2017 Henry Flashcards
(40 cards)
(3) Surveying by social media runs the risk of:
(A) Sampling error
(B) Sample bias
(C) Systematic bias
(D) Exclusion error
The correct answer is “B”
Bias is a term often confused with sampling error. Sampling error is the natural consequence arising out of the fact that sample size is much less when compared to the population size. The sampling error can thus be minimized by increasing the size of the sample. The inaccuracy caused in the estimates of population parameters attributed to bias is more systematic.
(6) Real property includes:
I. Mineral Rights
II. Light fixtures
III. Easement
IV. Vegetation
(A) II
(B) I, II
(C) I, III
(D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is (D)
Real property consists of all land, structures, firmly attached and integrated equipment (such as light fixtures or a well pump), anything growing on the land, and all “interests” in the property which may be the right to future ownership (remainder), right to occupy for a period of time (tenancy or life estate) the right to drill for oil, the right to get the property back (a reversion) if it is no longer used for its current purpose (such as use for a hospital, school or city hall), use of airspace (condominium) or an easement across another’s property. Real property should be thought of as a group of rights like a bundle of sticks which can be divided. It is distinguished from the other type of property, “personal property”, which is made up of movable items.
(10) The Elders of Concord desire to develop a new district plan centered around the concept of sustainability. After extensive research, you decide to recommend using APA’s definition that:
(A) Sustainability is development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs
(B) Sustainability means improving the quality of people’s lives while living within the capacities of supporting natural and human systems
(C) Sustainable development is a dynamic process which enables people to realize their potential and improve their quality of life in ways which simultaneously protect and enhance the earth’s life support systems
(D) The three E’s of Sustainability are economy, ecology, and equity
The answer is “B”
APA’s definition comes from its new Sustainability Policy Framework that replaces the previous 2000 Policy Guide on Sustainability, and which recognizes that sustainability touches many different areas of policy and planning and therefore APA laid out a broad framework to guide a wide array of APA advocacy, programming, and policy development
(11) A landlocked property owner can obtain an easement in which of the following ways?
(A) Expressed grant.
(B) Necessity.
(C) Prescription.
(D) Inverse condemnation
The correct answer is B)
The common law doctrine of easement by necessity has long been used to allow a landlocked landowner to access a public highway over another’s private land when no other relief is available.
(12) Tonasket is concerned about the potential of expansion of nearby Big Box retailers and their potential to adversely affect their independent downtown merchants. Determined to pass new regulations that will limit Big Box impacts to their small rural community, among the regulation(s) that their planner will consider is (are):
I. Banning stores with a standardized façade & standardized décor and color schemes
II. Banning stores over 100,000 sq. ft. in size within ¼ mile of town limits
III. Requiring stores over 40,000 sq. ft. to be approved through a special permit process
IV. Banning stores over 50,000 sq. ft. with more than 5% space devoted to groceries
(A) II, III
(B) III
(C) I, III, IV
(D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is “C”
Banning stores outside the town’s jurisdiction exceeds their authority. A formula business is typically defined as one with more than a specified number of outlets in the United States that share common (standardized) features such as merchandise, trademark, architecture, employee uniforms, or decor. Growing concern for the homogenization of retail caused by the proliferation of national chains (including big-box retailers) and the loss of local character makes regulations prohibiting or addressing this issue more politically viable. Some jurisdictions require big-box approval to occur through a special permit or conditional use process. Other jurisdictions regulate the use of limits on the size of the grocery component of a store to ensure two things: 1) that size limitations did not rule out department stores that are not big-boxes; and 2) that stores like Wal-Mart supercenters and SuperTargets do not destroy the existing grocery store businesses in a region.
(13) The Visioning process allows for: early citizen involvement, impartial leadership, all inclusive citizen participation, and:
I. Heavy media involvement
II. A long-range planning mentality
III. The saving of time and money
IV Ideal communities
A) I only
B) II only
C) I and II
D) III and IV
The correct answer is C)
Visioning is “planning at its boldest”, a participatory, collaborative, and consensus-driven planning process that seeks to describe an agreed-upon long-range desired future for a community on the issues that matter most to the community. Therefore, the most successful visioning efforts involve all segments of the community. This often involves the use of major multi-media strategies to both encourage public participation from all interest groups, and to periodically publicize the success of ongoing efforts and maintain forward momentum and retain continued interest and involvement in the process.
(14) Key issues of concern in waterfront planning include:
I. Gentrification
II. Industrial development
III. Sprawl
IV. Heavy metals
A) I, II, IV
B) I, III
C) II, IV
D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is A)
The loss of working waterfronts due to residential gentrification (and the continued retention of major industrial areas that need to be on the water, such as boat repair facilities) is a significant planning issue for many coastal areas, as is sediment contamination by heavy metals from such industrial and marine activities
(16) Old Town is attempting to attract a major national grocer to the downtown area to meet the needs of the increasing resident millennial population by:
I. Providing assistance to overcome higher land prices and land assembly issues
II. Convincing supermarket chains the area has sufficient market demand
III. Reassessing noise and odor standards and associated solutions to accommodate grocers’ needs
IV. Convincing supermarket chains to provide fewer than traditional parking spaces
(A) I, IV
(B) II, III
(C) I, II, IV
(D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is “D”
All the listed options can potentially help attract supermarket chains back to the downtown areas. Given that today’s average grocery store is more than 50,000 square feet in size, and that national supermarket chains have become comfortable with their business models, it is very difficult to find enough contiguous land available in a downtown area without either great expense or demolition of buildings (sometimes of historic significance), or both. Most supermarket chains need to be convinced that older downtowns and neighborhood commercial corridors have enough market demand to support a supermarket. Zoning laws sometimes make it difficult to build or operate downtown grocery stores – particularly as part of a mixed-use project in which zoning officials fear that noise from a 24-hour or late-night grocery store or smells from its trash area might disturb residents. Downtown development patterns - zero-setback, parking in the rear or in a parking lot elsewhere in the district – are unfamiliar, and therefore perceived as risky, to the national chains (and to lending institutions).
(23) The roles of a State Historic Preservation Officer include:
I. Administering the State program of Federal assistance for historic preservation within the State
II. Assisting Federal and State agencies and local governments in carrying out their historic preservation responsibilities
III. Listing eligible properties on the National Register and otherwise administer applications for listing historic properties on the National register
IV. Conducting a statewide survey of historic properties
(A) II, III
(B) I, IV
(C) I, II, IV
(D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is “C”
Listing eligible properties on the National Register is the role of National Park Service, and includes all National Historic Landmarks as well as all historic areas administered by the National Park Service
(24) Which of the following planning movements was characterized by local management and self-government without a need for intervention from the central state, and a philosophy that planning should be designed for socioeconomic stratums just above the poor?
A) Sanitary Movement
B) City Beautiful Movement
C) Garden City Movement
D) Housing Reform
The correct answer is C).
The garden city movement is an approach to urban planning that was founded in 1898 by Sir Ebenezer Howard in the United Kingdom in his book, To-morrow: A Peaceful Path to Real Reform, which offered a vision of towns free of slums and enjoying the benefits of both town (such as opportunity, amusement and high wages) and country (such as beauty, fresh air and low rents). Garden cities were to be planned, self-contained communities surrounded by greenbelts, and containing carefully balanced areas of residences, industry, and agriculture which avoided the downfalls of industrial cities of the time such as urban poverty, overcrowding, low wages, dirty alleys with no drainage, poorly ventilated houses, toxic substances, dust, carbon gases, infectious disease and lack of interaction with nature.
See the following links for more information
(26) Which of the following is a Policy:
(A) Train the Chapter’s planners to pass the AICP Exam
(B) Develop a comprehensive Florida Chapter AICP Exam Prep training manual
(C) Increase the Chapter’s AICP Exam passage rate above the national average by 2015.
(D) Annually monitor the Chapter’s AICP Exam passage rate by Section.
The correct answer is “B”
The correct answer is “B”
Goals provide a long term result, or the long-term end toward which programs or activities are ultimately directed. Objectives are more specific, measurable statements of desired or intermediate ends that are achievable and mark progress toward a goal. Policies are courses of action that indicate how the goals and objectives of a plan should be realized. Measures are metrics used to assess progress toward meeting an objective, which can consist of an output or an outcome. Above, “A” is a goal. “B” is a policy, “C” is an Objective, and “D” is a measure.
(27) The County Administrator tells you, the Planning Director, that he is concerned about the potential environmental justice issues associated with the new proposed landfill site in a residential area. Among the planning issues you direct your staff to investigate are:
I. Whether Hispanics will experience a disproportionate environmental impact
II. Public participation
III. Housing gentrification
IV. Health risk assessment
(A) I, II
(B) I, II, IV
(C) I only
(D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is “B“
EPA defines environmental justice (EJ) as the fair treatment and meaningful involvement of all people regardless of race, color, national origin, or income with respect to the development, implementation, and enforcement of environmental laws, regulations, and policies. Other definitions include equitable distribution of environmental risks and benefits; fair and meaningful participation in environmental decision-making; recognition of community ways of life, local knowledge, and cultural difference; and the capability of communities and individuals to function and flourish in society. Although its origins go back much earlier, in 1994, President Clinton issued Executive Order 12898, “Federal Actions to Address Environmental Justice in Minority Populations and Low-Income Populations.” Executive Order 12898
(39) Which U.S. housing act or legislation has been most successful at encouraging home ownership?
(A) Hope VI
(B) HOME
(C) Mortgage interest tax deduction
(D) LIHTC
The correct answer is “C“
The home mortgage interest deduction allows taxpayers who own their homes to reduce their taxable income by the amount of interest paid on the loan which is secured by their principal
residence. Approximately half of all homeowners (~ 75 million) use this deduction, and the standard justification for the deduction is that it gives an incentive for home ownership.
(44) To help implement a program to counter man-made climate change impacts, the major asks you, the planning director, to develop a local public/private partnership parking cash out program. Among the tools you investigate are:
I. Encouraging business interests to have their employees utilize mass transit and car pooling
II. Requiring employers who provide subsidized parking for their employees to offer a cash allowance, partly subsidized by the city, in lieu of a parking space
III. Encouraging business interests to subsidize their employees to utilize nearby, vacant public parking in lieu of an onsite parking space
IV. Providing free downtown mass transit
(A) I, III
(B) II
(C) I, III, IV
(D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is “B”
Giving commuters the choice between a parking subsidy or its cash equivalent shows even free parking has an opportunity cost—the forgone cash. The option to cash out thus raises the effective price of commuter parking without charging for it. The cash option converts employer-paid parking from a matching grant for driving to work into a cash grant for commuting. Commuters can continue to park free at work, but the cash option also rewards commuters who carpool, walk, bike, or ride public transit to work.
(48) Prescriptive Easement:
(A) Requires access to a public way over adjacent land if crossing that land is absolutely necessary to reach a landlocked parcel and there has been some original intent to provide the lot with access, and the grant was never completed or recorded but is thought to exist
(B) Is a situation when a person who does not have legal title to land occupies the land without the permission of the legal owner
(C) Is an implied easement granted after the dominant estate has used the property in a hostile, continuous and open manner for a statutorily prescribed number of years.
(D) Is a power invested in a qualified private land conservation organization (often called a “land trust”) or government (municipal, county, state or federal) to constrain, as to a specified land area, the exercise of rights otherwise held by a landowner so as to achieve certain conservation purposes
The correct answer is “C”
Easements by prescription, also called prescriptive easements, are implied easements granted after the dominant estate has used the property in a hostile, continuous and open manner for a statutorily prescribed number of years (e.g. school children cutting across my backyard for 20 years). Prescriptive easements differ from adverse possession by not requiring exclusivity. Laws and regulations vary among local and national governments, but some traits are common to most prescription laws:
* open and notorious (i.e. obvious to anyone)
* actual, continuous (i.e., uninterrupted for the entire required time period); this does not necessarily require use daily, weekly, etc.
* adverse to the rights of the true property owner
* hostile (i.e. in opposition to the claim of another; this can be accidental, not “hostile” in the common sense)
* continuous for a period of time defined by statute or appellate case law
Answer “A” is easement by necessity; “B” is adverse possession; “D” is a conservation easement.
(58) Which of the following federal programs was enacted to resuscitate impoverished neighborhoods by providing new housing and decent jobs for the unemployed?
A) Block Grant Program.
B) Section 8 Housing Program.
C) Empowerment Zones: Enterprise Communities Program.
D) Social Security Program.
(58) Which of the following federal programs was enacted to resuscitate impoverished neighborhoods by providing new housing and decent jobs for the unemployed?
A) Block Grant Program.
B) Section 8 Housing Program.
C) Empowerment Zones: Enterprise Communities Program.
D) Social Security Program.
(63) The hallmarks of a Third Place:
I. Maximizes the amount of residential, business and leisure space within walking distance of public transport
II. Are open and readily accessible to those who occupy them
III. Involves regulars
IV. Typically located within a radius of ¼ to ½ mile (400 to 800 m) around a central transit stop
(A) II, III
(B) I, IV
(C) I, II, III
(D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is “A”
The correct answer is “A”
The Great Good Place, Ray Oldenburg argues that third places are
important for civil society, democracy, civic engagement, and establishing feelings of a sense of place, and have the following hallmarks:
* Free or inexpensive
* Food and drink, while not essential, are important
* Highly accessible: proximate for many (walking distance)
* Involve regulars – those who habitually congregate there
* Welcoming and comfortable
* Both new friends and old should be found there
(70) According to the Highway Capacity Manual (1994), if a roadway has a “E” service level, which of the following would best describe it?
A) stable flow, moderate delays, and the speed is determined by traffic
B) unstable flow, near capacity, limited speed, and very long delays
C) free flow, high operating speed with no delays
D) very low speeds, frequent stoppages, volume is greater than capacity
The correct answer is B)
FROM: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Level_of_service
Level-of-Service E describes operations at capacity. Flow becomes irregular and speed varies rapidly because there are virtually no usable gaps to maneuver in the traffic stream and speeds rarely reach the posted limit. Vehicle spacing is about 6 car lengths, however speeds are still at or above 50 mi/h(80 km/h). Any disruption to traffic flow, such as merging ramp traffic or lane changes, will create a shock wave affecting traffic upstream. Any incident will create serious delays. Driver’s level of comfort become poor. LOS E is a common standard in larger urban areas, where some roadway congestion is inevitable.
(71) In order, identify the unique roles of facilitators, mediators, and arbitrators:
I. Needs to keep the conversation on track and possess of skill of understanding cultural aspects of the conversation while presenting an opening statement and the opportunity for disputants’ opening statements, and joint discussion
II. Encourage everyone’s opinions and make sure that they do not make statements that may be interpreted as judgments
III. Present an unbiased and objective nature
IV. Conducts a contested hearing between the parties, and in many cases acts as a judge, rendering a binding decision
(A) II, IV,I
(B) I, II, III
(C) III, II, IV
(D) II, I, IV
The correct answer is “D“
“Facilitation” is the use of a neutral third party to help multi-party groups accomplish the content of their work by providing process leadership and expertise. “Mediation” is the use of a neutral third person to help parties reach a voluntary resolution of a dispute. It is informal, confidential, and flexible, focusing on interests rather than positions, and on practical and legal choices. “Arbitration” is an alternative to litigation in which an arbitrator or panel of arbitrators listen to the positions of the disputing parties in a relatively informal proceeding and then issue a decision on how the situation should be resolved. All methods have in common the need for an unbiased and objective nature
(79) Of the following growth management techniques which would likely be used to protect water supplies while land within watershed is being acquired for watershed protection?
(A) Building permit caps.
(B) Subdivision phasing.
(C) Large lot zoning.
(D) Building permit moratorium.
The correct answer is “D”
A building moratorium is appropriate to temporarily stop construction within a watershed while government is acquiring land, as long as it’s for a reasonable timeframe (e.g. less than 32 months).
(81) Town design concept where every parcel is 1 acre in size and connected via highway and rail.
(A) Garden City
(B) New Town
(C) Broadacre City
(D) Suburb
The correct answer is “”C”
Broadacre City was the antithesis of a city and the epitome of the newly born suburbia, shaped through Wright’s particular vision. Each U.S. family would be given a one acre plot of land from the federal lands reserves, there would be a train station and a few office and apartment buildings in Broadacre City,
(85) If built today, the White City would be considered a form of:
(A) Suburban Sprawl
(B) Tactical Urbanism
(C) New Urbanism
(D) Smart Growth
The correct answer is “B”
Short-term, community-based projects—from pop-up parks to open streets initiatives—have become a powerful and adaptable new tool of urban activists, planners, and policy-makers seeking to drive lasting improvements in their cities and beyond.
(89) The planning director asks you to lead a neighborhood plan for Old Town, one of the poorest areas of your municipality. Among the issues you’d likely need to address in your planning are:
I. Combating Sprawl
II. Attracting the Creative Class
III. The provision of Skinny Streets
III. The provision of Skinny Streets
IV. Resolving food deserts
A) I, II, III
B) II, IV
C) II, III
D) IV
The correct answer is “D”
A food desert is a geographic area where affordable & healthy food is difficult to obtain, particularly for those without access to an automobile. Food deserts often exist in rural areas and low-income, poor neighborhoods populated by ethnic or racial minorities that lack convenient access to affordable, healthful food.
(93) In Earnest Burgess’ Concentric Zone Theory (1923) everything starts from the center and grows out from there in the form of broad belts or zones. Which of the following is NOT true about these zones?
(A) The first zone is the downtown center in which is focused the economic, political, and cultural life of the city.
(B) The second zone is known as the “zone of transition”, which is both area-wise and population-wise an area of limbo.
(C) The third zone is where the parks and open space are located.
(D) Immediately adjacent to the central business district is an area slated for expansion if business is good.
The correct answer is “C”
The concentric zone model, also known as the Burgess model is one of the earliest theoretical models to explain urban social structures. Based on human ecology theory done by Burgess and applied on Chicago, it was the first to give the explanation of distribution of social groups within urban areas. This concentric ring model depicts urban land usage in concentric rings: the Central Business District (or CBD) was in the middle of the model, and the city expanded in rings with different land uses. The zones identified are:
1. The center was the central business district,
2. The transition zone of mixed residential and commercial uses or the zone of transition
3. Working class residential homes
4. Better quality middle-class homes (Outer Suburbs) or zone of better housing
5. Commuters zone
