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AirMed Regional > 2019 End of Year Exam > Flashcards

2019 End of Year Exam Flashcards

Cornerstone Questions (70 cards)

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1
Q

A few important preparatory actions you can do to ensure you are ready for a potential arduous farm and ranch emergency are:

A

Sunscreen, hydration, healthy meals and snack, proper boots and attire for the elements.
Fostering a positive relationship with local EMS through teaching and community events.

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2
Q

TRUE/FALSE: Farm and ranch emergencies are often cut and dry, requiring little more than a simple load and go transport.

A

False

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3
Q

TRUE/FALSE: It’s a good practice to transport the snake with the patient to the hospital for identification purposes.

A

False

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4
Q

What is the acronym for the signs and symptoms of Organophosphate exposure?

A

SLUDGE

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5
Q

What resources are available to research Hazmat?

A

Chemtrec, CDC, AAPCC, MSDS

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6
Q

Early trauma management includes

A

Preventing circulatory shock by controlling bleeding, administering warmed IV fluids and blood if needed, and thermoregulation

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7
Q

A horse with his ears back, muscles tense, and lips pursed is likely:

A

angry or threatened

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8
Q

TRUE/FALSE: It is NOT a good idea to establish a work zone / cordon when operating heavy machinery.

A

False

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9
Q

What procedure is utilized to prevent restarting equipment that is currently being operated around?

A

Tag out and lock out

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10
Q

You are requested to administer PRBCs to an 8kg pediatric patient. How many mls do you anticipate infusing?

A

80

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11
Q

It is preferred that PRBCs be administered through a 20g or larger IV catheter to prevent ________.

A

hemolysis

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12
Q

Y-tubing should be spiked and primed with ________.

A

Normal saline

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13
Q

Which of the following is not a primary function of blood?

A

Filtration

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14
Q

Transfusion reactions typically occur within _______ minutes or the first 50 mLs.

A

15 minutes

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15
Q

Blood product administration should be completed within ______ hours from the time the product was removed from the cooler.

A

4 hours

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16
Q 
TXA can be mixed in all of the following except:
NS
LR
D5W
PRBCs
A

Packed red blood cells

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17
Q

What is the initial dose of TXA?

A

1g over 10min

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18
Q

Administering TXA to a patient who sustained injuries more than _____ hours prior increases the chance of mortality.

A

3 hours

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19
Q

The proper method for warming blood prior to administration is:

A

using a commercial in-line device

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20
Q

How much blood can potentially be lost in with a pelvic fracture?

A

2-3 Liters

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21
Q

What landmarks are used to position the pelvic immobilization device?

A

Greater trochanters

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22
Q

Typically, pelvic fractures are caused by ________ energy injuries

A

High

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23
Q

Which of the following is not reason for pelvic immobilization?

  • tamponads bleeding sources
  • decreases pain for transport
  • reduces the need for foley catheterization
  • reduces instability of the injured pelvis
A

Reduces the need for foley catheterization.

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24
Q

What is the mortality rate of open-pelvic fractures?

A

50 percent

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25
A clavicle fracture with associated neurovascular injury requires:
an emergent orthopedic consultation
26
The most common type of clavicle fracture is:
a fracture located in the middle third of the bone (Allman 1)
27
The major concern in all chest wall trauma is for:
underlying intrathoracic injury
28
An outdated treatment recommendation for a flail chest is
chest wall splinting
29
What location of rib fractures have increased risk of solid organ injury?
ribs 9-12
30
The most common site for a rib fracture is
posteriolateral
31
The most common location for rib fractures is
ribs 4-9
32
What baseline assessment should crews perform on any patient with a suspected sternal fracture?
EKG
33
What type of injury causes concern for compression of trachea and great vessels?
posterior sternoclavicular dislocation
34
Paradoxical motion of flail segment may not be seen in intubated patients due to:
positive pressure ventilation
35
What is the most serious potential complication of performing CPR on an LVAD patient?
LVAD cannula dislodgement
36
TRUE/FALSE: An LVAD can NOT be a permanent solution for a patient in heart failure?
False
37
When defibrillating someone with an LVAD you should set your Joules:
at the recommended joule setting for your device
38
The most common dysrhythmia in LVAD patients is?
Vfib/Vtach
39
A normal ETCO2 in the intubated patient with an LVAD is?
35-45
40
TRUE/FALSE: A patient with an LVAD can be treated with an anti-dysrhythmic?
True
41
Stop every ______ min of CPR to reevaluate the efforts of resuscitation. NRP/STABLE
1
42
The starting dose of epi via IV of 1mg/10ml concentration is ____ ml/kg: NRP/STABLE
0.1
43
The D10 dose for hypogylcemia in the neonate is _____ ml/kg and given 1 ml/min IV.
2
44
The "P" in MR SOAPA stands for: | NRP/STABLE
Pressure
45
TRUE/FALSE: The epinephrine dose via ETT of 1mg/10ml concentration is 0.5-1ml/kg. NRP/STABLE
True
46
When providing PPV to neonate the rate should be one breath every _____ seconds.
2
47
The BVM to CPR ratio in NRP is:
30:90
48
The expected ETT size for a 32 week gestation neonate is
3.0
49
Normal respiratory rate for neonate is _____ breaths per minute
30-60
50
Lowest acceptable glucose in a neonate is _____ mg/dl:
40
51
Which of the following is not a recommended site for IO placement?
Sternum
52
What is the narrowest portion of a child under 10s airway?
Cricoid cartilage
53
When providing endotracheal intubation for a pediatric patient, the patient's airway should be placed in which of the following positions?
Neutral
54
TRUE/FALSE: Head injuries are the leading cause of death in pediatric trauma?
true
55
TRUE/FALSE: The formula for sizing a cuffed tube in a pediatric patient is 4+ (age/4)=tube size.
False
56
When oxygenating a pediatric patient, the SPO2 goal should be greater than or equal to:
94%
57
Which of the following is not an indicator of adequate circulation in a pediatric patient?
Urine output of at least 0.25-0.50 ml/kg/hr
58
A pediatric patient weighing 20kg can be secured ONLY by aircraft cot straps?
FALSE
59
Which of the following is the recommended dose for PRBC in the peds patient?
10 mg/kg
60
TRUE/FALSE: Children usually regress developmentally under stress?
True
61
A 4-year old child is found unresponsive, not breathing, and without a pulse. What is the compression to ventilation ratio you use prior to advanced airway placement?
15:2
62
What pediatric dose do you use for initial defib?
2 J/kg
63
What is the initial dose of amiodarone be for a 22kg patient?
110mg
64
A 2-week-old is being evaluated and treated for poor feeding and irritability. His blood pressure is 55/40 and cap refill is 5 seconds. Which statement best describes this patient's blood pressure?
hypotensive
65
What is the recommended compression rate for pediatric CPR?
100-120 compressions per min
66
What is the loading dose and maintenance dose of Lidocaine for VF/pVT?
1mg/kg loading | 20-50 mcg/kg/min maintenance
67
You are caring for a 4 year old child with hypovolemic shock from vomiting x 3 days. The child weight is 18kg. What is the correct initial fluid bolus for this patient?
360ml
68
What is the correct dose of epi for a peds patient in cardiac arrest?
0.01mg/kg IV/IO (1:10,000 or 1mg/10ml)
69
You are evaluating a 10 year old child for dizziness. Which is a normal finding for this 10 year old child? - Temp 103.2 - HR 88/min - BP 60/50 - RR 6/min
HR 88/min
70
In ROSC, what is the target ideal oxygen saturation range?
94-99%

AirMed Regional (5 decks)

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