2015.04.13 Flashcards

1
Q

Caudal Regression Syndrome

A

Patients are born with agenesis of the sacrum and occasionally lumbar spine and experiene flaccid paralysis of the legs, dorsiflexed contractures of the feet, and urinary incontinence.

Ranges in severeity from isolated anal atresia to sirenomelia.

Frequently related to poorly controlled maternal diabetes.

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2
Q

Vitamin A Overdose during pregnancy

A

Causes craniofacial abnormalities, posterior fossa CNS defects, auditory defects, and abnormalities of the great vessels (effects similar to those in DiGeorge syndrome)

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3
Q

Rate limiting enzyme in the urea cycle

A

Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I (CPS I) - activated by N-acetylglutamate.

Nitrogen atoms in urea cycle are derived from NH3 and aspartate in the urea cycle.

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4
Q

Pathological vertebral fractures

A

fracture due from less significant force than a fracture of normal bone.

Osteoporosis due to chronic use of corticosteroids promotes osteoporosis by decreasing synthesis of bone matrix, inhibition of intestinal action of vitamin D in promoting calcium absortpion, and increased parathyroid hormone levels.

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5
Q

Langerhans cells

A

Form of dendritic cell (antigen presenting cells which present MHC Class II and B7) most commonly found in the skin and mucous membranes.

Are from myeloid stem cells.

Characteristic “racquet-shaped” intracytoplasmic granule = Birbeck granule.

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6
Q

Common peroneal nerve

A

Vulnerable to injury where it courses over the neck of the fibula.

Lesions can cause weakness of dorsiflexion (deep peroneal nerve) and eversion (superficial peroneal nerve) of the foot as well as loss of sensation over the dorsum of foot.

Inversion and plantarflexion remains intact due to action of the tibial nerve.

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7
Q

Low vs. High freq. detection in the ear

A

Low freq. best detected at apex of cochlea (near the helicotroema) since it has large and flexible basilar membrane.

High freq. best detected at base of cochlea (near the round and oval windows) since the basilar membrane there is thin and rigid.

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8
Q

Scala vestibuli, media, and tympani

A

Scala vestibuli and tympani contain perilymph

Scala media contains endolymph. Is separated from tympani by the basilar membrane. Houses the tectorial membrane and the organ of Corti (where sound is transduced into the nervous system)

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9
Q

Aspirin

A

Irreversible cyclooxygenase inhibitor that helps to prevent platelet thrombus formation by inhibiting thromboxane A2 synthesis and platelet aggregation.

Can cause bronchoconstrition and SOB/wheezing in patients with allergy.

CLopidogrel is best antiplatelet alternative.

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10
Q

Allopurinol

A

Xanthine oxidase inhibitor used in the treatment of tumor lysis syndrome and gout.

Tumor lysis syndrome - high cell turnover rate, characterized by electrolyte disturbances and acute renal failure

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11
Q

Paclitaxel

A

cytotoxic chemotherapeutic agent that binds B-tubulin and enhances microtubule polymeriazation, producing a disorganized array of microtubules within the cell during metaphase and ultimately cell death.

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12
Q

Sudden onset dyspnea in the setting of recent calf swelling

A

Strongly suggestive of pulmonary embolism

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13
Q

Pulmonary Embolism

A

Hypoperfusion of affected pulmonary parenchyma develops and leads to a redistribution of pulmonary blood flow and development of a ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) mismatch.

Hypoxemia stimulates respiratory drive, causing hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis

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14
Q

Chronic sinopulmonary infections, bronchiectasis, pancreatic insufficiency, infertility due to absent vas deferens bilaterally (azoospermia)

A

Cystic Fibrosis

Mutation in CFTR gene which impairs ion transport.

Diagnosis: elevated sweat chloride levels, abnormal nasal transepithelial potential difference, genetic testing

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15
Q

Pirmary ciliary dyskinesia (Kartagener syndrome)

A

Dynein arm defect leads to abnormal ciliary motion & impaired mucociliary clearance

chronic sinopulmonary infections, bronchiectasis, situs inversus and infertility due to immotile spermatozoa

Diagnosis: Low nasal NO levels, bronchoscopy & EM visualization of ciliary abnormalities, genetic testing

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16
Q

Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism (Kallmann Syndrome)

A

Low testosterone in the setting of decreased FSH and LH

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17
Q

Pulsus Paradoxus

A

Decrease in systolic blood pressure of greater than 10mmHg with inspiration and occurs with conditions that impair expansion into pericardial space (increased right ventricular volume occurring during inspiration pushes the interventricular spetum toward the left, causing reduced left heart diastolic volume and stroke volume, resulting in decreased systemic blood pressure during inspiration)

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18
Q

Increases in cAMP in bronchial smooth muscle caused by stimulation of beta-2-adrenergic receptor

A

Causes smooth muscle relaxation

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19
Q

Phenelzine and Tranylcypromine

A

Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) that are useful for atypical depression.

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20
Q

Atypical Depression

A

Mood reactivity

Leaden fatigue (arm’s and legs feel heavy)

Rejection sensitivity (overly sensitive to light criticism)

Revered vegetative signs of increased sleep and appetite.

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21
Q

Transformation

A

Direct uptake of naked DNA from the environment by bacteria that are naturally competent:

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Haemophilus influenza

Neisseria gonorrhoeae & meningitidis

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22
Q

Conjugation

A

One-way transfer of DNA between bacterial cells through direct physical contact

Donor cells have F factor which codes for a sex pilus & other proteins necessary for gene transfer to F- recipients

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23
Q

Transduction

A

Transfer of DNA by a bacteriophage.

Generalized: random bacterial genes are accidentally packaged into the viral capsid.

Specialized: select bacterial genes near the viral insertion site are excisted & packaged into the virion

24
Q

Aldose reductase

A

converts glucose into sorbitol, which is further metabolized into fructose by sorbitol dehydrogenase

pathway is most active in seminal vesicles (sperm use fructose as energy source)

lens also has significants levels of sorbitol dehydrogenase, but become overwhelmed in the setting of hyperglycemia.

Also involved in conversion of galactose into galactitol

25
Q

DNA Polymerase I vs. III

A

I : has 5’ to 3’ exonuclease activity that removes RNA primers and damaged DNA segments. Also 3’ to 5’ exonuclease to proofread to fix mismatched nucleotides.

III : synthesis of daughter DNA strands, has 3’ to 5’ exonuclease

26
Q

Primase

A

DNA-dependent RNA polymerase that incorporates short RNA primers into replicating DNA

27
Q

Sudden Cardiac Death

A

cardiac arrest that begins within 1 hour of precipitating event and proves fatal.

80% due to CAD where an acute plaque change results in acute myocardial ischemia. Ischemia then induces electrical instability in the heart, whcih can generate a potentially lethal arrhythmia.

Ventricular fibrillation is most common cause of death in patients suffering from MI during prehospital phase. Ventrical tachycardia are lethal too.

28
Q

CA-125

A

Produced by malignant ovarian epithelial tumors.

Elevated in 90% of those with advanced ovarian carcnioma and 50% in earlier stages.

29
Q

CA 19-9

A

Carbohydrate antigen elevated in about 70% of patients with pancreatic cancer.

30
Q

CEA

A

serum marker produced by 70% of colorectal and pancreatic tumors

31
Q

Alpha-1 antitrypsin Deficiency

A

Autosomal co-dominant disorder that affects lung and liver.

Lung: causes panacinar emphysema due to destruction of alveolar walls

Liver: due to intra-hepatocyte accumulation of polymerized A1AT molecules. (Intracellular granules with globultes of unsecretred A1AT are stained with periodic acid-SChiff and resist digestion by diastase). Cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma can occur and cause death.

32
Q

Ondansetron, Granisetron, Dolasetron

A

Effective in preventing chemotherapy-induced vomiting.

5-HT3 receptor antagonists.

Block vagus-mediated nausea and vomiting (medulla oblongata’s “vomit center” and blocking serotonin in the chemoreceptor trigger zone)

33
Q

Amifostine

A

Cytoprotective free-radical scavenger agent used to decrease the cumulative nephrotoxicity associated with platinum-containing and alkylating chemotherapeutic agents.

34
Q

Serotonin Syndrome

A

Neuromuscular excitation: hyperreflexia, clonus, myoclonus, rigidity, tremor

Autonomic stimulation: hyperthermia, tachycardia, diaphoresis, and vomiting/diarrhea

Altered mental status: agitation and confusion

35
Q

What is glutamic acid a precursor of?

A

Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

36
Q

What is histidine a precursor of?

A

Histamine

37
Q

What is methionine a precursor/intermediate of?

A

Cysteine, Carnitine, Taurine, Lecithin

38
Q

What is tyrosine a precursor of?

A

Thyroxine, Dopamine, Epinephrine, Norepinephrine, Melanin

39
Q

Treatment of serotonin syndrome

A

Supportive care: airway maintenance, hydration, temperature maintenance

Serotonin receptor antagonists: Cyproheptadine (first gen histamine antigonist with nonspecific 5HT1 and 5HT2 antagonist effects)

40
Q

Haloperidol

A

Anti-dopaminergic agent used for treatment of psychosis.

Adverse rxn of antipsychotics: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

41
Q

Pemphigus vulgaris (PV)

A

Autoimmune bullous disease that results in painful, flaccid bullae and erosions of the skin and mucosal membranes.

Bullae spread laterally with pressure (Asboe-Hansen sign) and new bullae may form with gentle traction (Nikolsky sign)

Autoantibodies against desmosomes (Desmogleins 3 and 1).

42
Q

Bullous Pemphigoid

A

Autoantibodies against hemidesmosomes.

Bullae remain intact and mucosal involvement is uncommon.

43
Q

Hydronephrosis

A

Dilation of renal pelvis and calyces due to obstruction of urine flow.

Kidney enlargement and distortion, compression of papillae, thinning of the parenchyma around the calyces, and cortical atrophy are seen on gross examination.

Microscopic changes: dilation of tubular lumen, flattening of tubular epithelium and interstitial fibrosis.

44
Q

Sabouraud agar

A

Confirms diagnosis of Cryptococcal neoformans

45
Q

Treatment of cryptococcal meningitis

A

Amphotericin B even though it has low CSF penetration.

Flucytosine for initial induction period

Fluconazole long-term maintenance therapy

46
Q

Ceftriaxone and meningitis treatment

A

Pneumococcal and Haemophilus influenzae

47
Q

Ampicllin is used to treat which meningitis?

A

Listeria meningitis

48
Q

Stages of syphilis

A

Primary - chancre (painless ulceration with raised indurated borders; develops 1-3 wks and resolves 3-6wks)

Secondary - bacteremic stage; diffuse macular rash in palms and soles. Condylomata lata (large gray wart-like growths in genital and perineal region)

Latent - asymptomatic

Tertiary - neurosyphilis (asymptomatic, subacute meningoencephalitis, tabes dorsalis, etc); ascending aortic aneurysms and resultant aortic valve insufficiency. Gummas (painless, indurated granulomatous lesions that progress to white-gray rubbery lesions and may ulcerate)

49
Q

Granuloma inguinale

A

STD caused by Klebsiella granulomatis

Inguinal swelling, ulcers, abscesses, fistulas.

Rod-shaped intracytoplasmic inclusions (Donovan bodies)

50
Q

Condylomata acuminata

A

anogenital warts caused by HPV 6 and 11

51
Q

Atrial fibrillation

A

can be precipitated by binge alcohol consumption (“holiday heart syndrome”, increased cardiac sympathetic tone, and pericarditis.

P waves always absent bc coordinated atrial contractions do not occur

irregularly irregular series of QRS complexes

52
Q

ST elevation

A

transmural myocardial infarction

53
Q

Native valve bacterial endocarditis

A

Mitral valve prolapse predisoposes to infected vegetations on mitral leaflets.

Rheumatic valvular disease is also a potential, but less common cause, of NVBE

54
Q

Renal angiomyolipoma

A

Benign tumor composed of blood vessels, smooth muscle, and fat (angio-myo-lipoma)

Bilateral renal angiomyolipoma - Associated with tuberous sclerosis (autosomal dominant condition characterized by cortical tubers and subependymal hamartomas in the brain, with consequent seizures and mental retardation. Cardiac rhabdomyomas, facial angiofibromas, and leaf-shaped patches of skin lacking pigment - ash-leaf patches - can also occur)

55
Q

Cerebellar hemangioblastomas, retinal hemangiomas, liver cysts

A

seen in Von Hippel-Lindau disease (autosomal dominant)

high risk for bilateral renal cell carcinomas

56
Q

Sturge-Weber syndrome

A

rare congenital vascular disorder chracterized by facial port-wine stain and leptomeningeal capillary-venous malformation

57
Q

Osler-Rendu-Weber syndrome

A

Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia - develop multiple telangiectasis of the skin and mucosa

recurrent epistaxis or GI bleeding (melena)