2016 Pierce Flashcards
(217 cards)
1
Q
signals an imminently hazardous situation that, if not avoided, will result in death or serious injury.
A
Danger (red border with white writing and white triangle with red exclamation point inside)
2
Q
signals a potentially hazardous situation that, if not avoided, could result in death or serious injury.
A
Warning (orange with black writing and orange exclamation point)
3
Q
with the safety triangle signals a potentially hazardous situation that, if not avoided, might result in minor or moderate injury.
A
Caution( yellow with black writing and yellow exclamation point)
4
Q
used without the safety triangle symbol signals a potentially hazardous situation that, if not avoided, might result in property damage.
A
Caution(yellow with black writing)
5
Q
Areas for walking and/or standing that are located higher than ____. above the ground and unguarded by a railing or structure are designated by a safety line along the outside perimeter of the allowable standing/walking surface.
A
48’’
6
Q
Care must always be taken when climbing on and off the vehicle. Always face the vehicle, use steps and grab handles, and maintain ___points of contact with the vehicle
A
3 point of contact
7
Q
According to the National Safety Council, ___out of ___vehicle accidents can be blamed on poor backing techniques.
A
One out of four
8
Q
Get to know your vehicle’s blind spots. In a medium-sized truck, blind spots can extend up to ___feet in front and ___ feet behind a vehicle.
A
16
160
9
Q
Heavy trucks have a significantly higher rollover tendency than other types of vehicles, due to a higher_________
A
Center of gravity
10
Q
Do not work within 10 feet of high-voltage lines energized from ________volts. It is the law.
A
600-50,000 volts
11
Q
DANGER: High pressure fluid leak will
A
Pierce skin
12
Q
DANGER: Release pressure before
A
Working on system
13
Q
DANGER: Detect leaks with ____or _____. Wear sturdy gloves and goggles. NEVER use _____
A
Wood or cardboard
Fingers
14
Q
DANGER: Fluid injected into skin must be surgically removed by trained doctors immediately or _____ will result.
Fluid injected into skin will injure or kill.
A
GANGRENE
15
Q
If you see a hydraulic leak, _____ the equipment and call in a __________ trained in safe methods of trouble-shooting and servicing hydraulic power equipment.
A
Shut down
Service technician
16
Q
High pressure hydraulic fluid at pressures as low as ____psi can penetrate skin.
A
100
17
Q
Some maintenance or service procedures may require lockout / tagout (LOTO) to protect service personnel from injury from an accidental vehicle start-up or energizing the electrical system. Follow ______
A
OSHA lockout/tagout standard 29 CFR 1910.147
18
Q
_______”Standard for the Inspection, Maintenance, Testing and Retirement of In-Service Automotive Fire Apparatus” to determine the critical points on the device that should be regularly inspected. Inspect these points and look for signs of wear, corrosion, or damage.
A
NFPA 1911
19
Q
Personnel must be safely anchored to a structural feature of the ladder:
• Any time they are not _____or _______ the ladder.
• Any time the device is in _____.
A
Climbing or descending
Motion
20
Q
Each person climbing on the ladder must use a fall arrest harness and tether that meets the requirements of______
A
ANSI Z359.1
21
Q
Interlocks rely on physical components that____
A
Can fail
22
Q
This aerial device is equipped with a number of interlock functions, many of which are required by
A
NFPA 1901
23
Q
Interlocks rely on the proper functioning of ____, ____,_____, _____
A
Sensors, wiring, relays and computers
24
Q
These are physical components that have finite lives and can fail from any number of causes such as ___, ____, _____, _____
A
Wear, corrosion, accidental damage, Simply aging
25
The aerial device function must not activate unless the stabilizers are
Fully deployed
26
ody Collision
| The device will not move into regions where it would make contact with the
Body or cab
27
The aerial device will not operate until the parking brakes have been set and the transmission has been placed in ____ or the transmission is in the _____position with the driveline to the rear axle disengaged.
Neutral
| Drive
28
Engine starter will not work unless the tiller operator is _____ and _____, or a tiller cab start button is engaged.
Seated and belted
29
Anywhere wire rope comes close to or contacts other mechanical parts such as pulleys, sheaves, roller guides, or structural features on the device, a _______ exists.
Pinch hazard
30
you believe that your vehicle has a defect that could cause a crash or could cause serious injury or death, it should be reported immediately to the _________ and to Pierce Manufacturing Inc.
NATIONAL HIGHWAY TRAFFIC SAFETY ADMINISTRATION (NHTSA)
31
Tire pressure should be checked while the tire is cold. Tires that are heated through use may have a ___psi (103 kPa) higher rating.
15PSI
32
Once all of the tires are inflated to the proper air pressure, install on each tire the _________tire pressure management system valve caps (if equipped) that were shipped loose with your apparatus.
LED AIR GUARD
33
brakes employed on fire apparatus use _________lining materials than is common in over-the-road cargo haulers.
MORE AGGRESSIVE
34
Any modification to the brakes to balance the system by reducing brake power must be accompanied by a revision to the _________(FMVSS) information decal (contact Pierce Customer Service for revised tags).
FEDERAL MOTOR VEHICLE SAFETY STANDARD
35
```
BRAKES:
Front Axle
MODEL:
INSERVICE AXEL WEIGHT:
CHAMBER SIZE/ ADJ LENGTH :
```
MERITOR MFS-20
20,000LBS
24 X 5 1/2
36
```
BRAKES:
REAR Axle
MODEL:
INSERVICE AXEL WEIGHT:
CHAMBER SIZE/ ADJ LENGTH
```
MERITOR RS-30-185
31,000 LBS
36 X 6
37
```
BRAKES:
tiller Axle
MODEL:
INSERVICE AXEL WEIGHT:
CHAMBER SIZE/ ADJ LENGTH
```
MERITOR MFS 20-133
22,800 LBS
24 X 5 1/2
38
Brake chamber size is stamped on the
COMPONENT THEMSELVES
39
Slack adjuster length can be determined directly by measuring between the ______ center and the large _______
Camshaft
| Clevis pin
40
Any change, alteration, addition to, or removal from the original equipment or components, made in such a manner that the changed or altered portions or functions of the equipment or components are different from the
Manufacturer
41
The drilling of holes or welding to any structural components of the aerial is
Not permitted
42
What of the truck components may be modified.
Non structural sheet metal
43
Consider the type of metal for the application whenever mounting accessories. Dissimilar metals such as aluminum, steel, stainless steel, brass, etc., when placed in direct contact with each other and subjected to moisture can form a galvanic reaction leading
Rapid corrosion
44
Select mounting material and fasteners to avoid dissimilar metals, or coat all mounting surfaces, base materials and fasteners with a commercial grade rust-proofing agent (such as those conforming to______ specification).
MIL-C-0083933A
45
Any air-operated equipment must only be added to the air system _____of a pressure protection valve.
Downstream
46
Pressure protection valves are installed in both _____and ____brake systems to ensure that no other
Front and rear
47
The air compressor output with the engine at _____is a fraction of its total capacity and will not keep up with continuous operation of most shop-type air tools.
Idle
48
Make
Pierce
49
Model
Arrow XT Tiller and Body Assembly
50
Pierce® Job Number
28613, 28861
51
Aerial Device
100ft Heavy Duty Ladder, Shortened
52
Engine
Cummins ISX 15 912CI (14.9L), EPA 2013, 550HP@1800 rpm, 1850lb-ft@1200 rpm, 2000 rpm governed speed
53
Transmission
Allison 4500 EVS
54
Front Axle
Meritor MFS-20, 20,000 lbl, non-driving
55
Rear axle
Meritor RS30-185, 31,000 lbl, driving
56
Tiller axle
Meritor MFS-20-133, 22,800 lbl, non-driving
57
Front suspension
Leaf Spring, 20,000 lbl, w/ shock absorber
58
Rear suspension
Reyco Leaf Spring, 31,000 lbl
59
Tiller suspension
Ridewell RAS-227 Air 23,000 lbl
60
Steering (chassis)
TRW TAS-85 w/tilt, Eaton Pump
61
Steering (tiller)
TRW TAS-85
62
Brakes:
| Front
Meritor EX25, 17” Disc Plus
63
Brakes:
| rear
Meritor Cam, 16.50 x 8.63”
64
Brakes:
| Tiller
Meritor EX25, 17” Disc Plus
65
Brakes:
| ABS
Wabco ABS Brake System 4S4M (Chassis) 2S2M (Tiller)
66
Wheels:
| Front
Alcoa 22.50” x 12.25” Aluminum, Hub Pilot
67
Wheels:
| Rear
Alcoa 22.50” x 9.00” Aluminum, Hub Pilot
68
Wheels:
| Tiller
Alcoa 22.50” x 12.25” Aluminum
69
Tires:
| Front
Michelin XZY3 (wb) 385/65R22.50, 18 ply, Fire Service Load Rating
70
Tires:
| Rear
Michelin XZA2 Energy, 315/80R22.50, 20 ply, Single
71
Tires:
| Tiller
Michelin XZY 3 (wb), 425/65R22.50 20 ply
72
Alternator
Niehoff C531 w/ Remote Regulator/Rectifier, 360 amp
73
Batteries
(6) Odyssey Grp 31, PC 2150, 1090 CCA ea, Thread Stud, 31922 Isolator
74
Engine oil capacity
44 qt
75
Engine oil Fluid type
15W-40 CJ-4 (CES20081 recommended)
76
Engine coolant capacity
65 pt / 16.25 gal
77
Engine coolant Fluid type
Ethylene Glycol TMC RP-329
78
Engine coolant reservoir capacity
6 qt
79
Aerial hydraulic system (total) capacity
320 qt / 80 gal
80
Aerial hydraulic a stem (total) Fluid type
Multi-Vis 68R Hydraulic Oil
81
Hydraulic reservoir capacity
160 qt / 40 gal
82
Rotation gearbox capacity
5 pt / 2.4 Liters
83
Rotation gearbox fluid type
API-GL5 80W90
84
Chassis steering system (total) capacity
6 qt
85
Chassis steering system (total) Fluid type
Multi-vis 15R Hydraulic Oil
86
Chassis steering fluid reservoir capacity
4 qt
87
Tiller steering system (total) capacity
14qt
88
Tiller steering System (Total) Fluid type
Multi-vis 15R Hydraulic Oil
89
Tiller steering fluid reservoir capacity
9qt
90
Driveline:
| Rear axle capacity
23 qt
91
Driveline:
| Rear axle fluid type
API-GL5 80W90
92
Driveline:
| Transmission capacity
31 qt
93
Driveline:
| Transmission fluid type
TES 389 ATF Allison-Approved
94
Fuel capacity
63 gal
95
Fuel type
ULSD (Ultra Low Sulfur Diesel), 15PPM or less sulfur content
96
DEF (diesel exhaust fluid) capacity
4.5 gal
97
DEF fluid type
ISO 22241-1 or DIN 70700
98
Safety belts provide the best restraint when:
• The seat back is ____.
• The occupant is sitting ____ (______).
• The lap belt is snug and ____on the hips.
• The shoulder belt is snug against the ____.
• The knees are _______.
```
Upright
Upright not slouched
Low
Chest
Straight forward
```
99
Most Pierce apparatus are equipped with a Seat Belt Monitoring System (SBMS). The SBMS is capable of monitoring up to _____sensors indicating the status of each seating position in the cab with green and red LED indicators as follows:
• ____ - Seat occupied and seat belt buckled
• ___- Seat occupied and seat belt unbuckled
• ____- No occupant in seat and seat belt buckled
•_______ - No occupant in seat and seat belt unbuckled
```
10
Green
Red
Red
Not illuminated
```
100
The SBMS will include an audible alarm that will be activated when a red illumination condition exists and the _______ is released, or a red illumination condition exists and the transmission is not in ___
Parking brake
| Neutral
101
The ____BTU heat-only, recirculation-only defroster unit is located in ____
4100
| Dash panel
102
As the defrost and heat are ________systems, the __ may be required to dry the air in situations where the windshield might fog over.
Recirculation- only
| A/c
103
There are two ______BTU (each) heater units.
32,000
104
Heater:
| Each unit has an outlet at the ____, blowing rearward, and an inlet immediately above in the ______
Floor
| Seat riser
105
Heater:
| each unit has a duct routed to the
First officer and driver foot area
106
Heater:
| Controls consis____and _____. The left and right units are controlled ______.
Temperature and fan speed
| Simultaneously
107
Air conditioner:
| The air conditioning system is completely _____ and consists of ___boxes, each containing an _____ and a _______.
External
2
Evaporator
Condenser
108
Air conditioner:
| . Each unit has an air intake located in the ______ just behind the driver and first officer seats.
Headliner
109
Air conditioner:
The air is routed to the crew-cab through a
________and exits through ____ adjustable ball-style louvers per side. The driver and first officer each have ____adjustable ball-style louvers as well.
Headliner plenum
3
2
110
Air conditioner: . Controls consist of ______and an ____switch. The left and right units are wired through the single control.
Fan speed
| On/off switch
111
The vehicle is equipped with a Vehicle Data Recorder (VDR). The VDR is capable of reading and storing the most recent ___ hours of vehicle information.
100
112
The VDR is capable of operating in a voltage range from ___VDC to ___VDC and will continue operation upon termination of power or at voltages below ____VDC for a minimum of ____ms.
8 VDC- 16VDC
8VDC
10ms
113
___is capable of recording the following data via hard-wired and/or CAN inputs:
• Vehicle Speed - MPH
• Acceleration - MPH/sec
• Deceleration - MPH/sec
• Engine Speed - RPM
• Engine Throttle Position - % of Full Throttle
• ABS Event- On/Off
• Seat Occupied Status - Yes/No by Position (1-6 Seating Capacity)
• Seat Belt Buckled Status - Yes/No by Position (1-6 Seating Capacity)
• Master Optical Warning Device Switch - On/Off
• Time - 24 Hour Time
• Date - Year/Month/Date
Vehicle data recorder (VDR)
114
Stored VDR data can be downloaded and viewed using a ________ and the vendor’s ____________; provided with your vehicle on a CD-ROM.
LAPTOP COMPUTER
| VDR SOFTWARE
115
The VDR software contains ____ different software applications. Which are_____,_____,_____
3
VDR configuration tool
VDR extrication tool
VDR viewer tool
116
Tilting the cab on an inclined or non-flat surface may produce interference between components as the cab is lowered causing damage to the _____ and _____
Air intake seal and engine tunnel
117
If the cab fails to lower after following the proper instructions, do not attempt to force it. Have the system checked by a _________
Qualified mechanic
118
When the cab is up do not operate the ______
Air conditioning
119
The cab should not be raised until the air conditioner has been shut-off and the truck has sat with the battery switch __ for at least ____minutes. This will allow the water to be pumped out of the air conditioner unit.
ON
| 30 mins
120
To raise the cab ___ the tether switch until the cab is fully tilted.
Depress
121
Final step when raising the cab Turn the control switch to the ______position and depress the tether switch until the top of the stay arm is inside the stay arm pocket and the cab is ____ resting on the stay arm.
Lower
| Lightly
122
To lower the cab first turn the control switch to the ____position
Raise
123
When lowering the cab Continue to depress the tether switch for at least ___seconds after the cab comes to rest.
5
124
CAUTION: when using the manual cab lift pump Do not ______ the flow control valve.
Overtighten
125
When using the manual cab lift Operate the hand pump rapidly for the _____strokes so that the fluid flows rapidly enough to close the internal system bypass valve.
First few
126
When using the manual cab tilt Locate the small push button at the end of the descent valve solenoid on the hydraulic power unit. Turn this button ______ and _____in place of moving the toggle switch to the LOWER position. To raise the cab, this button must be pushed in and rotated ______.
Counter clockwise and pull out
| Clockwise
127
Start- up of the alternator is delayed until the engine oil pressure reaches ________.
Operating levels
128
Alternator: This design avoids the situation where the alternator attempts to make up for the heavy battery drain caused by _____ operation. This reduces the ______ torque required and protects the voltage regulator from ______.
Starter
Cranking
Overload
129
Alternator: It is therefore normal for the voltmeter to register a lower value for _____seconds during and following the starting procedure until the engine oil pressure rises sufficiently to activate the alternator.
Several
130
Batteries give off _____ gas that is highly explosive.
Hydrogen
131
Battery posts, terminals, and related accessories contain
Lead and lead compounds
132
Whenever disconnecting battery terminals, always disconnect the _____terminal first. When reconnecting, always connect the ground terminal ____.
Ground
| Last
133
Batteries: Polish the contact surface of the terminals with steel wool and apply a light coat of ________before installing terminals.
Dielectric lubricant
134
_____Monitor indicates the battery’s state of readiness and the status of the charger. The monitor panel and shoreline connection are located near_____
NEWMAR EVM 12-2 Battery charger
| Driver seat
135
The “Charger ON” bar illuminates in ____ to indicate AC power is connected and the batteries are charging.
Blue
136
At full charge, all ____bars illuminate _____ to indicate battery voltage of ___volts +.
Five
Green
13
137
As the battery discharges, green bars extinguish one at a time until _____ remain lit to indicate a battery voltage of ____ volts.
Three
| 12.4
138
If the state of charge drops further, green bars turn _____ / ____ in color and continue to extinguish until one ____bar remains.
Orange/yellow
| Red
139
If the state of charge drops further still, the red bar will ___ to indicate charge has dropped to ____volts or below. Batteries should be re-charged as soon as possible.
Flash
| 11.2
140
If battery voltage gets too high (___volts or above), all five bars will flash ____ to indicate the over voltage condition. If this occurs while the vehicle engine is running, there could be a fault with the alternator or charging system.
15
| Red
141
The charger will enter sleep mode after ___hours if the charger and/or the vehicle is off and either battery voltage is below ___ volts. The meter automatically comes out of sleep mode if either battery voltage is above ___volts.
48
13
13
142
When in sleep mode, the LED lights will blink every ____seconds. The LED which blinks also indicates that battery’s state of charge. If a low battery condition is noticed, recharge as soon as possible.
2-3 seconds
143
When power is applied, the battery charger monitor will cycle through a test mode. The blue “Charger On” LED will _____, and both bar graphs will light up ______ while changing colors, flash ___, and then normal operation begins.
Flash
Sequentially
Red
144
Electrical circuits are protected either by circuit breakers or fuses. Vehicles equipped with _______ also utilize transistors (solid state logic).
Command zone
145
When the level in the fuel tank has dropped to the ____ tank mark:
• Light in fuel gauge comes on steady,
• _______caution light in indicator bank comes on steady,
1/8
| Amber
146
When the level in the fuel tank has dropped to the ___ tank mark:
• ____warning light in indicator bank comes on steady,
• LCD display WARNING text will flash with _____FUEL LEVEL message,
• Caution alarm will ____.
1/32
Red
Very low
Chime
147
The hazard flashers will operate with the battery master switch and ignition switch in the ___ position. A switch located on the ____side of the instrument panel actuates the hazard flashers.
On
| Left
148
Electrical loads turn on sequentially in priority order from _____when their switch is activated (ignition or master) and the vehicle is operating in the selected mode for that output (response and/or scene). Loads sequence off in ______ order. Priority 0 loads sequence on and off but are not shed.
1 to 8
| Reverse
149
Heating/ac shed point/ UNSHED POINT
| Inverter shed point/UNSHED POINT
12.2 volts /12.4
| 12/4 / 12.6
150
Loads will shed when voltage drops to the shed point for a minimum of ___minute. Once shed, the load will remain off for a minimum of __ minutes, and will not unshed until the unshed voltage is achieved for a minimum of __minute.
1
5
1
151
Fast Idle is activated whenever system voltage is reduced to ____ volts for at least ___minute. Fast idle remains on for a minimum of ___minutes and until ____volts is achieved.
12.8 volts
1min
10mins
13.0 volts
152
If a short or over-current occurs to an output, the output will be shut off and the TSM will attempt to turn on the output up to ___times. If the attempts fail, the output will be left off until the load is cycled off and on, or a complete system restart occurs. A flashing LED at a _____rate indicates an output is in shutdown mode.
3
| Half-second
153
NOTE: The override feature is intended for quickly turning on all output modes in times of need. It is not
intended for normal use.
Activating the override switch will turn on outputs ___through ___ no matter what state they are currently operating in. The override LED flashes to indicate the override mode is ____.
1 through 12
| Active
154
Diesel engines consume as much as ____cubic feet of clean air every minute when operating under full load. Hot embers sucked into the air intake can cause the air cleaner element to ignite.
1200
155
The Samlex power inverter converts low voltage DC power from the chassis batteries to standard __volt AC power.
115
156
The power inverter is not part of the
Onboard generator system
157
Use the power inverter to provide electrical power to ___devices. The total power output rating for this application is ____watts.
1125
158
Connects standard 115 volt AC powered devices.Includes circuit breaker switch.
Ac power strip
159
INPUT VOLTAGE- Displayed using a ____-digit numeral with ____decimal.
THREE
| ONE
160
Flashes when the inverter has shut down due to a fault. Faults may include: low voltage at
terminals, high voltage at terminals, over-temperature.
Input fault
161
Flashes when the inverter has shut down due to over load or short circuit on the AC output side. Refer to the manufacturer’s manual for causes and remedies.
Output Fault
162
Displayed by a 14-bar gradually-increasing graph to depict output power level.
Output power
163
Connecting loads: Switch ____ the inverter using the remote control panel ON/OFF switch.
Off
164
Connecting loads: Switch ___the load.
Off
165
Connecting loads: Plug the cord(s) from the load into the AC receptacles of the power strip.
Switch ____the inverter. Wait for a ___ seconds.
On
| Few
166
Overload power inverter: Wait for at least ____minutes before switching the inverter remote control switch to ON again.
Three minutes
167
The vehicle is equipped with a permanently-mounted Cummins ONAN model _____ diesel powered generator, rated at a maximum _____W (watts).
HDKAL-1B
| 7500 WATTS
168
The generator’s diesel engine is cooled by its own _____ liquid cooling system including a genset-mounted ______ and ______fan.
PRESSURIZED
RADIATOR
COOLING
169
The generator uses the chassis batteries to power its controls and starting circuits. Controls are located on the tractor dashboard, the _______rear tractor compartment, and generator-mounted control panel.
DRIVER SIDE
170
If the engine does not start within ___seconds, release the starter buttons and allow the starter motor to cool for ____seconds before attempting to start the engine again.
15 SECONDS
| 60 SECONDS
171
Running the engine at idle allows the ________ and ______ to carry heat away from the combustion chamber, bearings, shafts, etc. If the engine is stopped suddenly, the turbocharger temperature may rise as much as _____F (56°C). This may result in seized bearings or loose oil seals.
Idle engine for ___to__minutes.
Lubricating oil and coolant
100 degrees
3-5 mins
172
The optional emergency radiator refill feature allows the engine cooling system to be replenished with ___ supplied by the fire pump and tank. This option should be used only in a _______.
Water
| True emergency
173
If the coolant is extremely low and the engine is very hot, allow the engine to cool for at least ___minutes before adding coolant to avoid thermal shock to the engine block resulting in serious engine damage or reduced component life.
15
174
A diesel truck engine may consume over _____gallons of air for every gallon of fuel that it burns.
12,500
175
A dirty air cleaner element is a common cause of___ The result is too little air to burn all the fuel. Some of the excess fuel will cause a _____exhaust and ________
Air restriction
Smokey
Lost horsepower
176
2007 EPA, 2010 EPA & 2013 EPA engines require the use of specific oil and diesel fuel. The diesel fuel to be used shall be __________ (ULSD) fuel containing ___ parts per million (PPM) sulfur content or less.
Ultra low sulfur diesel
| 15
177
. If ultra-low-sulfur fuel is not used, the engine will not meet emissions regulations, and the _______ (ATD) can be damaged.
After treatment device
178
Cummins Inc. recommends that 2007 EPA, 2010 EPA & 2013 EPA engines use a high quality ______multi viscosity heavy-duty engine oil that meets the requirements of Cummins Engineering Standard _________ for maximum DPF maintenance intervals. Cummins allows the use of ________ oil with no change in oil drain intervals.
15w-40
CES20081/API CJ-4/SL
CES20078/API CI-4/SL
179
In cold weather Avoid extended idling (beyond ____minutes) whenever possible.
10 mins
180
Maintain a minimum of ____rpm idle by use of the hand throttle or high idle system. Always make sure that parking brake is applied and transmission is in neutral before applying hand throttle.
1250 rpm
181
The sensor will activate an integral battery operated LED when the pressure of that tire drops ___psi.
8
182
During cold-weather periods, monitor the hydraulic oil temperature. If it falls slightly below the recommended operating range, the function ____may diminish. The continuous running of an aerial function will help to warm the oil.
Speed
183
Cab Lift Cylinder Fluid Chart:
0-120 degrees F_____
Below 0 degrees F_____
TES-389 approved
| MIL-H-5606 (Mobil HFA or Equivalent)
184
The door latch mechanism requires specific attention and needs to be lubricated. Liberally apply _____ grease or ______grease between the pivot arm (cam shaped lever) and the pivot plate of the door latch.
White lithium
| Alpha 2000
185
Inspect the door latch strikers. Tighten loose strikers on cab side doors to ___ ft-lbs. Adjust the striker in or out to obtain an even seal around the door with the latch closed completely.
55
186
Door hinges should be lubricated by spraying them with a light coating of _________. After spraying, clean over-spray from surrounding painted surfaces and walk areas.
Silicon lubricant
187
Hinges can be “____” from the weight of crewmembers supporting themselves on the doors during entry. This will cause the door to sag and bind on the striker.
Sprung
188
Wipe the blades with a clean towel soaked in _______. If this does not remedy wiper blade problems such as chatter and streaking, then the blades should be replaced.
Windshield wiper fluid
189
To remove R134A from air conditioning system, use equipment certified to meet
SAE J2210
190
The air conditioning system should be checked at the start of the____ season. The service should include cleaning of the_____ and a refrigerant level check.
warm weather
| condenser fins
191
If the system is functioning properly and cooling the cab adequately, the sight glass should be ____ (you will not see anything in it). If it is not clear when the system is first turned on, wait a ____minutes for the system to stabilize, then look again.
CLEAR
| FEW
192
WHAT WILL YOU SEE IN THE AC SIGHT GLASS IF IT HAS LOW REFRIGERANT OR AIR MAY BE IN SYSTEM
FOAM BUBBLES/MIST
193
WHAT WILL YOU SEE IN AC SIGHT GLASS WHEN THERE MAY HAVE LOW REFRIGERANT OR OIL STREAKS
STREAKS
194
WHAT WILL YOU SEE IN THE AC SIGHT GLASS IF THERE IS DESSICANT BREAKDOWN OR THE SYSTEM IS CONTAMINATED
CLOUDY
195
What may cause a severe loss of belt strength.
Bleach or dye
196
Pierce further recommends considering replacement of the belts at __year intervals, to reduce the potential failure of the seat belts caused by unapparent damage such as belt exposure to chemicals or UV radiation.
5
197
Torque the 1.00-8 UNC carriage bolts that fasten the bumper extension to the frame assembly to
400 ft lbs
198
Do not use _______grease on disc brake calipers
Lithium base
199
Only use clay-based NLGI Grade numbers __ or __ or equivalent on disk brake calipers
1 or 2
200
Lubricate spring pins with _____grade ____ grease until grease oozes evenly from ends of each pin. If grease will not flow, raise chassis to remove the load on the springs and apply grease again. If grease will still not flow, disassemble spring pins and clean or replace as required.
NLGI EP2
201
The drive axle uses a ______style drum brake. The drive axle uses a Meritor cam style drum brake.
Reline the brakes when the lining thickness is ___inch (6.3mm) or less.
MERITOR CAM
| 1/4
202
Air Intake and Charge Air Cooler Hose Clamps
| Tighten T-Bolt style hose clamps to ___-____ in-lbs. Tighten Spring T-bolt clamps to ___-____in-lbs.
90-100
| 45-70
203
COOLANT HOSE CLAMPS: Constant torque type hose clamps are used on most coolant lines. These clamps should be installed during initial assembly or reassembly with to a torque of ____ in-lbs. The clamp will likely drop in torque value after exposure to hot coolant and should be maintained to a torque of ___in-lbs thereafter.
100
| 45
204
COOLANT HOSE CLAMPS: Tighten standard worm-drive style clamps to ______ in-lbs. The clamp will likely drop in torque value after exposure to hot coolant and should be maintained to a torque of ____in-lbs thereafter.
30-45
| 30
205
Check thermostats
YEARLY
206
Thermostats are stamped with the opening temperature. For example, a thermostat marked 175°F (70°C) indicates that this is the approximate temperature at which the thermostat starts to open. A thermostat is fully open at approximately ___F (11°C) above the opening temperature.
20 DEGREES
207
Depending on date of manufacturer, your Pierce truck may be equipped with one of two coolant types:
STANDARD TYPE: GREEN IN COLOR standard drain intervals, SCA inhibitors.
Extended Type: Yellow in color, extended drain intervals, nitrate-free OAT type inhibitors.
208
These coolants have what in common
Shell Rotella Ultra ELCTM
— Volvo Penta Coolant VCS
— Chevron Delo® Extended Life NF
Yellow in color
209
Coolant fill procedure: Fill at approximately ___GPM until radiator top tank is fill to the point of overflowing.
3
210
Coolant fill procedure: Start engine and run at ____. Top off coolant repeatedly until top tank is full.
Run engine at increased rpm until temperature gauge reads a minimum of ____F
Idle
| 195
211
Diesel fuel injection nozzles are manufactured to an accuracy of a _________ of a millimeter and are matched precisely to each other
Few thousandths
212
On all 2007 EPA, 2010 EPA & 2013 EPA diesel engines, the exhaust temperature can reach ____F during an active regeneration cycle.
1350 degrees
213
An active regeneration cycle could occur automatically whenever the speedometer indicates a speed above __mph. This can occur when the vehicle is in motion, or when the apparatus is operating in stationary pump mode
5
214
All customer installed hardware needs to be kept a minimum of __ inches away from any exhaust pipe and After Treatment Device (ATD) housing. Failure to comply may result in heat related damage to the aftermarket components.
6’’
215
All 2007 EPA, 2010 EPA & 2013 EPA engines with Diesel Particulate Filters (DPFs) are equipped
with exhaust diffusers. Some Cummins ISM engines, 450 HP and higher, do not have____
DPFs
216
Reduced Exhaust Diffuser function can result in exhaust temperatures approaching ____°F (649°C) at the outlet during or shortly after Diesel Particulate Filter (DPF) regeneration.
1200
217
Steering reservoir: The filter element should be changed when the oil in the steering system is changed. TRW and Sheppard power steering gears require the use of automatic transmission fluid type “__” or “__” or TES-389 approved fluid. Highway vehicles should have the fluid changed annually or every _____miles. Off-highway vehicles will require more frequent change intervals.
E or F
| 50,000
