2020

Question 1

Lateral cyst of the neck:

a) Derived from the pharyngeal pouch
b) Can reach a considerable size
c) Cancer can often develop in its wall
d) Answers A and B are correct

Answer 1

d) Answers A and B are correct

Question 2

The patient, 45 years old, suffers from vocal disorder, hoarseness, foreign body sensation in the laryngeal region; endoscopic examination showed characteristic oedematous-inflammatory and hypertrophic changes in posterior segment of the larynx. The following etiology should be considered:

a) Hormonal factory
b) Voice abuse
c) Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease
d) Dust

Answer 2

c) Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease

Question 3

The surgical procedure – tonsillectomy:

a) Is performed in children only in cases of tonsil hypertrophy
b) Is never performed in adults
c) Is contraindicated when the peritonsillar abscess has occurred in the patient’s history
d) The indication for this procedure is the elimination of foci of infection before other major surgery (e.g., hip endoprosthesis, cardiac surgery)

Answer 3

a) Is performed in children only in cases of tonsil hypertrophy

Question 4

When we diagnose cysts and fistula in the middle line of the neck… point to the false statement:

a) Are associated with a hyoid bone
b) Are the remainder of the thyroglossal duct
c) Often heal spontaneously and disappear
d) They usually have a connection with the foramen cecum area

Answer 4

c) Often heal spontaneously and disappear

Question 5

Indicate the correct statement about the sublingual nerve:

a) Conducts taste stimuli from the back 2/3rds of the tongue
b) Conducts taste stimuli from the front 1/3rd of the tongue
c) Is a mixed sensory-motor nerve
d) Is the motor nerve

Answer 5

c) Is a mixed sensory-motor nerve

Question 6

In the case of paranasal sinusitis, the indication for surgical intervention is:

a) Exophthalmos
b) Eyelid oedema
c) Pain in the maxillary sinus
d) All of the above

Answer 6

d) All of the above

Question 7

The surgical method of creating a fistula between the lacrimal sac and the nasal cavity is:

a) Lacrimostomy
b) Dacryocystorhinostomy
c) Lacrimorhinostomy
d) Cystorhinostomy

Answer 7

b) Dacryocystorhinostomy

Question 8

34-year-old woman with painless, slow growing mass located on the left side of the face. What should be the most likely?

a) Pleomorphic adenoma
b) Adenocarcinoma
c) Carcinoma mucoepidermalis
d) MALT lymphoma

Answer 8

c) Carcinoma mucoepidermalis

Question 9

After face lifting surgery, a 46-year-old patient noticed lip asymmetry regarding the lower lip, drooping of the left corner of her mouth. Which nerve was damaged during surgery?

a) Buccal branch of facial nerve
b) Cervical branch of facial nerve
c) Zygomatic branch of facial nerve
d) Marginal mandibular branch of facial nerve

Answer 9

d) Marginal mandibular branch of facial nerve

Question 10

In the case of CUP syndrome confirmed by histopathological examination (squamous cell carcinoma) and the absence of other masses, the next diagnostic step should be the examination of:

a) MRI of the head and neck
b) CT with head and neck contrast
c) PET
d) Ultrasound of the neck

Answer 10

b) CT with head and neck contrast

Question 11

Diagnostic imaging of choice for neck lymph nodes enlargement is: a) Ultrasound of neck lymph nodes

b) CT scan of the neck with contrast
c) MRI of the neck
d) X-ray of the neck

Answer 11

a) Ultrasound of neck lymph nodes

Question 12

A contraindication to tonsillectomy is not:

a) Hemorrhagic diathesis
b) Agranulocytosis
c) Rheumatic fever
d) Tuberculosis

Answer 12

c) Rheumatic fever

Question 13

The enlargement or swelling of the salivary gland during eating suggests:

a) Pleomorphic adenoma
b) Sialolithiasis
c) Sjögren’s disease
d) Malignant tumour

Answer 13

b) Sialolithiasis

Question 14

Which symptoms may indicate malignant process within parotid gland?

a) Facial nerve paralysis
b) Dry mouth
c) Size of the tumour
d) Narrowing of the external auditory canal

Answer 14

a) Facial nerve paralysis

Question 15

Pleomorphic adenoma of parotid gland:

a) Has a tendency to recurrence, especially after enucleation procedure
b) Often leads to the facial nerve paralysis
c) Gives pain that increases when chewing
d) Is the result of a history of salivary gland inflammation and is manifested by dryness of the mucous membranes of the upper respiratory tract

Answer 15

a) Has a tendency to recurrence, especially after enucleation procedure

Question 16

The secretion of saliva is stimulated most intensely by:

a) Sense of smell
b) Sweet taste
c) Bitter taste
d) Sour taste

Answer 16

d) Sour taste

Question 17

Kuttner tumour is:

a) A mild disorder of the salivary gland called chronic hardening inflammation or cirrhosis of the salivary gland, belonging to the spectrum of IgG4 diseases
b) Oedema of the skin and soft tissues of the frontal area, caused by osteomyelitis of the frontal sinusitis
c) Lymphatic adenoma of the parotid gland, built of eosinophilic cells arranged in two layers in a lymphoid stroma
d) Pleomorphic adenoma of the parotid gland

Answer 17

a) A mild disorder of the salivary gland called chronic hardening inflammation or cirrhosis of the salivary gland, belonging to the spectrum of IgG4 diseases

Question 18

MALT lymphoma is connected with?

a) Sjogren’s disease
b) HIV
c) EBV infection
d) IgG4 related disease

Answer 18

a) Sjogren’s disease

Question 19

Slumping down (lowering) of the arm following nodal neck surgery is most likely related to intraoperative damage of:

a) The accessory nerve
b) Cervical spinal nerves
c) The medial cutaneous nerve of the arm
d) Median nerve

Answer 19

a) The accessory nerve

Question 20

Which group of neck lymph nodes includes the submandibular nodes?

a) I
b) II
c) III
d) IV

Answer 20

a) I

Question 21

The division of the common carotid artery is at the level of:

a) The first tracheal ring
b) The upper edge of the cricoid cartilage
c) Upper edge of thyroid cartilage
d) The second tracheal ring

Answer 21

c) Upper edge of thyroid cartilage

Question 22

Indicate a false statement, regarding the possibility of patient’s communication, after a total laryngectomy:

a) Oesophageal speech
b) Oropharyngeal pseudo-voice
c) Speech with a so-called vocal prosthesis
d) Vestibular voice

Answer 22

d) Vestibular voice

Question 23

Cysts or median fistulas of the neck are residues of:

a) Thoracic duct (ductus thoracicus)
b) Branchial arch
c) Laryngocele
d) Thyroglossal duct

Answer 23

d) Thyroglossal duct

Question 24

A 3-month-old child has laryngeal stridor, haemangioma of the skin. The symptoms indicate a diagnosis:

a) Foreign body in the respiratory tract
b) Chronic coagulation disorder
c) Thyroid cartilage chondromalacia
d) Subglottic haemangioma

Answer 24

d) Subglottic haemangioma

Question 25

A child of 5 year of age has had bronchitis four timed in the last year. Currently, during pneumonia, we made an X-ray of the chest and find atelectasis of the middle lobe of the right lung, also we suspect: a) Cystic fibrosis b) Onset of asthma c) Foreign body in the respiratory tract d) Lung infection with mycoplasma

Answer 25

c) Foreign body in the respiratory tract

Question 26

Spontaneous epistaxis, and headache in boys during puberty time can be most likely caused by: a) Angiofibroma juvenile b) Chondroma c) Rhabdomyosarcoma d) Carcinoma nasopharyngis

Answer 26

a) Angiofibroma juvenile

Question 27

Periorbital cellulitis: a) Is an inflammation and infection of the eyelid and portions of skin around the eye posterior to the orbital septum b) Patients with periorbital cellulitis often have bulging of the eye (proptosis), limited eye movement (opthalmoplegia), pain on eye movement, or loss of vision c) Occurs most often in adolescent d) It may be caused by some infection of the sinuses around the nose

Answer 27

a) Is an inflammation and infection of the eyelid and portions of skin around the eye posterior to the orbital septum

Question 28

Indicate the correct statement regarding acute laryngotracheitis (croup): a) Swelling of the larynx, trachea produces airway obstruction which, when significant, leads to dramatically increased work of breathing b) It is most often caused by bacterial infection c) Corticosteroids have been shown not to improve treatment outcomes in children with croup d) Croup usually presents between the ages of 9 and 16 years

Answer 28

b) It is most often caused by bacterial infection

Question 29

The most common bacterial pathogen of acute otitis media in children is: a) Pseudomonas aeruginosa b) Streptococcus pneumoniae c) Staphylococcus aureus d) Streptococcus viridans

Answer 29

b) Streptococcus pneumoniae

Question 30

Indicate the false statement regarding angiofibroma juvenile: a) Is a histopathological benign tumour, highly vascularized b) Occurs only in boys c) The first step of treatment, to confirm the diagnosis is a biopsy d) The main blood supply usually becomes from the internal maxillary nerve

Answer 30

c) The first step of treatment, to confirm the diagnosis is a biopsy

Question 31

Stapedotomy is a procedure used to treat patients with: a) Meniere’s disease b) Chronic otitis media with central perforation c) Chronic otitis media with marginal perforation d) Otosclerosis

Answer 31

d) Otosclerosis

Question 32

The most common bacteria isolated from the middle ear in acute otitis media are: a) Haemophilus influenzae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Staphylococcus aureus b) Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis c) Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa d) Staphylococcus haemolyticus, Moraxella catarrhalis, E. coli

Answer 32

b) Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis

Question 33

First choice antibiotic in acute otitis media is: a) Benzylpenicillin b) Azithromycin c) Amoxicillin d) Doxycycline

Answer 33

c) Amoxicillin

Question 34

What is considered the main cause of Reinke’s oedema? a) Alcohol b) Reflux c) Smoking d) Allergy

Answer 34

c) Smoking

Question 35

What is considered the main cause of Reinke’s oedema? a) Alcohol b) Reflux c) Smoking d) Allergy

Answer 35

c) Smoking

Question 36

The benign so-called secondary changes in the larynx, most often resulting from primary functional disorders of the voice and excessive workload of the voice, are not: a) Vocal nodules b) Laryngeal papilloma c) Vocal fold polyp d) Laryngeal granuloma

Answer 36

b) Laryngeal papilloma

Question 37

What should be done first when a patient suffers from acute epiglottitis? a) Perform a bacterial culture from blood b) Run neck imaging tests (e.g., CT scan) c) Assess the severity of airway obstruction d) Give intravenous corticosteroids and antibiotics

Answer 37

c) Assess the severity of airway obstruction

Question 38

The evolution of vocal cord cancer is associated with smoking. The risk of developing vocal cord cancer increases, if this addition is accompanied by: a) Voice abuse b) Dental disorder c) Pattern of inheritance d) Alcohol abuse

Answer 38

d) Alcohol abuse

Question 39

Currently the method of examination chosen in a patient with laryngeal cancer, prior to the planned surgical treatment, to asses the penetration of the cancer is: a) MRI b) CT scan c) Ultrasound d) Endoscopic examination

Answer 39

b) CT scan

Question 40

Currently the method of examination chosen in a patient with laryngeal cancer, prior to the planned surgical treatment, to asses the penetration of the cancer is: a) MRI b) CT scan c) Ultrasound d) Endoscopic examination

Answer 40

b) CT scan

Question 41

The aetiology of laryngeal papillomatosis is related to: a) Bacterial infection with anaerobic flora b) Bacterial infection with aerobic flora c) Fungal infection d) All answers are incorrect

Answer 41

d) All answers are incorrect

Question 42

Which human sinuses develop at the latest: a) Frontal b) Sphenoidal c) Maxillary d) Ethmoidal

Answer 42

d) Ethmoidal

Question 43

In the treatment of chronic sinusitis, we use: a) Glucocorticosteroids and surgical treatment b) Biological treatment with monoclonal antibodies c) Anti-leukotriene drugs and long-term antibiotic therapy d) All of the above are correct

Answer 43

a) Glucocorticosteroids and surgical treatment

Question 44

Which virus is linked to nasopharyngeal cancer? a) Herpes simplex virus (HSV) b) Human papilloma virus (HPV) c) Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) d) Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

Answer 44

c) Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)

Question 45

The method of choice for diagnosis of chronic sinusitis is: a) Magnetic resonance b) Computed tomography c) X-ray d) Ultrasound

Answer 45

b) Computed tomography

Question 46

Chronic sinusitis is a diagnosis if the symptoms persist above: a) 3 weeks b) 6 weeks c) 9 weeks d) 12 weeks

Answer 46

d) 12 weeks

Question 47

Foreign bodies of the oesophagus usually stop at the height of: a) Carina of trachea b) Median (thoracic) narrowing c) Upper oesophageal sphincter d) Lower (diaphragmatic) narrowing

Answer 47

c) Upper oesophageal sphincter

Question 48

The most common malignant tumour of the oesophagus is: a) Squamous cell carcinoma b) Sarcoma c) Lymphoma d) Adenocarcinoma

Answer 48

a) Squamous cell carcinoma

Question 49

Odinophagy means: a) Pain when swallowing b) Difficulty in swallowing c) Inability to swallow d) Decreased appetite

Answer 49

a) Pain when swallowing

Question 50

Bezold’s abscess is: a) An abscess deep to the sternocleidomastoid muscle where pus from mastoiditis erodes through the mastoid and extends into the investing layer of the deep cervical fascia b) Abscess of the zygomatic arch c) Subperiosteal abscess associated with osteomyelitis d) Abscess located in orbit

Answer 50

a) An abscess deep to the sternocleidomastoid muscle where pus from mastoiditis erodes through the mastoid and extends into the investing layer of the deep cervical fascia

Question 51

Cholesteatoma is: a) Type of squamous cell carcinoma b) Type of cyst located in temporal bone air cells c) Destructive and expanding growth consisting of keratinizing squamous epithelium, which can be consequence of otitis media d) The type of otosclerosis

Answer 51

c) Destructive and expanding growth consisting of keratinizing squamous epithelium, which can be consequence of otitis media

Question 52

Symptoms of Meniere’s disease are associated with damage to: a) The brainstem cochlear nuclei b) The oval window of cochlea c) Auditory cells and irritation of terminal receptors of the vestibule d) Unilateral damage to the auditory nerve

Answer 52

c) Auditory cells and irritation of terminal receptors of the vestibule

Question 53

Dizziness with spinning environment, with nausea or vomiting, accompanied by unilateral hearing impairment and a feeling of fullness in the ear in a person without chronic otitis media a) Are characteristic symptoms of brain stroke b) May be a symptom of Ménière’s disease c) Are a sign of damage to the middle and external ear d) Most likely indicate a cerebellar abscess

Answer 53

b) May be a symptom of Ménière’s disease

Question 54

Conductive hearing loss is characterized by: a) Lowering the bone conduction threshold b) No cochlear reserve c) Big difference between hearing threshold and discomfort threshold d) Lowering the air conduction threshold above 70 dB

Answer 54

c) Big difference between hearing threshold and discomfort threshold

Question 55

Subjective hearing test methods do not include: a) Impedance audiometry b) Accumetric audiometry c) Speech audiometry d) Tuning-fork tests

Answer 55

a) Impedance audiometry

Question 56

The type C tympanogram indicates: a) Disorder of the Eustachian barofunction b) Fluid in the tympanic cavity c) Normal middle ear function d) Otitis media

Answer 56

a) Disorder of the Eustachian barofunction

Question 57

The peripheral localization of dizziness is supported by: a) Acute dizziness with spinning elements b) Accompanying severe headache c) Chronic imbalance d) Periodic recurrent visual disturbances

Answer 57

a) Acute dizziness with spinning elements

Question 58

A young woman developed hearing loss and tinnitus during pregnancy. Audiometric examination revealed unilateral conductive hearing loss, bilateral type A tympanogram. Identify the most likely cause of these symptoms: a) Chronic disorder of the Eustachian tube b) Disorders associated with pregnancy complications c) Symptoms of otosclerosis d) Symptoms of tympanosclerosis

Answer 58

c) Symptoms of otosclerosis

Question 59

One-sided purulent discharge from the nose is characteristic for: a) Nasal polyps b) Foreign body of nasal cavity c) Tonsil hypertrophy d) Unilateral otitis media with effusion

Answer 59

b) Foreign body of nasal cavity

Question 60

Pharmacological tracheotomy occurs after application: a) Adrenaline intravenously b) A large dose of intravenous steroids (?) c) High dose mucolytics d) Opiate drugs intravenously

Answer 60

b) A large dose of intravenous steroids (?)

Question 61

The most common site of epistaxis is: a) Kiesselbach plexus b) Woodroof plexus c) Posterior part of the inferior nasal turbinate d) Anterior part of the middle nasal turbinate

Answer 61

a) Kiesselbach plexus

Question 62

Select the correct sentence. Nose trauma with a nasal fracture requires: a) Diagnostic imaging only if there is heavy epistaxis b) Often, but not always, reposition of the nose in the event of the dislocation c) In children, reposition may take place under local anaesthesia (?) d) Reposition of dislocated fragments is not recommended

Answer 62

c) In children, reposition may take place under local anaesthesia (?)

Question 63

A young man with increasing sore throat. In the physical examination, trismus and bulge the right wall of the throat, what you might suspect: a) Quinke’s oedema b) Peritonsillar abscess c) Mononucleosis d) GERD

Answer 63

b) Peritonsillar abscess

Question 64

Patient with hypersalivation and dysphagia requires ENT consultation, what you might suspect: a) Abscess of the salivary gland b) Foreign body in the throat c) Temporomandibular arthritis d) Nasopharyngeal tumour

Answer 64

b) Foreign body in the throat