges will be filed.
C. 5 years + the current year
D. Until any potential civil proceedings have been resolved
E. 3 years
A. 3 years + the current year
296
5. After making an enforcement stop, the officer ________ (shall / should) turn off all emergency lighting that is no longer needed, unless in a location where other hazards exist. (3-4 & 3-18)- HPM 70.6
A. Shall
B. Should
B. Should
297
6. According to CVC section 21052, during normal vehicle operations, an officer _______ (shall / should) obey all provisions of the vehicle code. (5-3 & 5-4)- HPM 70.6
A. Should
B. Shall
B. Shall
298
7. If a pursuit is heading into an adjacent CHP area, or the jurisdiction of an allied agency, the supervisor ______ (shall / should) determine if the pursuit is going to be handed over to units from that area or the allied agency. (5-16)- HPM 70.6
A. Shall
B. Should
A. Shall
299
8. All of the following are methods of legal intervention to end a pursuit except. (5-18)- HPM 70.6
```
A. Channelization
B. Roadblocks
C. Ramming
D. Hollow Spike Strip
E. Blinding Techniques
F. Boxing-in
G. Use of firearms
```
E. Blinding Techniques
300
9. At the conclusion of a pursuit, the supervisor shall complete the CHP _____ Pursuit Report. The report shall be entered into the Pursuit Reporting System (PRS) within _____ days. (5-23)- HPM 70.6
A. CHP 268, 10 days
B. CHP 228, 5 days
C. CHP 50, 7 days
D. CHP 187, 10 days
D. CHP 187, 10 days
301
10. The recommended distances between the subject vehicle and patrol vehicles or motorcycles for conducting a felony stop is: (8-9, 8-13, & 8-26)- HPM 70.6
A. 35 feet for patrol vehicles and 45 feet for motorcycles
B. 20 feet for patrol vehicles and 50 feet for motorcycles
C. 50-75 feet for patrol vehicles and 30 feet for motorcycles
D. 30 feet for patrol vehicles and 50-75 feet for motorcycles
D. 30 feet for patrol vehicles and 50-75 feet for motorcycles
302
11. Normally, lights & sirens ____ not be used to respond to an accident scene. (14-1)- HPM 70.6
A. Shall
B. Should
B. Should
303
12. If a hostage situation occurs and allied agency resources are available, the supervisor ________ ( shall / should / may) transfer responsibility. (10-1)- HPM 70.6
A. Shall
B. Should
C. May
B. Should
304
13. After several units go on scene to a 20001, vehicle vs. ped, with possible life- threatening injuries, the OIC on scene requests permission from the on-duty sergeant to conduct a roadblock. Before approving the use of a roadblock, what are the two main considerations the sergeant should assess? (16-3)- HPM 70.6
A. What are the possible impacts on traffic utilizing the involved roadways, and is the ped someone important?
B. Whether the incident is serious enough to justify the action, and the time elapsed from the estimated time of the collision.
C. What is the nature of the crime, and whether there is information available to find a possible suspect?
D. Did this occur in a Southern Division area, and how “shocking” was the incident?
B. Whether the incident is serious enough to justify the action, and the time elapsed from the estimated time of the collision.
305
14. Prior to beginning an area OST day, the instructor assures that all live ammo has been removed from the training environment and that all weapons are clear. Before training begins, a sergeant who is in attendance at the training: (17-8)- HPM 70.6
A. shall confirm that the OST instructor has been recertified by the Academy within the last two years.
B. shall confirm that no one is carrying a knife, CEW, or OC spray
C. shall confirm that prior to personal weapons being discussed, all those in attendance are first taught about de-escalation techniques and incapacitating strikes
D. shall inspect each firearm, as well as loading devices, and confirm that all is safe.
D. shall inspect each firearm, as well as loading devices, and confirm that all is safe.
(3) A sergeant shall inspect the firearms and loading devices to be used by each participant, and confirm the training/certification is safe to proceed. The sergeant’s confirmation shall be noted by their signing and dating the training roster of participants, or the CHP 199 (“Remarks” section) if used.
This policy shall be adhered to except in those rare cases where compliance would create an undue hardship at times of extremely reduced sergeant staffing resources within a command.
306
15. An officer utilizing personal weapons in self-defense should attempt to strike vulnerable areas on the attacker. These include all of the following, except: (19-6)- HPM 70.6
```
A. Eyes
B. Throat
C. Groin
D. Breasts
E. Neck
F. Back
```
D. Breasts
307
16. All arrestees shall/should (circle one) be handcuffed in a position to the rear, except which of the following (circle all that apply): (21-1 & 21-2)- HPM 70.6
```
A. Sick
B. Members of protected classes
C. Injured
D. Disabled
E. Mentally disabled peds
F. Elderly
G. Morbidly obese
H. Visibly pregnant
```
```
A. Sick
C. Injured
D. Disabled
F. Elderly
H. Visibly pregnant
```
308
17. When an arrestee is being transferred from one officer to another: (22-1)- HPM 70.6
A. The receiving officer shall search the prisoner
B. The receiving officer shall confirm the prisoner is not a member of a protected class
C. The receiving officer should confirm that a full standing search has been conducted
D. The receiving officer shall confirm that a full standing search has been conducted
A. The receiving officer shall search the prisoner
309
18. A graveyard unit stops two vehicles suspected of 23109, and determines that both drivers are DUI. Each officer makes an arrest. With two prisoners, what are the recommended seating arrangements? (circle all that apply) (24-5)- HPM 70.6
A. Both prisoners seat-belted and red-strapped into the rear seats
B. Both prisoners seat-belted in the rear seats, with one officer seated in the middle
C. One prisoner in right rear, other in the middle, and one officer in the right front seat
D. One prisoner in right rear, other in the middle, and one officer in the left rear
E. One prisoner in the right front, other in the right rear, and one officer in left rear
F. One prisoner in the right rear, other in the trunk, and one officer in right front
D. One prisoner in right rear, other in the middle, and one officer in the left rear
E. One prisoner in the right front, other in the right rear, and one officer in left rear
310
19. While on duty, all officers (& sergeants) shall carry the side-handle baton, Monadnock PR-24 collapsible baton, or ASP, except when (circle all that apply): (25-1)- HPM 70.6
A. On a lunch breaks (encouraged but not mandatory)
B. Attending a funeral
C. In court
D. Carrying such a weapon would be impractical
E. Good judgment dictates
F. You’re too tired to carry it
G. The weapon clashes with your motor boots
A. On a lunch breaks (encouraged but not mandatory)
B. Attending a funeral
C. In court
E. Good judgment dictates
311
20. Monthly reports regarding the deployments of weapons systems such as the less- lethal shotgun shall be completed by: (28-4)- HPM 70.6
A. The end of the following month
B. 30-days following the last reported deployment
C. The tenth of the following month
D. By the end of the quarterly reporting period
C. The tenth of the following month
312
21. Before going 10-8, CEW’s will be checked out by officers starting their shift. After checking out a CEW, a ____________ test shall be performed, and _____________ shall only be issued after the test was done. (29-4)- HPM 70.6
```
A. Function / batteries
B. Spark / batteries
C. Battery / cartridges
D. Spark / cartridges
E. Performance / cartridges
F. Function / cartridges
G. Performance / batteries
```
D. Spark / cartridges
313
22. The optimal distance from which to deploy a CEW is: (29-5)- HPM 70.6
```
A. 25 feet
B. 9 – 12 feet
C. 7 – 15 feet
D. 12 – 24 feet
E. 6 feet
```
C. 7 – 15 feet
314
23. Following a CEW deployment, the first option for probe removal is: (29-10)- HPM 70.6
A. Officers shall remove the probes following procedures laid out in policy (found in HPM 70.6, chapter 29).
B. Officers should remove probes, being sure to follow proper procedures
C. Authorized medical personnel should be consulted regarding possible injuries prior to probe removal
D. Transport to a medical facility and allow medical personnel to remove the probes
E. Officers should request a supervisor to the scene to document probe sites and removal process
D. Transport to a medical facility and allow medical personnel to remove the probes
If transportation of the subject would be impractical because of the location of the probes, the second option is for the officer to remove the proves at the scene using the following procedures:
a. protective gloves, remove the probes
b. probes shall be treated as sharp and shall be sealed in an appropriate container
c. probe area shall be swabbed with an antiseptic wipe, and a first aide adhesive strip applied.
all probes shall be inserted in the cartridge. the cartridge should be dealt with as a biohazard and booked into evidence. shall exclude any cartridges and probes utilized for training.
if EMT is present, he shall check the subjects vital signs
if probes are still imbedded in the subject, avoid transporting the subject in a position that would foreseeably further embed the probes in the subject.
315
24. If CEW probes are located in the following areas, officers shall not remove them (circle all that apply): (29-11)- HPM 70.6
```
A. Groin
B. Head & eyes
C. Neck
D. Armpits
E. Breast area of females
F. Spinal column
G. Nerve endings
H. Ticklish locations
I. Joints
J. Fingers
```
```
A. Groin
B. Head & eyes
C. Neck
E. Breast area of females
F. Spinal column
I. Joints
```
316
25. CHP Policy lists/defines _____ force options. These are (circle all that apply): (1-5 & 1-6)- HPM 70.6
```
A. Hand & Feet strikes
B. Control Holds
C. Incapacitating Strikes
D. CEW
E. Taser
F. Personal Weapons
G. OC Spray
H. Demeanor
I. Verbal Judo
J. De-escalation techniques
K. Tactical Communication
L. Command Presence
M. Baton
N. Less-lethal shotgun
O. Excessive Force
P. Extreme Force
Q. Self-defense techniques
R. Deadly Force
S. Zombie Defense Techniques (ZDT)
T. MHR unit-approved methods
```
```
B. Control Holds
D. CEW
F. Personal Weapons
G. OC Spray
M. Baton
N. Less-lethal shotgun
R. Deadly Force
```
317
1) The CHP 415 Daily Field Report is used to collect information regarding timekeeping data, and the activities of CHP Officers, ________ , and __________ __________. - HPM 40.71
a. Sergeants, Designated Employees.
318
2) What is the 415C used for? - HPM 40.71
a. Emergency incident reporting.
319
3) Line entries on the Right Side of the CHP 415 are used as an accurate and complete chronological record to record start time, _________ _________ , _________ , ________ ________ , and demographic data. - HPM 40.71
a. elapsed time
b. beat
c. activity code.
320
4) The requirements of REGULAR WORK SHIFT in section 3 of the CHP 415 are that officers and sergeants covered by the provisions of the Fair Labor Standards Act may not exceed the work shift (8, 9, 10, or 12 hours), plus a combination of up to ___ minutes of business call time. - HPM 40.71 4-3
a. 29.
overtime duty code 47 for calls that exceed 29minutes. must be approved and signed by a supervisor. shall record the total number of minutes expended to the nearest exact minute.
321
5) Vacation, Sick (self), Sick (Family), Personal Leave (PLP1), old/self sick leave - Code "s", Family Death - Code "U", old/family sick leave - code "w", time must be taken in _______ ______ ______ increments? - HPM 40.71
a. one half hour
322
6) What increments are used when charging Injury Leave Credits, Bereavement, Injury - 4800 Time/IDL, Jury Duty, Military Leave, subpoenaed witness, Excess in lieu - Code "T", Punitive Suspense - Code "x"? - HPM 40.71
a. Hourly Increments.
323
7) Miscellaneous Time Off – Code Z is reported to the nearest ___ _________ __________? - HPM 40.71
a. 15 minute increment.
```
Examples:
Medical Exam (scif or department)
Admin Time off
Voting (max 2 hours)
Funerals (for active and retired)
Counseling (departmental required)
Retirement Seminar (aged 50 and older)
Temporary Disability (where 4800 eligibility has been exhausted)
Holiday Informal Time off - 4 hour increments only
PLP 2 - Half hour increments
Voluntary PLP - Half hour increments
Recruitment Time Off - Half hour Increments
```
324
8) Overtime Duty Code 06 is time all time spent by ______, ________, and _______ ________ in office supervision, travel, and supervision on the beat, and conducting briefings. - HPM 40.71
a. Sgt’s.
b. Acting Sgt’s.
c. Designated OIC’s.
325
9) A signature box is provided for ____________ approval of all overtime claimed. - HPM 40.71
a. Supervisor’s
326
10) Activities relating to direct field supervision of officers involved in road patrol duties are charged to ______ ____. - HPM 40.71
a. Beat 822
327
1. Who shall attend the yearly FTEP Conferences hosted by each Divisions? - HPM 10.11
a. The Division Coordinator and all areas FTEP coordinators/alternates (and the statewide FTEP coordinator if possible)
328
2. What rank are area FTEP coordinators? - HPM 10.11
a. Sergeants and should not be probationary sergeants
329
3. Who makes the final recommendation to the area commander concerning training extensions and successful completion of the program? - HPM 10.11
a. The Area FTEP coordinator.
330
4. How many days is the “Orientation Period” in phase one and who supervises this period? - HPM 10.11
a. It is 5 days long, classroom setting, supervised by Area FTEP coordinator.
331
5. The first 6 days of phase 1 and the first days of phase 2&3 are referred to as ___________? - HPM 10.11
a. Limbo Days
332
6. Normal training duration is 55 days. Trainees still experiences significant problems may be given a 10 day extension to overcome those problems. Is this extension mandatory? - HPM 10.11
a. No.
333
7. When should trainees be granted an extension? - HPM 10.11
a. When the problem area is able to be remediated or corrected. If the trainee does not have the ability to learn the job, training is not extended.
334
8. In the event a CHP 115F – Field Training Officer Critique, reveals substandard performance by the FTO, who is responsible for discussing actions or recommendations with area management? - HPM 10.11
a. Area FTEP Coordinator
335
9. A complete set of CHP 115 series forms within _____ days of the conclusion of the training cycle? - HPM 10.11
a. 10 days. And all forms shall be treated as confidential.
336
10. During what phase must the area FTEP coordinator participate in a ride-a-long? - HPM 10.11
a. Phase 3. However, they may participate in more and are encouraged to informally observe trainees.
337
1. Before a sergeant can obtain a substance abuse test of a uniformed employee he must first notify: - HPM 9.2
a) The Admin Sergeant
b) Confirming Official
c) Captain
b) Confirming Official
338
2. How much urine should be obtained for a substance abuse test? - HPM 9.2
a) 50 milliliters
b) 40 milliliters
c) 60 milliliters
d) 70 milliliters
c) 60 milliliters
339
3. In regard to chemical testing the _______ is the designated manager in the supervisor’s chain of command? - HPM 9.2
a) Commander
b) Division Commander
c) Confirming Official
d) Area Representative
c) Confirming Official
340
4. The ______ shall make the final determination of the test result? - HPM 9.2
a) Division Commander
b) Appropriate Assistant Chief
c) Confirming Official
d) Medical Review Officer
d) Medical Review Officer
341
5. What are the five (5) critical elements of a successful substance abuse program? - HPM 9.2
a) Consistency, Confirmation, Collection, Chain of Custody, and Control and Contracts
b) Crisis Intervention, Collection, Confirmation, Command, and Control
c) Detection, Determination, Documentation, Distribution, and Dismissal
d) None of the Above
a) Consistency, Confirmation, Collection, Chain of Custody, and Control and Contracts
342
6. The supervisor should complete the reasonable suspicion report and provide a copy to the affected employee within ____ hours. - HPM 9.2
a) 24
b) 36
c) 48
d) 72
c) 48
343
7. An employee who reports to work with alcohol on his/her breath but determined not under the influence should be_____________________ - HPM 9.2
a) Taken to the nearest detention facility
b) Placed on dock status for the remainder of the shift
c) Returned to full duty as the employee is not under the influence
d) Immediately referred to DPA for termination proceedings
b) Placed on dock status for the remainder of the shift
344
8. Negative test results and the documentation regarding reasonable suspicion for the test will be maintained separate from the employee’s personnel file for ____________ or until such time as any litigation arising from circumstances leading to the test has concluded, whichever is longer. (HPM 9.2, p. 10-2). - HPM 9.2
a) Three (3) years
b) Five (5) years
c) Seven (7) years
d) Indefinitely
b) Five (5) years
345
9. The supervisor who made the initial determination of reasonable suspicion must document the report on the ____________. (HPM 9.2. p. 11-1).
a) CHP 216 and marked SECRET
b) CHP 216 and marked CONFIDENTIAL
c) CHP 202 and marked SECRET
d) CHP 202 and marked CONFIDENTIAL
d) CHP 202 and marked CONFIDENTIAL
346
10. The Confirming Official is defined as ___________________. - HPM 9.2
a) The Area Commander of the investigated employee
b) The Academy EMS unit
c) The First designated manager in the supervisor’s chain of command
d) The investigated employee’s designated Association Representative
c) The First designated manager in the supervisor’s chain of command
347
11. The _______________ plays the most important role in any successful substance testing program. - HPM 9.2
a) Rank and File Employee
b) First Line Supervisor
c) Confirming Official
d) Executive Management Team
b) First Line Supervisor
348
12. Upon receiving test results from the laboratory, the Medical Review officer __________ provide a written explanation of the test results to the Commissioner for review and consideration. - HPM 9.2
a) May
b) Should
c) Shall
d) Can
c) Shall
349
13. The Medical Review Officer (MRO) must be; - HPM 9.2
a) A Division Chief
b) A Licensed Physician
c) The supervisor who completed the reasonable suspicion report
d) A representative from Internal Affairs
b) A Licensed Physician
350
14. According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, who is responsible for making the final determination of test results for employees suspected of substance abuse? - HPM 9.2
a) The testing laboratory
b) The Commissioner
c) An approved, state physician
d) The Medical Review Officer
d) The Medical Review Officer
351
15. If transportation is necessary of a suspect employee of substance abuse who should transport the employee to an approved medical or custodial facility? - HPM 9.2
a) The officer who made the initial observation and developed the reasonable suspicion should personally transport the employee
b) The supervisor who made the initial observation and developed the reasonable suspicion should personally transport the employee
c) The employee should personally transport themselves, to be followed by the supervisor so that the supervisor can make additional observations of impairment
d) The confirming official who confirmed the reasonable suspicion should personally transport the employee
b) The supervisor who made the initial observation and developed the reasonable suspicion should personally transport the employee
352
16. It is not necessary to secure the sample in a refrigerated state while waiting for the pick up? - HPM 9.2
a) True
b) False
a) True
353
17. You are a supervisor who suspects that an employee is under the influence. The employee refuses to cooperate at any stage of the collection process, and as the supervisor you order him/her to cooperate and advise the employee that failure to do so may subject him/her to disciplinary action for insubordination. You do not attempt or threaten to use physical force to secure the sample. However, in any instance where criminal prosecution is contemplated, normal arrest and evidence collection procedures should be utilized? - HPM 9.2
a) True
b) False
a) True
354
18. Positive and Negative results of employee samples will be communicated directly to who first? - HPM 9.2
a) Medical Review Officer (MRO)
b) The employee’s commander
c) The employee
d) The employee’s supervisor
a) Medical Review Officer (MRO)
355
19. The substance testing process is a very serious procedure, and the first-line supervisor will be dealing with the involved employee from the time reasonable suspicion first arises until the results of the test are known. Throughout that period, which may span several days, the supervisor SHOULD base his/her actions on concern for all of the following? - HPM 9.2
a) Safety of the employee and others
b) Potential disciplinary action up to and including dismissal
c) Proper enforcement of the state’s substance abuse rules
d) Employee rights and privacy
e) b and c only
f) b and d only
g) a through d only
g) a through d only
a) Safety of the employee and others
b) Potential disciplinary action up to and including dismissal
c) Proper enforcement of the state’s substance abuse rules
d) Employee rights and privacy
356
20. Supervisors ___________ required to provide the employee with immediate documentation of the cause for reasonable suspicion? - HPM 9.2
a) Are
b) Are not
b) Are not
357
21. A positive test will result from a blood alcohol level of _______ percent for substance testing per policy? - HPM 9.2
a) .04
b) .02
c) .06
d) .08
a) .04
A positive test will result from a blood alcohol level of .04 percent for substance testing versus the .08 percent for driving under the influence. Supervisors must remember, however, that any detected level of alcohol is prohibited by the statement of Inconsistent and Incompatible Activities. (Refer to HPM 10.3, Personnel Transactions Manual, Chapter 14, Inconsistent and Incompatible Activities.) As such, adverse action can be sought by citing Government Code (GC) Section 19572(r) – Violations of Prohibitions Set Forth in Accordance with Section 19990 GC.
358
22. The DPA rules provide for a ______ test as the primary means of determining whether or not an employee has abused drugs? - HPM 9.2
a) Blood
b) Saliva
c) Urine
d) Breath
c) Urine
359
23. To secure the best possible sample, the employee ________ be allowed to void his/her bladder until the collection of the sample - HPM 9.2
a) Shall not
b) Shall be allowed if employee drinks plenty of water
c) Should not
d) Should be allowed if employee drinks plenty of water afterwards
c) Should not
360
It is the policy of the CHP to provide equal employment opportunities for all persons without regard to ____, _____, ________, _______ _______, ________, ___, ___ (includes _______ _________and _______ ________), _________ or ________ __________, __________ __________ / _________, ______ _______, ______ ___________, or ________ _________.
(HPM 10.12 CH. 1)
race, color, religion, national origin, ancestry, age, sex (includes sexual harassment and gender identity), physical or mental disability, political affiliation / opinion, marital status, sexual orientation, or medical condition
361
2. Who is responsible for assuring that Equal Employment Opportunity (EEO) Program information is disseminated to all current and new employees within their jurisdiction?
(HPM 10.12 CH. 1)
Managers and supervisors shall be familiar with EEO policies and shall assure the dissemination of EEO Program information to all employees within their command.
362
3. It is the responsibility of _____ ___________ to provide a climate of support for the Department’s EEO policies.
(HPM 10.12 CH. 1)
Answer: all employees
363
4. Office of Equal Employment Opportunity (OEEO) will serve as resource and provide guidance to a command which has been identified with a public contact rate of _______ or more, in any given language.
(HPM 10.12 CH. 10)
Answer: 2.5%
364
5. A person with a disability is anyone who has a physical or mental impairment which limits one or more of that person's __________________; “Has a record of or history of” such impairment, or has been classified as, having a physical or mental impairment; or is regarded as having an impairment.
(HPM 10.12 CH. 4)
Answer: major life activities
365
6. Can the Department discipline, discharge, or deny employment to an employee who is an alcoholic?
(HPM 10.12 CH. 4)
Answer: Yes, if the alcoholic’s job performance or conduct is impaired to the point that he or she is not a “qualified person with a disability”.
366
7. It is the CHP’s policy that serious consideration shall be given to providing reasonable accommodation to the known physical and/or mental disabilities of all qualified persons unless it can be demonstrated that the accommodation would (1) ________________________ or________________________.
(HPM 10.12 CH. 4)
Answer: cause an undue hardship on the operation of departmental programs or if it can be shown that the person would pose a direct threat to the health or safety of themselves or others.
367
8. A sustained discrimination complaint based on medical condition may involve an employee whose cancer is in remission but the employee is not given a promotion because of the fear of the potential for recurrence and the ensuing impact on the employee’s ability to perform the job.
True or False
(HPM 10.12 CH.2 )
Answer: True
368
9. In the informal level EEO process, the complainant has ___ ________ from the last incident to contact an EEO counselor regarding discrimination-related issues.
(HPM 10.12 CH.6)
Answer: 11 months
369
10. Can an Officer participate in the upward mobility program?
(HPM 10.12 CH. 11)
Answer: No
Supervisor Responsibility:
(1) Apprise new employees of the availability of the Upward Mobility Program.
(2) Encourage eligible employees to investigate opportunities for upward mobility through promotion or transfer.
(3) Ensure employees are informed of all upward mobility opportunities (e.g., posting and/or routing Comm-Net and examination announcements).
(4) Review the participating employee’s CHP 50B as part of the annual performance evaluation to ensure compliance with program eligibility and continuation.
(5) Evaluate the employee’s potential for a new or higher level assignment and make appropriate recommendations on the employee’s CHP 50B.
(6) Coordinate with the Office of Equal Employment Opportunity (OEEO) and Human Resource Section, Selections, Standards, and Examinations Unit (SSEU) for the appropriateness of desired movement and contemplated options.
370
11. Equal employment opportunity investigators have the responsibility for inquiring into, and reporting findings of fact on, formal complaints alleging ___________, ____________, or ______________ in departmental employment practices covering recruitment, selection, appointment, compensation,
transfer, training, and other terms and conditions of employment.
(HPM 10.12 CH. 6)
Answer: discrimination, harassment, or retaliation
371
12. Can an employee with a mobility impairment who finds it difficult to maneuver during peak periods on public transportation request to be allowed to start his working shift earlier or later?
(HPM 10.12 CH. 5)
Answer: Yes. This is an example of reasonable accommodation.
372
13. Would broken limbs, sprains, concussions, appendicitis, common colds, or influenza generally be considered disabilities?
(HPM 10.12 CH. 4)
Answer: No.
373
14. Based on a policy of no age discrimination, the CHP will hire an applicant for cadet regardless of age. True or False?
(HPM 10.12 CH. 2)
Answer: False. This policy does not apply to the positions of law enforcement
374
16. One employee leering at another could be considered sexual harassment. True or false?
(HPM 10.12 CH. 3)
Answer: True. Such conduct has the potential to create an intimidating, hostile, or otherwise offensive work environment.
375
17. A person who is an alcoholic is an "individual with a disability" under the law.
True or false?
(HPM 10.12 CH. 4)
Answer: True
However, the Department may discipline, terminate, or deny employment to an alcoholic whose use of alcohol impairs job performance or conduct no longer qualifies them as a person with a disability.
376
18. When an individual who has alcoholism is often late to work or is unable to perform the responsibilities of his/her job, can the employer take disciplinary action?
(HPM 10.12 CH. 4)
Answer: Yes. However, an employer may not discipline an alcoholic employee more severely than it does other employees for the same performance or conduct.
377
19. At the informal level, the complainant who is not satisfied with the results of the EEO counselor’s inquiry may file a discrimination complaint with the Division chief within ____ _______ ______from the date of receipt of the EEO counselor’s CHP 612B.
(HPM 10.12 CH. 6)
Answer: ten working days
378
20. If the complainant has a discrimination issue and does not wish to file a complaint, the counselor shall document the issues, alleged discriminatory employee(s), requested remedy, and statement indicating the employee does not wish to pursue their claim at this time.
(TRUE/FALSE)
(HPM 10.12 6-18)
True-
This shall be documented on a CHP 612B, Written Report of Inquiry, Informal Discrimination Complaint to the appropriate Division chief within five working days for review and action as necessary.
379
1) Shift supervisors are responsible for instilling in each enforcement officer a lasting personal interest and sense of individual obligation to prevent traffic collisions on his/her assigned beat. (True/False) (Chapter 1, Pg. 1-4) -- HPM 100.68
True
380
2) Officers (Should/Shall) not conduct enforcements stops for the primary purpose of drug interdiction in the absence of probable cause or reasonable suspicion to believe the motorist is involved in illegal drug-related activity. (Chapter 1, Pg. 1-4) -- HPM 100.68
Shall
381
3) Officers should be encouraged to cite on a single 215, multiple moving violations if so observed. (True/False) (Chapter 1, Pg. 1-6) -- HPM 100.68
False - should normally charge a single, major, hazardous violation observed during the continuing movement immediately prior to the enforcement stop. - Other charges are permitted when there is clear cut evidence of other violation not connected to the major violation, i.e. registration, mechanical, open container, etc... Multiple moving violations can be charged under reckless driving as long as it meets the elements of that offense
382
4) Officers (Should/Shall) not conduct enforcement stops based on Racial Profiling.
(Chapter 1, Pg. 1-5) -- HPM 100.68
Shall - Senate Bill 1102 defines racial profiling as the practice of detaining a suspect without any individualized suspicion of the particular person being stopped.
383
5) A well-seasoned beat officer was commenting on how many of his arrests were solely based on stops initiated merely because he had a “hunch that they are up to no good,” and that sometimes he “stretches” the reason for some of those stops.
Based on the elements within the above scenario, is this officer’s acts considered within policy? (Chapter 1, Pg. 1-5) -- HPM 100.68
No - Officers must have specific and articulable facts to support their determination; a mere suspicion or "hunch" is not sufficient.
384
6) Officers are allowed to use discretion in their decisions to physically arrest Felony violators as prescribed by law. (True/False) (Chapter 2, pg. 2-3) -- HPM 100.68
False - Officers Shall physically arrest all felony violators as prescribed by law.
385
7) Officers may immediately physically arrest violators who refuse to sign a CHP 215, without supervisor approval. (True/False) (Chapter 2, pg. 2-4) -- HPM 100.68
False - When a violator refuses to sign, the officer shall direct the violators attention to "without admitting guilt, i promise to appear...."
Should explain that signing is like bail, which is required for release if taken before a magistrate
If arrest appears imminent, officers SHALL notify an on-duty supervisor who will determine the appropriate course of action.
If the violator wants to sign when in transport to the jail, he shall be allowed to do so.
*once the booking process has begun, the violator is in the jailer's custody and cannot be released by the arresting officer
386
8) Officers are strictly forbidden to escort a minor into an adult detention facility for the purposes of conducting a chemical test. (True/False) (Chapter 2, Pg. 2-8) -- HPM 100.68
False - minors arrested for DUI may be escorted into an Adult jail or detention facility for the purpose of administrating an evaluation, test, or chemical test for alcohol or drugs. Minor shall not be locked in a room or cell, is under continuous supervision, and is not permitted to contact with in-custody adults.
387
9) Officer Barker contacts you as his Sgt. by cell phone for guidance. He explains that he was requested by dispatch to respond to a waiting motorist that has detained another for allegedly throwing an object at their vehicle. Ofc. Barker further explains that he has concluded that there is no evidence of damage, no evidence of the object found near the stop or explained scene, and he feels that the plaintiff is holding back information about either a previous altercation between the two parties (they might know each other) or a possible “road-rage” incident that occurred between the two. The other driver explains in detail, information the plaintiff did not provide: The plaintiff had been ahead of him previously where he began to “brake-check” the defendant. The plaintiff then pulled to the side of the road and began following him to the “Qwikie Mart” parking lot.
Based on the lack of physical evidence and no independent witness information, he explains that the plaintiff still demands physical arrest of the other driver.
Officer Barker must take custody of the other driver. (True/False) (Chapter 2, pgs. 2-10)
-- HPM 100.68
True - uniformed employees shall take custody of a person arrested by a private person. If the facts of the arrest become known to the officer and the officer is satisfied that there are insufficient grounds for making a criminal complaint against the person arrested, the arrested party should be released from custody pursuant to section 849(b)(1) PC.
- Upon release, issue a CHP 103, certificate of release from custody, Should normally be issued by a supervisor and in duplicate, original for the area and duplicate for the released party
- document the incident and circumstances surrounding the release on a memorandum to the area
388
10) Ofc. Smythe contacts you as his Shift Sgt. and explains that his 10-15 appears to be “claiming he is sick,” as there appeared to be “absolutely nothing wrong with him prior to handcuffs.” He adds that they are almost to the jail and the 10-15 desires to go to the hospital.
Ofc. Smythe must re-direct and take his in-custody to the hospital; which is 15 miles back from the jail. (True/False) (Chapter 2, pg. 2-17) -- HPM 100.68
True - officer shall arrange for a medical examination whenever a prisoner appears to be in need of or requesting medical attention, regardless of the outward symptoms of illness or injury.
389
11) Ofc. Nuby, new to the area straight from the Academy, explains that a senior officer explained “a little about using a stopwatch and overpasses as reference points” to determine speed of a vehicle. He adds that the particular officer is on a RDO and would like to know if you (as his Shift Sgt.) could explain the process to him so he can conduct speed stops, as he has not yet been certified in the use of RADAR.
It is okay to explain this process to him and encourage the use of it until Ofc. Nuby becomes RADAR certified. (True/False) (Chapter 3, pg. 3-3) -- HPM 100.68
False - the technique of determining a potential violators speed by employing the patrol vehicle odometer, a stop watch, and a calculator or similar devise is called the Computer Average Speed (CAS) method. it is prohibited from being used and meets the definition of a speed trap. it is not legal under section 40801 vc.
390
12) Deployment of Primary Collision Factor Vehicle’s (PCFVs) focused on: (Chapter 3, pg. 3-8) -- HPM 100.68
1. Roadways with a high concentration of commercial vehicles
2. Roadways with an identified high incidence of fatal and/ or injury collisions regardless of vehicle type.
3. Primarily freeways
4. Roadways with a high concentration of pedestrians and/or bicyclists
2. Roadways with an identified high incidence of fatal and/ or injury collisions regardless of vehicle type.
other focal points:
roadways where traditional strategies have been ineffective
roadways identified by command warranting supplemental and/or selective enforcement
391
13) In an effort to reduce congestion on the freeways caused by stranded motorists, it is appropriate for tow companies to “cruise” the freeways in an attempt to solicit their services. (True/False) (Chapter 3, pg. 3-10, 11) -- HPM 100.68
False - if the tow truck is coming from or going to a call for service, they may occasionally stop. Tow companies may not solicit business by cruising the roadways, except those that are providing service under FSP
392
14) Ofc. B. Brady contacts you as his shift Sgt. and explains that he has stopped a motorist for suspicion of 23103 VC, only to find that the passenger is very ill and the driver is attempting to get the passenger to the nearest hospital. Ofc. Brady further explains that he offered to provide a ride to the passenger, as it would be quicker than waiting for an ambulance; but the passenger politely declines both an ambulance and the ride. Fearing the driver may continue at an unsafe and rapid pace, he desires to force the passenger to accept the ride.
Ofc. Brady can force the passenger to accept the ride. (True/False)
(Chapter 3, pg. 12, 13) -- HPM 100.68
False - READ page 3-12/3-13 for further explanation
393
15) The Department is not concerned with aiding Cal Trans in enforcement of their regulations regarding roadside rest areas or vista points. (True/False)
(Chapter 3, pg. 3-18) -- HPM 100.68
False - department SHALL assist caltrans in the enforcement of rules and regulations governing the use of roadside rest areas and vista points
394
16) Ofc. McBrown has been bragging to the squad about stopping and writing numerous citations to motorcyclists she determined were not wearing DOT-approved helmets, as they appeared to be obvious in their lack of safety, referring to them as “beanie helmets.”
Ofc. McBrown is doing a great job and should keep it up according to policy.
(True/False) (Chapter 4, pg. 4-4) -- HPM 100.68
False - shall not cite for hard shell beanie-type helmets and shall not seize any helmets as evidence.
Supervisor approval shall be obtained before citing a motorcyclist for wearing any type of head covering an officer determines is not a motorcycle helmet.
a photograph should be obtained at the time of the stop as evidence.
no helmet at all - shall not be correctable
anything on the head other than a helmet - shall be correctable
395
17) Policy states use of a “pocket bike” is the equivalent of operating a motor scooter and is allowed on the highways, providing the operator has a valid Class C CADL and is wearing protective gear. (True/False) (Chapter 4, pgs. 4-11) -- HPM 100.68
False - does not have the 17 digit vin and is not manufactured for highway use. it is intended for private property and does not meet the criteria of a motor vehicle for highway use.
396
18) Complaints from local residents residing within a gated community have been rolling in explaining that other residents have been operating their Low-Speed-Vehicles outside the community in order to make runs to the grocery store, located in a un-incorporated area of the county under CHP jurisdiction. The complaints are that the road they travel on is a posted 50 MPH zone and the LSVs hold up traffic, as their top speed is 25 MPH.
Low speed vehicles (LSVs) are permitted to be operated on any highway, regardless of speed zone.
(True/False) (Chapter 4, pg 4-13) -- HPM 100.68
False - can be operated on certain public roadways with specific conditions
397
19) Numerous complaints of noise and 23103 VC activity is rolling in from residents, explaining that juveniles on dirt-bikes are riding on the roadways; but whenever CHP arrives on scene, they have either already left, or quickly exit onto private lands in the hills difficult for vehicle travel.
Your officers are encouraged to travel onto terrain difficult for vehicle travel in order to catch these young hooligans.
(True/False) (Chapter 4, pg. 4-17) -- HPM 100.68
False - violators should be not be pursued into areas not intended for vehicular use
citizen complaints against motor vehicles operating off highway should be referred to the appropriate police or sheriffs department for investigation
398
20) In an effort to pick up his activity, Ofc. Wankle has been stepping up his enforcement of seat-belt violations. He comments on how easy it is to nab violators on graveyards, because he knows the “paper-delivery boys never wear their seatbelt.”
Ofc. Wankle should be commended on his 100 form for his efforts, as he is correct in citing these paper-delivery personnel regardless if they are engaged in the process of delivering papers.
(True/False) (Chapter 5, pg. 5-6) -- HPM 100.68
False - Seatbelts are mandated in all motor vehicles with the following exemptions:
1. taxi operators within the city with a fare paying customer
2. rural postal carriers while delivering and collecting mail
3. newspaper delivery persons while actually engaged in delivery
4. persons with certified disabilities - cert must be in possession
5. emergency employees unless mandated by department
399
21) Officer calls you (as his shift Sgt.) via cell-phone, explaining that he has stopped a pick-up truck carrying two passengers in the rear of the bed that appear to be secured in after-market seats, installed by the owner. They are wearing seat-belts; but he is concerned, as he knows the vehicle did not come from the factory in this condition and the seats were custom-installed.
You explain that if it appears that the owner has made a good-faith effort to comply with requirements set forth by FMVSS, Ofc. Kadet should issue a verbal warning regarding the dangers of riding in the pick-up truck bed.
(True/False) (Chapter 5, pg. 5-13) -- HPM 100.68
True - officers should exercise sound professional judgement when evaluating the suitability of seating and restraint systems, and in taking enforcement actions
It appears the owner of the vehicle has made a good faith effort tocomply with the requirements. The provisions of FMVSS Standard Nos.207, 209, and 210 specifically do not apply to aftermarket seating or restraint devices except as replacement parts for original equipment. However, these standards are applicable to aftermarket seating devices that are retrofitted into the rear of pickup and flatbed motor trucks to comply with Section 23116 CVC.
400
22) It is OK to issue citations for violations of CVC section 16028(a)—Failure to present evidence of Financial Responsibility (FR) whenever you are given scrawled information for insurance company name and a policy number on a plain piece of paper. The information needs to at least be printed on an official form. (True/False) -- HPM 100.68 5-15/5-16
False - Section 16028(b) CVC requires that the evidence be written or provided electronically using a mobile electronic device.
The CVC states the officer may cite Section 16028(a) CVC; however, it is the policy of the Department that officers SHALL cite that violation.
401
23) Mail Carriers are permitted to stop on the main traveled portion of the highway in order to deliver mail, even if there is sufficient space to stop on the shoulder.
(True/False) (Chapter 5, pg. 5-23) -- HPM 100.68
False - A United States mail carrier shall not stop or park on the main traveled portion of a highway when the highway is of sufficient width to allow stopping or parking off the main traveled portion of the highway.
402
24) Officers should be encouraged to routinely patrol off-street parking facilities in order to ensure compliance of disabled-parking provisions of the CVC.
(True/False) (Chapter 5, pg. 5-31) -- HPM 100.68
False - While it is not the Department’s responsibility to routinely patrol off-street parking facilities, officers should be alert for violations of Sections 22507.8(a) and 22507.8(b) CVC in the course of their regularly assigned duties.
403
25) The CVC prohibition against drivers using digital two-way radios that utilize a cellular telephone that operates by depressing a push button does NOT apply to truck drivers, taxi-cab drivers, delivery drivers, or tow truck drivers (True/False)? (Chapter 5) -- HPM 100.68
False
404
1. ( True / False ) Only authorized personnel are allowed to enter a crime scene. -- HPM 70.1
TRUE
405
2. Money _________(Shall/should) be counted by two employees, One of whom (shall/should) be a supervisor. -- HPM 70.1
shall / SHOULD
- Both shall initial the evidence form next to the amount.
- Money should be documented on a CHP 308, Asset Forfeiture Financial Tally.
- Money in excess of $1,000, seized as evidence or for safe keeping, shall not be stored in an evidence locker/cabinet (including pass-through cabinets). Such items shall be secured inside the evidence room, a secure safe, an allied agency evidence room, or a safety deposit box (cash only) at a financial institution.
- During normal business hours when such items need to be secured, the Area evidence officer, alternate, or Area commander shall be notified to immediately secure and process these items. Outside of normal business
hours, one of the above individuals shall be notified and respond to the Area office to secure and process these items.
- The arresting officer or a supervisor shall maintain control of these items until properly processed. No expenditure of funds for storage of evidence or
property will be made until required by a specific incident.
- Booking large sums of money into evidence, not qualifying for asset forfeiture, should be placed into an interest bearing account. Contact shall be made with the Asset Forfeiture Coordinator within the Area, Division, or Field Support Section to determine whether the money qualifies for asset forfeiture.
- If the money does not qualify for Asset Forfeiture, contact the evidence coordinator at the Office of Internal Affairs for guidance.
- Money forwarded to Fiscal Management Section (FMS) shall include instruction on its disposition, such as “evidence considered close on (date)” or “convert and closed after (date).”
- Money booked as evidence shall be forwarded to FMS on a CHP 230, Transmittal Record.
- Authorization shall be obtained from the district or city attorney prior to transferring or converting money booked as evidence.
NOTE: Currency that is contaminated with hazardous materials such as a controlled substance or mold, shall be forwarded to FMS. It shall be double bagged and marked as hazardous prior to sending to FMS. Badly damaged currency shall also be forwarded to FMS. Do not commingle these items with non-contaminated currency. Keep evidence separate and maintain proper
documentation.
406
3. Evidence officers should purge on a _____________basis. -- HPM 70.1 9-4
(WEEKLY)
Daily purging is advisable in offices with a significant volume of evidence. The status of cases shall be checked as described below. Remember to check the status for all defendants and all charges. This requires a thorough check of court records.
Pending adjudication, evidence shall be held for the
time prescribed by law. These time limits are in Sections 799 - 804 PC (Statute of Limitations).
(1) Offenses punishable by death or life imprisonment; or which involve the embezzlement of public money or falsification of public documents: hold indefinitely.
(2) Felony sexual offenses: hold for ten years.
(3) Offenses punishable by imprisonment for eight years or more: hold for six years.
(4) 368 PC felonies (except theft or embezzlement): hold for 5 years.
(5) Offenses punishable by imprisonment in state prison (all other felonies not covered above): hold for three years.
(6) Misdemeanors/infractions (except 647.6 PC and 729 B&P): hold for one year.
Before disposal of evidence in non-adjudicated felony and misdemeanor cases, but after the Statute of Limitations has run, the evidence officer shall conduct a warrant check on all the involved defendants to determine if there are outstanding arrest warrants related to the case.
407
4. (True/False) Wet marijuana may be stored in a plastic bag or container. -- HPM 70.1 5-7
(FALSE)
Do not store in plastic while wet, as it can grow mold/spores (Aspergillosis) that are a health hazard. If the mold or spores are inhaled, they can cause serious injury or death. Storing in plastic while wet will also deteriorate the marijuana to the point that it looses its evidentiary value. Store wet or damp marijuana in paper bags. Officers should dry wet marijuana in a dryer prior to
packaging.
NOTE: In cases where the Department confiscates live marijuana plants, the plants shall not be removed from the soil or container. Potted plants should be stored in paper bags, cardboard container, or wrapped in paper material. The seizing officer shall photograph the plant in its original state prior to packaging. The Department is under no legal authority to care for the plants.
408
5. The two methods of destruction for controlled substance are? -- HPM 70.1
a. Department conducts its own burn.
| b. Allied agency controlled substances burn.
409
9. An inventory shall be conducted by the evidence supervisor at least ____________. -- HPM 70.1
(ANNUALY)
410
10. Nuisance weapons __________(shall/should) not be released. -- HPM 70.1 11-3
(SHALL NOT)
Nuisance weapons are any weapons prohibited under
Section 16590 Penal Code (PC). Included is any weapon used in the commission of a felony or misdemeanor as described in PC Sections 19190, 21390, 21590, 25700(a),
18000(c), 29300 (b) and (c), and weapons described in Section 25400(a) PC. Weapons that meet the definition of a nuisance shall not be released. They are to be destroyed pursuant to Section 18005(c) PC.
411
12. Officers _______________(shall/should) give an arrestee a receipt for property or money taken from that -- arrestee. -- HPM 70.1
(Shall)
412
13. What is the retention period for Administrative Evidence? -- HPM 70.1
(5 years).
413
14. Needles ___________(shall/should) never be recapped, bent, broken, removed from disposable syringes, or otherwise manipulated by hand. -- HPM 70.1
(Shall)
414
15. (True/False) Weapons do not need to be unloaded and rendered inoperative. -- HPM 70.1
(False)
415
16. Evidence may be stored in a personal locker as long as it is booked within 24 hours. -- HPM 70.1
(False)
Shall never be stored in a personal locker.
416
17. (True/False) CHP employees are prohibited by law from making a claim to property they found. -- HPM 70.1
(True)
417
18. (True/False) Found firearms and shotguns are returned to the finder after the time limit for holding has expired. -- HPM 70.1
(FALSE)
Found firearms and stun guns shall not be returned to the finder. If the lawful owner is not located or if the property is unclaimed after 180 days, it shall be forwarded to the WCU at the Academy.
418
19. (True/False) Prior to the release of any firearm, the evidence officer shall make an inquiry to the California Department of Justice. -- HPM 70.1
(TRUE)
419
20. A firearm ___________(Shall/should) not be released to a person taken into custody per section 5150 of the W&I code because that person was a danger to himself or others within the last ___ years. -- HPM 70.1 11-6
SHALL/5
420
Q1: What is the objective of the performance appraisal process?
-- HPM 10.10
A: To ensure that performance at least meets Departmental standards and to develop the performance of all employees to full potential.
421
Q2: What is each supervisor’s responsibility in regards to HPM 10.10?-- HPM 10.10
A: To review the information contained in this manual and rate subordinate job performance based on the standards provided.
422
Q3: Who developed the Critical Tasks?-- HPM 10.10
A: They were developed jointly by the Department and the California Department of Human Resources.
423
Q4: What is a Critical Task?-- HPM 10.10
A: A critical task is a task which an employee must be able to perform at a level which meets established performance standards. If the employee cannot or
does not perform any one critical task satisfactorily, then the employee’s overall performance is considered to be unsatisfactory.
424
Q5: What are the seven potential rater errors?-- HPM 10.10
Halo Effect - Performance factor of one critical test influences rating of others.
Lenient and Harsh Effect - being more generous than objective and vice versa.
Central Tendency Effect - Avoiding extreme ratings and assuming nobody could be that good or bad.
Similar-To-Me Effect - related to halo effect - employees will approach situations similar to that of the rater and will remind the rater of the similarity.
Contrast Effect - keep in mind to rate the actual behavior observed relative to the expected behavior.
First or Last Impression Effect - Employee may do well at the beginning or end of the rating period and rater basis overall rating on that rather than the objective and overall performance.
Stereotype Effect - sometimes rating area assigned not because of observed behaviors but because they "fit". We unconsciously rate based on preconceived stereotypes. Objectivity will provide a observation and subsequent rating.
425
Q6: The is closely related to the Halo Effect?-- HPM 10.10
A: First or Last Impression Effect
426
Q7: What are the time frames for CHP 118s to be completed and forwarded to Human Resources Section (HRS), Personnel Files Services?-- HPM 10.10
A: Within 60 days following the officer’s anniversary date. The Probationary reports shall be completed within 10 days of the end of 4 months, 8 months, and 12 months.
427
Q8: A single Deficient rating on the CHP 118 is cause to place an Officer on interim reporting?-- HPM 10.10
A: True - A rating of Deficient will always result in the initiation of interim reporting - a particularly serious performance issue documented on the CHP 100 could trigger an immediate CHP 118 rating of Deficient
428
Q9: Are CHP 118’s required in conjunction with an Officer’s transfer?-- HPM 10.10
The completed CHP 100s will be forwarded to the new command only when an officer voluntarily or administratively transfers. A transfer CHP 118 is not required to be prepared.
429
Q10: All road patrol officers, regardless of their assignment, shall be rated in what critical tasks?-- HPM 10.10
A: 1-8
There may be occasions when a rater is unable to substantiate a rating of any type for Critical Tasks 7 (Emergency Incident Management), 8 (Traffic Management Techniques), and/or 9 (Special Duty Assignments). For these critical tasks, a No Rating entry may be appropriate.
430
Q11: When are supervisor comments mandatory on the CHP 100 form?-- HPM 10.10
A: When there is any rating of Exceeds or Improvement Needed
431
Q12: A “Needs Improvement” on the CHP 100 is career threatening?-- HPM 10.10 3-4s
A: A “Needs Improvement” serves as a non-career threatening mechanism that can be used as a warning to the officer that improvement is in order
432
Q13: At a minimum, how often shall nonuniformed probationary employees, serving a 12 month probationary period receive a written performance appraisal?-- HPM 10.10
A: At the end of four, eight, and twelve months.
433
Q14: How many hours is an Officer required to work during the probationary period?-- HPM 10.10
A: 1,680 - If an officer has not worked the required 1,680 hours for the probationary period due to absences, the period will be extended. Commands shall contact HRS to determine the official date for completion of the probationary period.
434
Q15: When an officer (after probation) is off duty 30 consecutive calendar days or more because of illness, injury, or leave of absence, the appraisal will be extended additional months after returning to work.-- HPM 10.10
A: 3 months - When an officer is off duty 30 consecutive
calendar days or more because of illness, injury, or leave of absence, the officer’s appraisal will be extended three additional months after returning to work. (Example: An officer works 11 months, is on a leave for 2 months, and returns to work for 3 months. The total performance period will encompass 16 months.) The officer’s
anniversary date does not change and the next performance appraisal is due on the employee’s anniversary date.
435
Q16: How many critical tasks have been identified as qualification factors in developing and evaluating employees excluded from using the CHP 118 performance appraisal (nonuniformed employees)? -- HPM 10.10
A: Ten Critical Tasks
436
Q17: Which form is used to document the performance of probationary nonuniformed employees in the ten qualified factors? -- HPM 10.10
```
A: Std 636 – Report of Performance for Probationary Employee
Rating:
Outstanding - Comment
Standard
Improvement Needed
Unacceptable - Comment
```
437
Q18: Which form is used to document performance of permanent nonuniformed employees not currently serving a probationary period?-- HPM 10.10
```
A: CHP 120 – Individual Development for Future Job Performance of Permanent Employee - completed within 30 days of anniversary date
Rating:
Exceeds - Comments
Meets
Substandard - Comments
```
438
Q19: Probationary reports for nonuniformed employees shall be completed when? -- HPM 10.10
A: Employees serving a 6 month probationary period: 10 days after the end of 2 months, 4 months, and 6 months. Employees serving a 12 month probationary period: 10 days after the end of 4 months, 8, months, and 12
months.
a) If an employee serving a 6-month probationary period has not worked the required 840 hours for the probationary period due to absences, the period will be extended.
(b) If an employee serving a 12-month probationary period has not worked the required 1,680 hours for the probationary period due to absences, the period will be extended.
439
Q20: What are the ratings for a CHP 120, and which one will always trigger the initiation of interim reporting? -- HPM 10.10
A: Exceeds, Meets, and Substandard. A rating of Substandard will always trigger the initiation of interim reporting.
440
1. It is appropriate to have your finger on the trigger if a known suspect felon refuses to show his/her hands or follow instructions during a felony stop. True/False (70.8, 2-3)
True
441
2. Employees in administrative positions may be excused from the normal monthly shoot requirement providing they demonstrate quarterly the minimum proficiency as outlined in HPM 70.8. True/False- (70.8, 3-3)
True
442
3. During in flight incidents uniformed employees shall only take action when ________________. (70.8 2-6)
requested by the flight crew-
443
4. Employees shall fire _______ firearm shoots each year. - (70.8, 3-3)
12
444
5. Employees shall thoroughly clean their primary firearm after being fired during any training session and shall inspect it at least ________ to ensure that it is in proper working order. - (70.8, 5-5)
once a week
445
6. Federal aviation administration regulations prohibit uniformed employees from carrying ____________ during air travel. (70.8 2-4)
oc/ tear gas, or similar pressurized containers
446
7. If a uniformed employee is carrying his/her firearm during air travel he/she must also carry_________ or ___________. (70.8 2-4)
Handcuffs/ flex-cuffs-
447
8. In no event shall an employee expend over ________ rounds in any single training session. - (70.8, 3-4)
100
448
9. Is a de-cocking lever required for all secondary firearms? (70.8 1-7)
Not required for “striker systems (eg. Glock) or double-action.
449
10. May uniformed employees carry firearms on interstate flights? (70.8 2-4)
No, intrastate-
450
11. Per section 12035(b) pc, ___________ charges can be filed against an employee if a minor gains access to and discharges a firearm causing great bodily harm and/or death to him/herself and/or another due to the employee’s failure to use reasonable measures to secure the firearm.- (70.8, 2-4)
Felony
451
12. The primary and secondary firearms may be stored in the trunk of the patrol vehicle or in the gun locker at a jail facility, but _________________ (70.8, 2-2)
the magazine shall be removed from the pistol prior to unholstering-
452
13. Two nylon burlap bags partially filled with clean sand should be set no less than_______ from the rim of the clearing tube. - (70.8, 2-2)
12 inches
453
14. How many shotgun and tactical rifle shoots are required in a year? - (70.8, 6-8)
4
454
15. Required shoots shall be recorded on a _______________. (70.8, 3-21)
CHP 416, Monthly Record of Shoot-
455
16. A range officer shall certify exercises fired by signing the CHP 416, Monthly Record of Shoot. True/False- (70.8, 3-21)
True
456
17. A light system mounted on a pistol shall not be removed during normal enforcement duties and shall only be done after the pistol has been safely unloaded. True/False- (70.8, 13-3)
True
457
18. At CHP facilities, firearms shall not be drawn, loaded, unloaded, or dry fired except_______________________. (70.8, 2-2)
at a clearing tube-
458
19. All secondary firearms shall be documented on a ___________ and entered into ______________. –(70.8, 1-8)
(CHP 4, Secondary Firearms Report)/(ETRS).
459
20. The S&W 4006 TSW (primary firearm) and the S&W 4013 TSW (supplemental firearm) are _____________ (Identical/similar) in internal design and nomenclature.-(70.8, 1-3)
Identical
460
21. Firearm inspection results are documented on which of the following CHP forms?
(CHP 311)
461
22. A state owned shotgun may only be repaired by_____________? ()
an Academy gunsmith
462
23. Employees assigned to office duty due to involvement in a combat shooting with or without injury shall ______________________________ prior to returning to full duty.
(Fire a qualifying score on the Task Oriented Qualification Course)
463
1) When a citizen complains to the Department, either verbally, in writing, or in person, what must the complainant be notified of? -- HPM 10.4
a. By law, they must be notified of the potential criminal or civil penalties for filing false or malicious claims against peace officers.
464
2) All citizen complaints investigated by the Department are classified into which three groups? -- HPM 10.4
a. Category I, Category II, or “Other”
465
3) What allegation are included in a Category I complaint? -- HPM 10.4
a. Physical contact
b. Excessive force
c. Criminal, racial, sexual, or immoral conduct.
Category I complaints also include those which allege acts of dishonesty and/or falsification of documentation, or allegations of unethical conduct.
466
4) A Category II Complaint alleges ___________ Misconduct, __________ Misconduct (not involving actual physical contact), or complaints regarding matters not related to an employee’s conduct. -- HPM 10.4
a. Verbal, Nonverbal.
467
5) “Other” Complaints may contain ___________ or __________ allegations, but which also meet the definition of one of the following types of
complaints, as defined in Chapter 2? -- HPM 10.4 2-1
a. Category I, Category II
- Departmental complaint
- Citation Validity complaint (if this is the sole allegation)
- Rescinded complaint
- Frivolous complaint
468
6) A Vehicle Storage/Impound Validity issue is classified as a ____________. -- HPM 10.4
```
a. Non-Complaint.
Other non-complaints are:
- Traffic
- Other Agency
- Off-duty conduct
```
469
7) How many possible findings may result from a complaint allegation? -- HPM 10.4
a. A complaint allegation will have ONE of five possible findings.
470
8) What are the five possible findings in a complaint allegation are? -- HPM 10.4
(1) Sustained - The act (or omission) did occur, and it is deemed improper.
(2) Unintentional Error - The act (or omission) did occur and it is deemed improper, but was the result of an employee’s honest mistake.
(3) Undetermined/No Finding - Used only when the evidence, or lack thereof, precludes the investigator from making a definitive judgment.
(4) Departmental - Used when the employee’s actions are fully in compliance with Department policy and/or procedure, but the policy or procedure itself is
found to be erroneous or is the cause of the complainant’s concerns. Departmental is also the only allowable finding for Departmental complaints.
(5) Exonerated - The employee did not commit the act (or omission), or did commit the act and it is deemed to be proper or within Department policy.
471
9) A _____________ will be completed for all Category I, Category II, or Other Complaints. -- HPM 10.4 3-3
a. CHP 240, Complaint Investigation (Face Page)
CHP 240B, Citizens' Complaint Information. This form is intended to be the primary instrument for citizens to file complaints against uniformed (peace officer) employees,
while also informing complainants about the complaint process. The form also contains a statement, required by the Penal Code, which advises potential complainants of the criminal penalties for filing a false complaint against a peace officer.
complainant shall be requested to return the CHP 240B or CHP 240D within ten (10) business days.
472
10) All complainants shall be acknowledged by correspondence within how many business days of the Department’s notification of the complaint? -- HPM 10.4 3-2
a. Five (5) Business Days
473
11) If the complaint involves a departmental peace officer, the complainant shall be requested to sign the advisory statement on the CHP 240B and return it within how many business days? -- HPM 10.4 3-3
a. Ten (10) Business Days. (A return envelope shall be provided to facilitate the return of the form.)
474
12) The assigned primary investigator in an investigation shall be at least ___ grade higher than the involved employee? -- HPM 10.4
a. One (1)
475
13) During the course of a routine interview in which an employee does not have representation, information surfaces which indicates the employee may be faced with adverse action. What should be done? -- HPM 10.4
a. The interview should be suspended and the employee shall be advised of his/her right to representation. (A belief on the employee’s part that adverse action is being considered, irrespective of the interviewer’s designs or intentions, may be sufficient grounds to warrant granting representation rights.)
476
14) The employee’s complaint history _____ be examined in order to determine existence of previous complaints which would be relevant to the current investigation? -- HPM 10.4
a. SHALL
477
15) All complaints with allegations of criminal misconduct which have been given a finding of ___________ or __________ ____________ shall be referred to the respective prosecuting attorney’s office for review. -- HPM 10.4
a. Sustained, Unintentional Error
478
16) When is closing correspondence required? -- HPM 10.4
a. In ALL cases, including frivolous and rescinded complaints.
Frivolous complaint: A complaint which is totally and completely without merit, or which is filed for the sole purpose of harassing an employee. This includes complaints which are questionable or irrational.
479
17) Which admonition advises employees that misconduct for which they are being counseled may be charged in a future Adverse Action? -- HPM 10.4
a. Bazemore Admonition
In accordance with State Personnel Board decisions, employees shall be notified that misconduct for which he/she is being counseled, may still be charged in a future Adverse Action. Accordingly, the Bazemore admonition shall be included in all Memorandums of Findings or Direction which are counseling or remedial in nature. In instances where the corrective documentation is being issued solely as a result of a finding of Unintentional Error, the inclusion of the Bazemore admonition should be left to the discretion of the commander. Additionally, since the Department does not generally charge misconduct in an Adverse Action for which an employee has previously been issued a censurable CHP 2, the Bazemore admonition shall not be included in any CHP 2.
Bazemore admonition: Your conduct on this occasion [these occasions] was unacceptable and will not be tolerated by this Department. If you engage in similar
conduct in the future, the Department may take Adverse Action against you based on the incident[s] cited in this documentation, as well as any future incidents.
480
18) Category I, Category II, and Other complaints shall be destroyed after a period of how many years?? -- HPM 10.4 9-2
a. Five (5) years - commencing from the date the Department originally received the complaint.
All complaints for a given employee shall be filed in chronological order, most recent to least recent.
Corrective Documentation To Employee. Any corrective documentation issued to an employee as the result of a complaint investigation, shall be removed from the
employee’s field personnel folder after a period of three (3) years, commencing from the date of issue.
481
19) Peace officers may initiate civil action against a complainant for knowingly filing a false complaint. Such action, if taken, is solely the responsibility of the _______ ________. -- HPM 10.4
a. involved employee
482
20) When an employee of this Department has been requested to be interviewed by investigators pursuant to a civil rights investigation which will occur on state time, a ___________ __________ shall be present and shall ________ _________ the interview. -- HPM 10.4
a. Departmental supervisor, tape record.
483
1) Who provides advice and assistance to supervisors on matters relating to wages, hours and other terms of employment for all Departmental employees in addition to interpreting negotiated contracts? -- HPM 9.1
a. Office of Employee Relations (OER)
484
2) What are contract interpretations (CI)? -- HPM 9.1
a. In house communications printed on blue paper and distributed without cover memo to all applicable managers and supervisors.
485
3) What is the Dills Act? -- HPM 9.1
The Dills Act is a series of Government Code Sections which govern collective bargaining for represented employees of the State of California
486
4) What shall the State employer and excluded employee organizations not do to the supervisory employees? -- HPM 9.1
The state employer and excluded employee
organizations shall not interfere with, intimidate, restrain, coerce, or discriminate against supervisory employees because of exercising their rights.
487
5) If there is a conflict between departmental policy and the provisions of a negotiated contract, which shall be controlling? -- HPM 9.1
a. The contract
488
9) Most employee grievance/complaint relate to what? -- HPM 9.1
a. A supervisor’s actions or decisions. Therefore the supervisor is the best position to resolve the issue at the lowest level – which is the goal
489
10) What is the Public Employment Relations Board (PERB)? -- HPM 9.1
a. The state agency responsible for enforcing collective bargaining law covering employees in the State civil service.
490
11) What is Unfair Practice? -- HPM 9.1
a. Those actions or inactions by the employer or exclusive representatives which violate the rights guaranteed by the Dills Act.
491
12) In removal for cause, what is the definition of cause? -- HPM 9.1
a. An articulable reason why an employee cannot continue to perform in the specialty pay assignment safely and/or effectively (example: employee could be removed from motorcycle duty due to his/her frequency of accidents on the motorcycle.)
492
13) What is arbitration? -- HPM 9.1
a. A third party settlement of disputes between groups or individuals outside a court of law.
493
14) What is the difference between a grievance and a complaint? -- HPM 9.1
a. A grievance has to do with alleged contract violation and a complaint, an alleged policy/procedure violation.
494
15) When may Past Practice take precedence over written policy? -- HPM 9.1
a. Management consistently applies the practice
b. The majority of management supports the practice
c. The practice is so dominate that policy should be re-written
d. Accepted by both management and exclusive representative
495
16) When an employee organization representative is representing their employee are they on equal ground with management? -- HPM 9.1
a. Yes
496
17) Is coercive questioning of an employee regarding their union activities an Unfair Labor Practice? -- HPM 9.1
a. Yes
497
18) What is another name for a represented employee? -- HPM 9.1
a. Rank and file employee – This is an employee who is not designated as supervisory, managerial, confidential or excluded under the Dills Act.
498
19) Departmental employees providing representation during working hours are required to report the time expended. What form is used to document State Release Time -- HPM 9.1
a. CHP 610, Representation report
499
20) During the informal discussion step of the grievance/complaint procedure, who is the employee to discuss the issue with? -- HPM 9.1
a. His/her immediate supervisor. It is imperative that the supervisor clarify that this meeting constitutes an informal discussion since there are timeframes for response outlined in each contract.
500
1. How many types of uniforms are authorized for wear by uniformed employees? -- HPM 73.5 ch 1
Four: Formal, work, Utility, cold weather
501
2. The left shirt pocket is reserved for what accouterments?
HPM 73.5 1-10
the left pocket flap is reserved solely for the medal of valor, officer of the year, united states flat, us military flag, or other special pin (e.g., Peace Officers' memorial), as determined by the Commissioner
502
3. No more than ___________ departmentally authorized pins are allowed for wear on the right uniform pocket or green jacket at any time.
, HPM 73.5 1-11
Three
503
4. Who may authorize the wearing of a cold weather uniform?
. HPM 73.5 6-3
Field Division Commanders may authorize the wearing of approved cold weather uniform items by personnel in commands designated as cold weather areas.
the cold weather jumpsuit may be worn by uniformed employees assigned to cold weather areas as designated by the appropriate division commander. When the jumpsuit is worn, the blue patrol jacket or cold weather parka may be worn as an other garment.
504
5. Eyewear retainers/lanyards are authorized. However the color of the retaining strings must be ___________?
HPM 73.5 6-10
Black or Brown.
505
6. Cell phones, pagers and PDAs cannot be worn on the duty belt?
HPM 73.5 6-10/6-11
False.
When departmental-issued and/or personal cell phones, pagers, or PDAs are worn while in uniform, the following restrictions shall apply:
1. in view the colors shall be: silver, gold, black, brown, gray, or conservative not detract from professional appearance.
2. shall be worn in a location on the duty belt that will not interfere with eh retrieval of the primary weapon or other personal protective equipment.
506
7. Accouterments and badges shall be cleaned but not ___________.
HPM 73.5 2-4
Polished
507
8. When wearing the utility (baseball) cap with rainwear, the cap must be ______ the hood of the jacket.
HPM 73.5
Under. and shall be taken off when the hood is taken off.
508
9. What is the procedure for a proposal to changing, adding or deleting a uniform item?
HPM 73.5 Pg. 11-2(2)(a)(1).
Procedure - shall Submitted through channels CHP Academy, administrative services unit, on a memorandum (CHP51).
509
10. What restrictions are placed on the wearing of bracelets while in uniform (male and female).
HPM 73.5
Medical or identification bracelets.
510
11. What helmets are required to have the American Flag decal on them.
HPM 73.5 1-11
Motorcycle, mounted, bike, aviation
511
12. DRE’s performing initial Field certifications are authorized to wear utility uniforms.
HPM 73.5
True
512
13. Females may allow their fingernails to grow longer than the tips of their fingers as long as they are clean and trimmed.
HPM 73.5 Pg. 3-6
False
fingernail polish shall be clear
513
14. There are no exceptions to personnel performing field enforcement duties without soft body armor.
HPM 73.5 4
False
shall be worn by:
1. all personnel assigned to field enforcement duties. (enforcement role assignment/public contact situation)
2. " " who operate a marked pv in uniform
3. " participating in "live-fire" training
wearing not required but encouraged:
1. special duty position other than front desk
2. HQ or division staff
3. comms center staff
4. commanders except when performing field enforcement or in a marked pv
commander may exempt wearing of...:
extremely hot when health, welfare, or ability to perform is impacted
temp. health condition which precludes the wearing
may not grant open-ended or long term exemptions.
Shall be replaced within 5 years of the manufacture date.
Whenever issued armor is worn, it shall be outfitted with 4 panels ( minimum 8=ply each), two in the front and two in the rear.
514
15. When an officer’s vest is struck by an assailants bullet, limiting penetration, what must occur before the officer is allow to return to duty
HPM 73.5 4
Evaluation by a physician
515
16. What are the Three situations where all uniformed personnel at the rank of Captain and below must wear the felt Campaign hat
HPM 73.5 Pg. 1-7 (3)(b))
At formal functions or as directed by commander; performing traffic control or crowd control; on the grounds or within the confines of the State Capitol.
516
17. What code authorizes reimbursement for costs of repairs or actual cash value of items damaged beyond repair
HPM 73.5 12-6
2259 V.C. requires the department to reimburse members, or their estate, for required uniform and equipment items which are damaged in the line of duty.
shall be either payment for cost of repairs or the actual cash value of items damaged beyond repair
517
18. What form will be completed in triplicate to repair/replace damaged items
HPM 73.5 Pg. 12-6 (3)(b)(1)
CHP 130, claim for reimbursement
original and copy shall be forwarded to FMS
Other copy retained by originating command
518
19. Sand goggles may be worn in Areas where ________ weather conditions exist.
HPM 73.5
extreme.
only for the period of extreme weather
519
20. The long blue car coat is authorized to be worn as an authorized cold weather uniform item.
HPM 73.5 pg. 1-9
False.
The long, blue car coat, also known as the cold weather coat, is not authorized. The long blue car coat, or cold weather coat, is not to be confused with the parka, which is an authorized cold weather uniform item.
520
Define a Grievance
violation of the contract
521
Define a Complaint
disputes over policy and procedures
522
Grievance Retention at the affected command
3 years following the date of the final action (if OER (office of Employee Relations) receives notice of arbitration, it will advise the command within 3 working days and expect retention of records until the case is adjudicated)
523
Complaint Retention at the affected command
1 year following the date of the final action (if OER (office of Employee Relations) receives notice of arbitration, it will advise the command within 3 working days and expect retention of records until the case is adjudicated)
524
Grievance Retention at headquarters central files
5 years following the date of the final action
525
Complaint retention the headquarters central files
3 years following the date of the final action
526
How many days are allotted for the initiation of the Grievance process from the date of the event causing a grievance?
21 calendar days (excluded employees have 10 working days to initiate)
527
How many days are allotted for the immediate supervisor to respond to the grievance?
7 calendar days (for excluded employees, supervisor has 5 work days to respond)
528
Checkpoint operational plans will be retained at the area for a minimum of _____ plus the current year.
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. 5 years
b. 2 years
529
Team leader for a sobriety checkpoint ______ usually be a sergeants.
a. should
b. shall
c. may
d. will
a. should 70.4 8-8
530
The average time a vehicle spends in a lane at a sobriety checkpoint should not normally exceed ______ minutes.
a. 2
b. 5
c. 3
d. 10
c. 3 - 70.4 8-10
531
Areas are required to provide a printed news release to the media ___ hours prior to the checkpoint operations.
a. 24
b. 12
c. 48
d. 72
c. 48 70.4 8-14
NOTE: Specific locations SHALL not be released sooner than two (2) hours prior to the checkpoint start time.
532
At least ___ warning signs shall be used when setting up a sobriety checkpoint.
a. 4
b. 8
c. 10
d. 6
d. 6 - 70.4 8-15
533
A Grievance or complaint should be filed on a CHP ____, Employee Grievance/Complaint; STD ____, Employee Contract Grievance; or union equivalent.
a. 94/630
b. 72/815
c. 60/109
d. 121/602
a. 94/630
A grievance or complaint should be filed on either a CHP 94; STD 630; or union equivalent.
534
Notwithstanding the one year time period specified in subdivision (d) of Section 3304 of the POBR, an investigation may be reopened against a public safety officer if which of the following circumstances exist:
a. significant new evidence has been discovered that is likely to affect the outcome of the investigation.
b. the evidence could not reasonably have been discovered in the normal course of investigation without resorting to extraordinary measures by the agency.
c. the evidence resulted from the public safety officer's pre-disciplinary response or procedure.
d. all of the above
d. All of the above - 10.2 11-7 - both a and either b or c must exist in order to reopen the investigation.
535
No public safety officer shall have any comment adverse to his interest entered in his personnel file without the public safety officer having first read and signed.
a. True
b. False
True - 10.2 11-8 Section 3305 - if the public safety officer refuses to sign, the fact shall be noted on that document, and signed or initialed.
536
A public safety officer shall have ___ days within which to file a written response to any adverse comment entered in the employees personnel file. Such written response shall be attached to, and shall accompany, the adverse comment.
a. 15
b. 20
c. 45
d. 30
d. 30 days - 10.2 11-8 Section 3306 -
537
While conducting an interview, with the employee representative present, you may insist on hearing the employee's own account to the events.
a. True
b. False
a. True - 10.2 11-14 - The representative can assist the employee in the interview by assuring compliance with POBR, clarifying response, eliciting facts favorable to the employee, objecting to questions clearly outside the scope, and, if requested, provide a brief closing statement at the conclusion of the interview.
538
Each area office, comms center, inspection facility, and office or section within headquarters shall prepare a CHP 113 to be submitted to their respective Division no later than the _____ day of the ____ month following the reporting period.
a. 1st; 1st
b. 1st; 2nd
c. 15th; 1st
d. 15th; 2nd
c. 15th;1st - 10.6 3-7
539
Radar Operators must attend __ hours of training in order to certify as a Lidar Operator.
a. 16
b. 8
c. 24
d. 40
b. 8 - 100.4 5-6 - pass written exam w/ 80% or better and 5 speed/distance estimations within 5 mph and approximately 30 percent - recert every calendar year - 80% written and 99J (stationary estimations)
540
CHP ___ shall be used only for correspondence between state agencies.
a. 99
b. 51WP
c. 64
d. 108
b. 51WP - Departmental Letterhead shall be used for all other correspondence outside of state agencies - 5.1 1-4
541
Of the 21 state bargaining units, how many managed by the Department?
12. (HPM 9.1, 1-5 and 4-3)
542
An association rep has the right to vigorously act to represent the employee. While acting in that capacity, the rep is on equal ground with management. T/F
True. (HPM 9.1
543
If a rep requests to engage in representational matters during work hours, is it a may/should/shall that it be granted?
It Shall be granted promptly unless his absence would interfere with efficient operations. If denied, an alternate time will be arranged. (HPM 9.1
544
A rep desiring access to a work location must do what?
Permission must be requested from the commander stating the purpose and it must be requested a reasonable amount of time prior to the intended visit.
545
A rep must obtain permission from who prior to engaging in Area rep matters during regular work hours?
The immediate supervisor. (HPM 9.1
546
May access to a work location be denied to a rep who is requesting to conduct representational business while on duty?
It may be denied or delayed for reasons including safety, security, work load requirements, or other legitimate circumstances. (HPM 9.1
547
May the association use Area bulletin boards and if yes, what needs to be done prior to posting anything?
Yes, to post certain notices. The rep must date and initial the material and a copy must be given to the commander/designee at the time of posting. (HPM 9.1,
548
Can management remove association material from a bulletin board?
Yes, but it should make every reasonable effort to contact the association to explain the reason. If doubt exists as to the propriety of the material, OER should be contacted. Management retains the final authority for removal. (5-2,
549
May association business be conducted during work hours?
No, all association business must be conducted on the employees “own time” or during “non working hours”. (During lunch period, rest breaks, before/after work). (HPM 9.1
550
May reps solicit and/or distribute employee organization literature at the work location?
If granted permission a rep may distribute literature before or after work hours or during meal periods in non-work areas. It is appropriate to provide some location on state premises for solicitations. Employees mailboxes may also be used to distribute literature. (HPM 9.1
551
May an association rep use a department telephone?
Yes, as long as it does not result in toll charges, or interfere with the operation of the office. (HPM 9.1
552
May reps use “release time” to prepare for meet and confer sessions with management?
No, time is for the session and possibly some travel, but not for preparation. (HPM 9.1, 6-2, 3a)
553
Who has the authority to grant/deny state release time?
The employee’s supervisor, but it must be consistent with policy and the contract. (HPM 9.1, 6-3, 4b)
554
Is state release time authorized for off site meetings?
No, if an off site meeting is requested, state release time shall be denied. (HPM 9.1, 6-3, 4e)
555
For purposes of Grievances/complaints, is the employee authorized state release time?
A reasonable amount of state release time (during assigned work hours) may be used, if approved by a supervisor, to prepare and present a grievance/complaint. usually a maximum of 4 hours at the informal level and each formal level. this time could be limited or extended with management approval dependent on the complexity of the issues - If representing an employee at an OIS, CAHP district director can be granted up to 8 hours or state release time per incident. (HPM 9.1, 6-6
556
What form is completed when submitting for release time?
CHP 610, representation report. State release time, dock time, or time from a release time bank utilized for these purposes is to be entered to the nearest half-hour. for 415, The 800 Series Beat Codes have been prescribed for specific representational activities(HPM 9.1 6-12/6-13 - lists all 800 codes applicable.)
557
What is the general difference between a grievance and a complaint?
A grievance is a dispute over a contract violation and a complaint is over a policy or procedure. (HPM 9.1, 7-1, 2bc)
558
List the levels in a grievance/complaint.
Informal level (discussion between employee and immediate supervisor), Level 1, (Area commander), Level 2 (division commander), Level 3 (office of the commissioner). (Level 4, Director of Cal HR is last level for excluded employees. (HPM 9.1
559
Is the information involving complaints/grievances confidential?
Yes. (HPM 9.1
560
What form shall be used to file a grievance/complaint?
A grievance or complaint should be filed on either a CHP 94, Employee Grievance/Complaint; (Annex A); a STD 630, Employee Contract Grievance; or union equivalent. (9.1 7-9)
561
Do excluded employees have the right to file grievance/complaint?
Yes. (HPM 9.1,
562
What is arbitration?
A third-party settlement outside of a court of law. (HPM 9.1,
563
What is a “Sunshine Provision”?
Contract proposal which are presented at public hearings. (HPM 9.1
564
Who is responsible for enforcing the collective bargaining law?
Public Employment Relations Board (PERB). (HPM 9.1, 12-3)
565
Supervisors have the right to limited representation.
True (HPM 9.1
Although an integral part of the management team, supervisors are not restricted in their representational rights under the Dills Act; however, supervisory issues are totally separate from those of rank-and-file employees.
566
Removal from specialty pay positions may only be done when there is legitimate cause.
True (HPM 9.1, 14-3).
Cause is defined as an articulable reason an employee cannot continue to perform in the specialty pay assignment safely and/or effectively.
Management must be able to show that there is something about the employee’s performance/conduct which has a direct relationship to the employee’s ability to perform that particular skilled assignment.
For Cause. If the removal from a specialty pay position is not a result of an adverse action, the commander shall provide documentation to the employee advising them of the specific reason(s) for the removal and the effective date of the action. 14-4
Adverse Action - there must be an established relationship between the adverse action and the removal.
567
The Dills Act, which Governs Collective Bargaining is found in what code?
The Government Code.
568
Per CHP policy, the Peace officer procedural bill of rights applies to who?
All CHP employees except cadets.
569
According to the National Institute of Drug Abuse (NIDA), the most common health hazard in today’s workplace is __________.
Abuse of drugs (page 1-1)
570
Following the national lead, Governor ________ issued an executive order to establish a substance testing policy to combat the effects of substance abuse in the state workplace.
Deukmejian (9.2 1-3)
571
Who plays the most important role in any successful substance testing program?
The first line supervisor (9.2 1-3)
572
The first line supervisor is in the best position to assess any changes in the employee’s _____ and / or ________.
Job performance, behavior / appearance. (9.2 1-3)
573
Who has the responsibility to confront the situation and initiate proper action when substance abuse is suspected?
Supervisors (9.2 1-3)
574
For a substance test to be effective each supervisor must ensure what (4) things?
1. Reasonable suspicion is supported by proper documentation
2. The sample is properly collected
3. Chain of custody is maintained
4. Employee rights are not violated
9. 2 1-3
575
Who is morally obligated to act when the actions of another employee would lead one to believe that the employee is involved in substance abuse?
All employees (9.2 1-4)
576
To ensure that all aspects of the program are applied consistently, the decisions to test must be based solely upon _____ and/or ________, rather than hunches or groundless suspicion.
Facts and evidence (9.2 1-4
577
Before any sample is obtained, the supervisor’s foundation for reasonable suspicion must be approved by whom?
Departmental Manager (also referred to as a confirming official) (9.2 1-4)
Without this approval, the charge could be made that
the decision to test was based on other than specific facts and/or evidence. If reasonable suspicion for the test cannot be established, the test results will be of little value.
578
May approval from a Manager to a Supervisor to obtain a sample be given over the phone?
Yes (9.2 1-4)
579
Before any action can be taken against an employee for substance abuse, a sample must be ______ collected and analyzed.
Properly (9.2 1-4)
the Department must be able to testify to the fact that
the sample is unadulterated. Since the advent of substance abuse testing, many techniques have been developed by employees to "beat" the test or to render the sample useless by contamination.
580
To avoid countercharges of sample tampering, a concise _____of ______ must be established and followed; therefore the number of persons handling any samples must be limited.
Chain of custody (9.2 1-4)
Those handling samples and their reasons for doing so must be carefully documented.
581
The courts have consistently held that, where there exists ______ ________, the interests of the government outweigh the privacy interests of persons employed in positions demanding public trust and/or upon which the
public's health and safety depend. Because of the dependency of the public on law enforcement, the government's need to ensure the sobriety of its employees is greater than certain employees' right to privacy.
Reasonable suspicion (9.2 2-4)
582
The Fifth Amendment protects an employee from what?
Self incrimination (9.2 2-4)
The courts have held, however, that the protections afforded by this constitutional amendment do not apply to chemical tests because the right not to self-incriminate is implicated only by testimonial or communicative evidence.
583
The Fourteenth Amendment guarantees the right to what?
Due process (9.2 2-4)
This protection requires the government to ensure procedural and substantive due process when an employee's constitutional rights are affected.
When claims are made that due process has been denied, they most frequently allege:
(1) A lack of advance notice of testing.
(2) No advisement of consequences.
(3) Inadequate opportunity to respond to charges.
(4) Lack of opportunity to challenge test results or inability to order additional tests to compare results.
(5) Failure to establish impairment or job-relatedness of the tests.
NOTE: The protections afforded by this amendment demand that due process procedures be properly followed to protect all of the employee's interests. This
means the employee must be made aware of the exact reasons for the Department's actions, the consequences of a positive test result and/or what action the Department will take if the employee refuses to submit to the requested test. The Department must also take necessary precautions to ensure the sample is properly collected, identified, and analyzed.
584
What arises when it can be shown that a supervisor failed to supervise his/her subordinates appropriately due to negligence and the negligence resulted in an injury to a co-worker and/or the public.
Liability (9.2 2-5)
Since the potential for such liability clearly exists, departmental supervisors must act quickly and reasonably when dealing with employees whom they suspect are abusing alcohol and/or drugs.
585
When it comes to substance abuse, can the department be criticized for inaction as well as inappropriate action?
Yes. Even if there is no indication of negligent supervision, the Department could still be held vicariously liable because of a questionable act by one of its employees. (9.2 2-5)
586
Can employers be held directly responsible for retaining “dangerous employees?
Yes (9.2 2-5)
587
Departmental and Cal HR policy prohibits State employees who are on duty or _______ from using, possessing or being under the influence of illegal, unauthorized or mind altering substances including alcohol.
On standby (9.2 3-3)
For the purposes of this policy, standby for duty occurs when an employee is designated on standby and must thereby be available to respond to an incident within a specified period of time. This includes situations such as planned protest demonstrations, special events, and
natural disasters.
588
Employee’s serving in which type of positions shall be subject to substance testing when there is reasonable suspicion to believe the employee has been using drugs / alcohol?
Sensitive positions (9.2 3-4)
Sensitive Positions per Policy (9.2 4-3)
(1) All peace officers.
(2) All cadets.
(3) Automobile Mechanic.
(4) Automotive Technician series.
(5) Commercial Vehicle Inspection Specialist I and II.
(6) Public Safety Dispatcher and Public Safety Operator.
(7) Public Safety Dispatch Supervisor I and II.
(8) Gunsmith.
(9) Heavy Truck Driver.
(10) Lead Automobile Mechanic.
(11) Lead Motorcycle Mechanic.
(12) Motor Carrier Specialist I, II and III.
(13) Motorcycle Mechanic.
(14) School Pupil Transportation Safety Coordinator.
589
As a condition of employment, employees found to have been in violation may be required to submit to periodic substance testing as a condition of remaining in or returning to State service for a period of up to what amount of time?
One year (page 3-2)
590
May a stipulated agreement be offered to sworn personnel for the use of illegal drugs?
No
591
Is it acceptable for an employee to perform his/her duties while taking a legal prescription drug if the use of such drug may pose a threat to the health and safety of the employee or others?
No)
592
Are employees required to report known physical conditions which may adversely affect job performance, including the use of medication?
Yes
593
Supervisors are reminded to review what to ensure that substance testing is being properly administered?
MOU / memorandum of understanding
594
According to Cal HR rules, may an employee voluntarily submit to a substance test after being involved in a significant incident such as a combat shooting or major traffic incident?
Yes 9.2 3-4
While an employee may ask for a test or a supervisor may
suggest a test, no action can be taken against the employee for not participating in a test unless there is reasonable suspicion of substance abuse. In this voluntary situation, an employee's decision not to be tested shall not be documented as a refusal, since it is the employee's option.
595
In a voluntary testing situation, whether the employee elects to provide a sample or declines, the employee must not be offered favorable or unfavorable management actions, conclusions or documentations. Supervisors should date and initial the document provided to the employee. How long shall the original be maintained in the employees field folder?
Under no circumstances will the CHP 202X be retained in the employee’s personnel field folder. 9.2 11-5
When a CHP 202X is completed pursuant to a voluntary sample, it will be retained according to the incident or circumstance giving rise to the test. Documentation of voluntary tests completed subsequent to a critical incident will be retained for a period of time consistent with retention of all other reports and documents associated with the incident, or until any related litigation is adjudicated (whichever is longer). If the documentation is associated with an internal investigation, it will be retained for the life of the investigation.
In circumstances where no other documentation is associated with the incident giving rise to voluntary testing, the CHP 202X and attached narrative will be forwarded to the Substance Testing Coordinator at OIA, where it will be retained for two years from the date of testing.
596
What positions within the department are subject to the requirements of substance testing?
Positions designated as “sensitive” (9.2 4-3)
Non-Sensitive employees may volunteer
597
Sensitive positions are those including any peace officer and any other position in which drug or alcohol affects could clearly endanger the _____ and _____ of others.
Health and Safety
598
When are uniformed employees advised that their positions are “sensitive” and provided a copy of the Cal HR rules regarding substance testing?
During Academy training
599
How long will the Cal HR rules regarding substance testing be retained in the employees personnel file?
Until the employee separates from the Department 9.2 4-5
600
According to Cal HR rules, is the collection of an involuntary sample allowed from non-sensitive employees when substance is suspected?
No 9.2 5-3
The California Department of Human Resources rules do not permit the mandated substance testing of persons in nonsensitive positions. Despite this requirement, there is nothing in the rule which precludes a nonsensitive employee from voluntarily submitting to a substance test.
601
Supervisors who suspect substance abuse by nonsensitive employees are encouraged to establish what?
Reasonable suspicion (9.2 5-3)
(1) Articulable facts;
(2) Close observation; and
(3) Good faith.
602
Should adverse action be sought against a nonsensitive employee when there is reasonable suspicion of substance abuse?
Yes (9.2 5-3)
Such an investigation and any subsequent action taken shall be done in accordance with Highway Patrol Manual (HPM) 10.2, Internal Investigations Manual. The event which leads to the suspicion of substance abuse may be a complaint from a citizen. If this is the case, the complaint should be investigated consistent with HPM 10.4, Citizens' Complaint Investigations.
603
The department recognizes that many behavioral and personal problems can be successfully treated if early identification is made and help is obtained. The department has developed prepaid, professional counseling services for a variety of personal problems. What are these services called?
EAP / Employee Assistance programs (9.2 5-4)
Any person, including a supervisor, may make these services known to the employee. (Refer to HPM 10.5, Employee Assistance Manual, Chapter 3, Employee Substance Abuse Program.)
604
Reasonable suspicion exists only after ________ has also considered the facts and/or evidence and agrees that they constitute a finding of reasonable suspicion?
The confirming official (9.2 6-3)
605
Initial suspicion is normally triggered by the employee’s what?
Reasonable suspicion is typically triggered by something that is abnormal about the employee's behavior which attracts the supervisor's attention. 9.2 6-4
606
May a PAS device be utilized to establish reasonable suspicion?
No (9.2 6-5
Use of the PAS device to establish reasonable suspicion is not authorized. If reasonable suspicion is established, any subsequent chemical tests must still be administered using a breath alcohol analyzing instrument which meets the State Department of Health Services standard.
Nonuniformed supervisors who may not be trained nor experienced in these techniques must rely on observations which do not require additional expertise.
Every effort should be made to maintain a separation
between the criminal and administrative investigations. Furthermore, to preserve the integrity of any evidence gathered during a criminal investigation, the nature of the
investigation should be clearly explained to the employee, since participation in field sobriety tests, including the Preliminary Alcohol Screening device (PAS) test, is voluntary during a criminal investigation. After the criminal investigation is completed, the administrative investigation can be started. For uniformed employees, evidence gathered during a criminal investigation can be used to support the administrative investigation; however, the administrative investigation cannot be used to support the criminal investigation.
607
Is an anonymous tip sufficient to establish reasonable suspicion to order a substance test?
No. Tips may be the basis for closer observation, but reasonable suspicion must be established, based upon specific articulable facts and/or evidence (9.2 6-6)
608
Could information received from a reliable informant be sufficient to establish probable cause?
Yes. CalHR requires that the informant be a peace officer who is willing to publicly testify on behalf of management, should that become necessary. Additionally, CalHR also requires that the employee in question be told who the
informant is, what the informant said, and be given an opportunity to respond to this as part of the determination of reasonable suspicion. Reasonable suspicion is a good faith belief based on specific articulable facts that the employee has violated
this policy and that testing could reveal evidence of that violation. Depending upon the circumstances, information from a reliable informant alone could be the foundation for reasonable suspicion. Supervisors must be extremely careful when basing reasonable suspicion on information of this nature. 9.2 6-6
609
According to Cal HR rules and Departmental policy, a supervisor’s initial determination to test shall be approved by whom?
The first designated manager in the supervisor’s chain of command (Confirming Official) 9.2 6-6
In no event shall the confirming official be the suspected
employee's immediate supervisor or the person who made the initial observation leading to reasonable suspicion.
610
What type of chemical test provides the primary means of determining whether or not an employee has abused drugs?
The CalHR rules provide for a urine test as the primary means of determining whether or not an employee has abused drugs. 9.2 7-3
NOTE: Employees suspected of being under the combined influence of alcohol and a drug(s) are required to submit to both a urine and breath test.
611
Once a urine sample is obtained, is it subject to decomposition?
Yes, it must be handled in a timely manner and ultimately frozen (9.2 7-4)
612
When selecting a location for a test, CHP rules require the collection of the sample occur in a setting which provides for a ______ and ______ collection process.
Secure and professional (9.2 7-4)
613
What consideration should be made by the supervisor before deciding where the sample will be obtained?
(1) Sex of the employee and availability of a supervisor of the same sex to collect the sample;
(2) Some Memoranda of Understanding prohibit the collection of a sample by the employee's supervisor; and
(3) A breath test will be administered for an employee who is suspected of abusing alcohol.
9. 2 7-4
614
What type of observation of the employee should be conducted after reasonable suspicion is developed?
From the moment reasonable suspicion is developed until the time a sample is provided, the employee should remain under CONTINUAL SUPERVISORY OBSERVATION. The employee should not be allowed to go to a car, locker, or desk without supervision. Additionally, to secure the best possible sample, the employee should not be allowed to void his or her bladder until the sample is collected. 9.2 7-4
615
Can a contaminated sample be analyzed by the laboratory for substance abuse?
Numerous techniques have been developed to invalidate the test or its results. When warned that they will be tested, employees have been known to drink large quantities of liquids or ingest other substances to either dilute or contaminate the urine sample. Some employees have also hidden substances on their person, such as soap flakes under the fingernails, which they later put into the sample to contaminate it. A CONTAMINATED SAMPLE CANNOT be analyzed by the laboratory for substance abuse. In some instances, employees have even
provided "clean" urine samples from rubber or plastic bladders which they had strapped to their bodies.
9.2 7-4
616
According to experts, when drug abuse is suspected, what is the best time to collect a sample?
Drug metabolites remain in the system for hours or even days; therefore, supervisors should not become overly alarmed if the sample cannot be collected immediately after reasonable suspicion is confirmed. In fact, substance testing experts believe the best time to collect a sample is within two to four hours of the initial observation. This gives the body time to metabolize the drug if it has just been ingested. Time is on the supervisor's side. (9.2 7-4)
617
If the supervisor decides to collect the sample, it must be done in an atmosphere of ______ and _____ privacy.
Dignity and reasonable privacy (9.2 7-5)
618
When obtaining a urine sample, what is the minimum volume to be collected?
At least 60 milliliters (approximately two fluid ounces) 9.2 7-5
619
After collecting the sample, it should be secured where?
Secure the sample in a locked evidence locker;
Make arrangements with the designated courier service to have the sample transported to the laboratory.
Notify the Office of Internal Affairs (Attention: Substance Testing Coordinator) of the sample collection.(9.2 7-5)
620
If it becomes necessary for the employee to take a test at an off site location, is it acceptable to allow the employee to transport himself to that facility.
No. The supervisor should provide transportation and if necessary for the safety of the employee or supervisor, assistance should be requested. (page 7-4)
621
It is the supervisor’s responsibility to confirm the sample is collected under ______ _____.
The office restroom could be used in this situation as long as the sample is provided under the supervisor's direct observation with some arrangement so that other employees cannot enter during collection of the sample.
9.2 7-5
622
What should be done if the employee refuses to cooperate at any stage of the collection process?
Supervisors should realize that an employee may not be able to provide a urine sample immediately. A reasonable waiting period should be allowed for the employee to provide the sample. If, however, after a reasonable period of time the employee is still unable to provide a sample, this will be treated as a refusal, which constitutes a PRESUMPTION OF IMPAIRMENT
Employees are permitted to drink water for the purpose of aiding them in providing a sample, so long as it is supervised. Water consumed this close to the collection of the sample should not adversely affect the integrity of the sample, while liquids consumed well in advance of sample collection may have time to dilute the urine
623
The substance testing process is a very serious
procedure, and the first-line supervisor will be dealing with the involved employee from the time reasonable suspicion first arises until the results of the test are known. Throughout that period, which may span several days, the supervisor should base his/her actions on concern for all of the following:
(1) Safety of the employee and others;
(2) Potential disciplinary action up to and including dismissal;
(3) Proper enforcement of the state's substance abuse rules; and
(4) Employee rights and privacy.
9. 2 8-3
624
During what phase of the substance testing process is the employee entitles to representation?
Employees suspected of violating this policy shall be entitled to representation during any interrogative interviews that could lead to a decision to take adverse action against the employee.
(1)These interrogative interviews could occur before or after the sample is taken.
(2) This right to representation does not preclude a supervisor from making initial contact with the employee in an appropriate confidential interview setting
to question him/her regarding abnormal behavior, inefficiency, absenteeism, tardiness, unusual appearance, etc. This is part of the process to eliminate substance abuse as a cause for reasonable suspicion.
(3) Supervisors are to carefully weigh the need to interrogate an employee before the collection of a sample. In most instances, an interrogation should
occur after the sample is collected or at a later date when additional information is known.
(4) Unless specifically permitted in the MOU, an employee is not entitled to representation during the collection of the sample.
9.2 8-6
625
How long are test results maintained?
Negative Test Results: negative results should not be included in the employee's personnel file. Therefore, negative test results and the documentation regarding reasonable suspicion for the test shall be maintained apart from the employee's personnel folder unless the employee requests otherwise. This information will
be maintained in a separate file for five years or until such time as any litigation arising from circumstances leading to the test has concluded, whichever is longer
Positive Test Results: Positive test results and the documented reasonable suspicion will become part of the request for adverse action file. This information
will be maintained for a period of five years and handled consistent with policy contained in Highway Patrol Manual 10.2, Internal Investigations Manual.
626
The supervisor is required to document the initial determination of reasonable suspicion on a CHP 202x, workplace substance abuse investigation/voluntary testing report, marked “confidential.” This should normally be completed in what amount of time?
Since there is an expectation of a 48-HOUR turnaround, this document may be handwritten or typewritten. Supervisors are not required to provide the employee with immediate documentation of the cause for reasonable suspicion. In most instances, 48 hours
should be sufficient time for the supervisor to prepare a thorough report of the circumstances and submit it to the confirming official for review. Supervisors are encouraged, however, to complete the report as soon as possible so that none of the initial observations are forgotten.
627
Purpose of the Performance appraisal process. 10.10 1-3
a. Increase individual effectiveness
b. Identify strength and weaknesses
c. Plans and Goal Setting and progress of reaching them
d. Evaluate performance of Critical tasks
Exact Verbiage in policy
a. To assist supervisors and employees in establishing methods for increasing individual effectiveness.
b. To assist each employee on a continuing basis by identifying strengths and weaknesses.
c. To systematically record plans and goals set during discussions between employees and supervisors, and to record progress made in reaching those goals in subsequent discussions.
d. To evaluate performance of critical job tasks during a prescribed rating period.
628
What is a Performance Standard?
1) A performance standard is the level at which an employee must perform a critical task to satisfy departmental requirements.
(2) All employees are to be rated on the extent to which their job performance meets departmental standards.
629
C.H.P. P.R.I.D.E.
Courage, Honesty, Professionalism, Principles, Respect, Integrity, Dedication, Esprit De Corps
630
Each officers CHP 100 (SHOULD/SHALL) be reviewed on the 15th and after the last day of the calendar month.
Should
631
The supervisor (SHOULD/SHALL) review previous CHP 100's to identify work performance trends.
Should
632
118 retention
The latest three CHP 118s, regardless of age, shall be retained in Personnel Files Services.
The most current CHP 118, plus three years, shall be retained in the field personnel folder.
633
CHP 100/118 Critical Tasks
```
#1 Policies, procedures, laws, codes, and regulations
#2 Judgment
#3 Professional Demeanor
#4 Verbal Communication
#5 Written Communication/Investigation
#6 Operation of Departmental Vehicles/Equipment
#7 Emergency Incident Management
#8 Traffic Management Techniques
#9 Special Duty Assignment
```
634
Departmental Allegation/complaint:
An allegation which is solely against a Department policy or procedure, and NO employee misconduct is alleged. In these cases, “Department” shall be listed as the employee on the CHP 240, Complaint Investigation face page. If the only allegations in the complaint are Departmental, then it is considered a Departmental complaint and should be documented as an Other
complaint.
635
Rescinding a Citizens Complaint
A complainant’s request to rescind a complaint does not relieve the commander from the responsibility to determine the validity of the allegations.
636
Property Supervisor shall conduct _____ Inspections of the property system.
a. quarterly
b. annually
c. weekly
d. monthly
a. quarterly
A random sample of property sufficient to validate the integrity of the system shall be verified. At least 10 percent of items or property numbers, with a minimum of ten items or property numbers, from activities that occurred within the property system from the date of the last inspection to current, shall be inspected. Refer to Categorizing section of this chapter for the breakdown of each specific category. If discrepancies are revealed, an additional 10 percent of the items, or at least ten additional items, shall be inspected. If further discrepancies are revealed, the entire property system shall be inspected to ensure compliance with policy and
legal statutes.
Document Inspection on a Memo - retained at the area for 2 years from the date of inspection
Conduct at least one unscheduled (unannounced) inspection per calendar year
An inventory shall be conducted upon change of command, change of property officers, and any time there is doubt as to the integrity of the system.
Inventories conducted upon a change of property officer should be conducted by the former property officer, the new property officer, and the property supervisor
637
Property system Inventories shall be conducted _____ to ensure the integrity of the system and shall include all items which have been barcoded.
a. quarterly
b. annually
c. weekly
d. monthly
b. annually
When the scale of such a task may be difficult,
partial inventories may be conducted. The inventory may be broken down into partial inventories, ultimately completing a 100 percent inventory at the end of each calendar year.
638
MVARS inventory shall be conducted _____.
a. quarterly
b. annually
c. weekly
d. monthly
a. quarterly
During an inventory, packages shall not be opened to verify the contents. An annual inventory of MVARS digital versatile discs (DVD) will not be required due to the high
volume of DVDs. However, a 100 percent inventory shall be completed if a reasonable amount of discrepancies are revealed during the quarterly inspections, or the
commander deems it to be necessary.
639
Security Log (should/shall) be maintained in the property room.
Shall
The log shall document all entry into the property room by any person other than the primary property officer.
640
Keys used to access the property room (should/shall) be permanently marked with "Do Not Duplicate"
Shall
641
Property keys shall be limited to the number of primary property officers assigned to the command plus the commander's emergency key. True/False
True
642
There shall be a maximum of ____ sets of temporary storage locker keys.
a. 2
b. 3
c. Depends on the number of storage officers
a. 2
There shall be a maximum of two sets for
the temporary storage lockers and/or other storage unit(s). One set shall be assigned to the primary property officer(s) and shall be kept in the property room
643
Storage of the second set of temporary storage locker keys and the commanders emergency property room key (should/shall) be placed in an envelope and stored in a secure location?
Shall
Envelope shall be sealed with evidence tape and initialed by the primary property officer. Use of the keys is restricted to the commander or designee
644
Change in property officer shall result in what?
In addition to conducting a 100 percent inventory,
whenever a change of property officer occurs, the locks to the property room shall be changed and/or the biometric access shall be updated immediately. This shall
be documented on a memorandum to the Area and a copy placed in the inspection file.
645
The Department must ensure the contracting
laboratory meets accepted scientific standards and that each sample is properly handled and tested. The quality of the testing procedure will be continually audited to ensure accuracy.
Control of Quality - 5th C in Substance Abuse Testing 9.2 1-5
646
Supervisors must be mindful of the different Memoranda of Understanding (MOUs) and, as such, refer to the specific contract covering the involved employee(s). When an MOU conflicts with the Department of
Personnel Administration rules, the MOU shall take precedence. Failure to take the MOU into consideration when dealing with a reasonable suspicion test
could allow the validity of the test to be challenged.
Contracts - 6th C in Substance Abuse Testing 9.2 1-5
647
When testing an employee suspected of substance abuse, primarily alcohol, all alcohol testing will be conducted using which means?
Evidential breath testing device 9.2 7-3
648
During employee substance abuse testing, who makes the final determination of the test result?
Medical Review Officer (MRO) 9.2 9-3
This determination can only be made after all available information is considered. A positive laboratory result may not always be supported by the MRO. Test results confirmed positive by the MRO will be communicated to the Office of Internal Affairs by telephone.
649
If the EEO complain is resolved to the satisfaction of the complainant, complete the CHP 612B within ____ working days from the date the agreement was reached.
a. 3
b. 5
c. 10
d. 30
b. 5
The original shall be forwarded to the appropriate Division chief for completion of the CHP 612C, and a copy forwarded to the affected commander.
650
Complete the CHP 612B within ___ working days of the initial contact, if the complaint is not resolved to the complainant’s satisfaction.
a. 20
b. 30
c. 10
d. 5
a. 20
The CHP 612B shall be signed by the complainant, indicating advisement of alternatives and appeal rights.
Forward the original report to the appropriate Division chief within 20 working days for completion of the CHP 612C.
A copy of the report shall be forwarded within 20 working days from the date of initial contact to the affected commander.
This report shall include the results of inquiry, attempts to resolve the matter, alternatives, and appeal rights under the process.
651
The complainant who is not satisfied with the results of the EEO counselor’s inquiry may file a discrimination complaint with the Division chief within ___ working days from the date of receipt of the EEO counselor’s CHP
612B.
a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 5
a. 10
This is the beginning of the formal level (investigation) rather than a counseling session.
652
Beginning the EEO appeals process: A complainant who is not satisfied with the Division chief’s Letter of Determination may file an appeal via a CHP 612A with the appropriate Assistant Commissioner, in care of the OEEO commander within ___ working days from the date of receipt of the letter.
a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 5
a. 10
This it he appeals process...
653
EEO: Employees who allege discrimination as the
motive for an adverse action (AA) or rejections during probation (RDP) must file an appeal directly with SPB (Cal HR now?). Per GC Section 19575, an employee’s allegations of discrimination in AAs must be submitted to SPB not later than ___ calendar days after service of the
Notice of AA.
a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 5
a. 30
State Personnel Board is the final level of appeal for
allegations of discrimination; therefore, appeals filed through SPB are resolved through an evidentiary hearing process offered by the SPB Hearing Office.
Per GC Sections 19173 and 19175, an employee’s allegations of discrimination in rejection during probation (RDPs) must be submitted to SPB within 15 calendar days of
the effective date of rejection.
654
EEO Retention: In accordance with the State of California Records Retention Schedule, copies of the CHP 612, CHP 612A, CHP 612B, and CHP 612C, shall be retained
by Divisions for a period of ___ years from the date the initial complaint was filed.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 5
d. 10
a. 2 years
The originals of the CHP 612, CHP 612A, CHP 612B, and CHP 612C, shall be retained by OEEO for a period of five years from the date the complaint was closed.
Copies of the discrimination complaint investigations, including interview recordings, shall be retained by Divisions for a period of five years from the date the complaint was closed.\
Copies of discrimination complaint investigations shall be retained by OEEO for a period of five years from the date the complaint was resolved or closed, either after the appeal period has passed (for internally filed complaints), or the time for court action has passed (for externally filed complaints). If a complaint is litigated, the complaint will be retained an additional three years after court action has been resolved.
655
Evidence/property shall be entered and received into the Area Information System (AIS) within ___ business days of seizure.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 5
d. 10
a. 2
When property is collected with evidence/contraband, the property shall be packaged and entered into AIS as a separate item.
656
New Sergeant checklist, CHP 27, shall be retained for __ .
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. 5 years
2 years
LOOK up the checklist
657
All CHP 50's must have the following approval signatures:
Immediate supervisor; commander; Division management; and if mandated, the appropriate Commissioner.
658
Critiques shall be completed for all IN and OUT Service training
Out-service - CHP 50A, Evaluation of Out-Service Training
659
Each Division Training Unit is responsible for preparing seven SROVT training scenarios on pre-assigned topics per calendar quarter.
Division Training Units shall e-mail their completed scenarios directly to srovt@chp.ca.gov by the following quarterly dates: January 1, April 1, July 1, and October 1.
660
All field sergeants shall pre-read daily scenarios in order to effectively present and discuss scenario topics.
As needed, sergeants shall review referenced departmental policy and procedures prior to briefings.
661
SROVT Retention at the Division and Area Level
a. Current Plus 1 year
b. Current Plus 2 years
c. Current Plus 3 years
d. Current Plus 5 years
Division Training Units and field commands shall retain SROVT training scenarios and calendars for the current year plus one year.
The Academy shall permanently retain all field commands’ monthly SROVT calendars and training scenarios.
662
Employees shall obtain departmental approvals prior to using personnally-owned computers or electronic devices for work=related activities.
CHP 109, Information Technology Request, shall be used to obtain approvals. all data containing confidential or privacy information is encrypted and password protected.
663
the STD 99 is not required for lost, stolen, or damaged property that was lost, stolen or damaged at a location NOT OWNE OR LEASED BY THE STATE
100.70 3-4
