2021.2 Flashcards by Matt Stewart

A pregnant woman requires a caesarean section delivery within 30 minutes for fetal distress. Her body mass index (BMI) is 26 kg/m2. She has multiple sclerosis with lesions in her brain and spinal cord and receives monthly injections of the disease-modifying drug of ofatumumab. The most appropriate plan for her delivery is

Spinal
CSE
GASpinal
CSE
GA

Spinal

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The image below on the left shows a normal central venous pressure (CVP) trace. The CVP trace in the image below on the right is most consistent with

Tricuspid regurg
Mitral stenosis
Mitral regurg
Pericarditis
tamponade

(Apperently Image of TR, although in previous recalls has been reported as a high a wave)

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A 65 year old woman is dyspnoeic after a total hip replacement. A lung ultrasound is performed in the post-anaesthesia care unit, with a still image shown below. The likely cause of the dyspnoea is:

(this picture was in the recall) - lung point

Effusion
Embolism
Pneumothorax
Pneumonia”

Pneumothorax

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A 25-year-old male has continued post operative bleeding after an extraction of an impacted third molar tooth under a general anaesthetic. The patient mentions that his father bruises quite easily. His coagulation screen reveals: (Coagulation tests provided). The most likely diagnosis is :

Nil recalled coags

Factor V Leiden
Haemophilia A
Haemophilia B
Von Willebrand’s Disease.

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The cardiac axis of this electrocardiogram is:

(?repeat – no indication of what was shown)

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Findings associated with massive pericardial tamponade include:

Pulsus alternans
Electrical alternans

Electrical alternans

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Analysis of variance (ANOVA) is a statistical test to determine

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A 25-year-old ASA (American Society of Anesthesiologists) physical status classification 1 patient develops seizures five minutes after receiving a brachial plexus block with ropivacaine. Of the following, the most suitable initial intravenous treatment is:

Midazolam
Intralipid
Propofol
Levetiracetam
Phenytoin

Midazolam

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A ten year old child (weight 30 kg) presents to the emergency department in status epilepticus. He has received one dose of 15 mg midazolam buccally prior to his arrival. According to Advanced Paediatric Life Supprt, Australia (APLS) guidelines the next drug treatment should be intravenous:

Midazolam
Propofol
Levetriacetam
Phenytoin

Midazolam

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An awake patient in the post-anaesthesia care unit complains of breathlessness. The FiO2 is 0.4 via a facemask. An arterial blood gas taken at the time shows PaO2 135 mmHg, PaCO2 48 mmHg, and SpO2 100% The alveolar-arterial gradient (in mmHg) is approximately:

90
110
50
30

FiO2 0.4, paO2 135, pCO2 48

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A patient undergoing robotic prostatectomy with volume-controlled ventilation has the following ventilatory measurements: (Ventilator parameters given) The static compliance is:

Plateau pressure 32 cmH2O
PEEP 8 cmH2O
AutoPEEP 4 cmH2O
Peak pressure 38 cmH2O
Tidal volume 600mL

20 ml/cmH2O
23 ml/cmH2O
25 ml/cmH2O
30 ml/cmH2O
38 ml/cmH2O

30 ml/cmH2O

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?removed from exam report
Paediatric patient least likely to have OSA

Down’s syndrome
Spina bifida
Tetralogy of Fallot
Pierre Robin
Ducschene Muscular Dystrophy

Spina bifida

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A four-year-old boy with a history of waddling gait, larger than normal calves and frequent falls receives a spontaneously breathing volatile-based anaesthetic with sevoflurane. One hour into the case he develops peaked T waves and then the end-tidal CO2 begins to rise. The most appropriate immediate treatment is to:Temp probe, and go from there

Cool + dantrolene
Stop volatile, cool + dantrolene
Stop volatile, calcium
Stop volatile

Stop volatile, calcium

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A patient with known type 3 von Willebrand disease presents with persistent epistaxis. Firstline medical therapy should:

DDAVP
Prothrombinex
Factor VIIa
Factor VIII?
TXA?

Factor VIII?
TXA?

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The CRASH-2 trial showed tranexamic acid administration to trauma victims results in a reduction in

A. Decreased mortality
B. Increased mortality
c. Decreased blood product use
D. No change mortality
E. Increased bleeding

A. Decreased mortality

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The apical four–chamber view of a transthoracic echocardiogram below shows

?TR Jet

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The diffusing capacity of the lungs for carbon monoxide (DLCO) is likely to be decreased with

Sarcoid
Asthma
Obesity

Sarcoid

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?Removed from report
Panel of RFTs, normal FEV1, FVC and ratio with reduced dlco

?Obesity hypoventilation
COPD
Pulm HTN
Pulm fibrosis

Pulm HTN

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A 45-year-old man has the following results on his blood biochemistry testing: (Liver Function Tests shown). The most likely diagnosis is

(?transanimase up and bilirubin, albumin down)Hepatitis
Alcoholic liver disease
Paracetamol overdose
Cholecystitis

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Hepcidin production is inhibited in response to

Anaemia
Inflammation
Acute leukemia
Infection
Excess iron stores

Anaemia

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High-risk transthoracic echocardiogram findings associated with aortic dissection include all of the following EXCEPT

AR
RV dilatation
Regional wall motion abnormality
Pericardial effusion

RV dilatation

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The most likely complication from ultrasound guided left internal jugular central venous line insertion is:

Arterial puncture
Thoracic duct
Pneumothorax
Haemothorax

Arterial puncture

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The most common complication of extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) in adults is:

Bleeding
Vascular damage
Embolism
Inadvertent decannulation

Bleeding

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A ten-year-old boy (weight 30 kg) has a displaced distal forearm fracture that requires manipulation and application of plaster. The volume of 0.5% lidocaine (lignocaine) that should be used for intravenous regional anaesthesia (Bier block) is:

6
12
18ml
30
40

18ml

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You administer a dose of intravenous indocyanine green to facilitate video-angiography during cerebral aneurysm surgery. The changes in pulse oximetry (SpO2) and cerebral oxygen tissue saturation (SctO2) you expect to see on your monitors are: Increases NIRS, decreases peripheral Decreases NIRS, decreases peripheral No change NIRS, decreases peripheral Increases NIRS and peripheral Decreases NIRS, increases peripheral

Increases NIRS, decreases peripheral

The medical laser LEAST likely to cause eye injury is: CO2 Green light Lead ? Hol Yag

Green light

?Removed from exam report Green handle on laryngoscope blade means: Re-usable Single use

?Removed from exam report ANZCA recommended cleaning of USS probe/proe preparation before performing a block: Probe cover only Low level decontamination and cover ? High level decontamination and cover Sterilisation

Low level decontamination and cover ?

Regarding healthcare research, the PICO framework describes: Stats analysis Lit review ? Guide reporting of a study

Lit review ?

A forest plot is a commonly used tool in meta-analysis. It presents Shows study results and metaanalysis results Shows study structure and results

Shows study results and metaanalysis results

The image below shows results from non inferiority trials. The trial labelled 'M' is best described as: Not inferior Superior Indeterminate Inferior

A 76 year old woman who is spontaneously breathing through a tracheostomy tube with an inner cannula becomes acutely breathless. Despite application of high flow oxygen, her respiratory rate is 40 breaths per minute and her SpO2 is 82%. The next most appropriate step in her airway management is to: Hand bang ventilate Sit up Take cuff down Remove inner cannula Remove trache

Remove inner cannula

A 26-year-old man is brought into the Emergency Department four hours after an accidental chemical exposure during crop spraying. His clinical signs include bradycardia, vomiting, diarrhoea, coughing, miosis and weakness. A drug which is NOT recommended during his resuscitation and treatment is Diazepam Pralidoxime Glycopyrrolate Rocuronium Suxamethonium

Suxamethonium

A 59-year-old lady presents for elective coronary artery graft surgery. She has a pulmonary artery catheter inserted with the waveforms displayed below. Her cardiac output is 4.5 L/min. Her mean pulmonary artery pressure is 33 mmHg. The most likely explanation for the waveforms seen is that she has MR AS MS

The most common cause of cor pulmonale is

COPD

A 69-year-old woman has a recent onset of dyspnoea and undergoes a right heart catheterisation, with results displayed below. Her pulmonary capillary wedge pressure is 10 mmHg. The most likely diagnosis is: (in other recalls – waveform showing PAP 74/28 consistently through cycle) COPD MR PE AS MS

The condition in which volatile anaesthesia is least appropriate is: Muscular Dystrophy Multiple Sclerosis Myaesthenia gravis Guillan Barre

Muscular Dystrophy

When performing a brachial plexus block at the level of the axilla, the structure indicated by the arrow is the: (apparently median nerve?)Median nerve Radial nerve Ulnar nerve Musculocutaneous nerve

Median nerve

When performing cannulation of the median cubital vein the structure that is LEAST likely to be inadvertently punctured or damaged is the: Ulnar artery Brachial artery Median nerve MCN of forearm Radial nerve

Radial nerve

A 50-year-old man is admitted with a stroke and undergoes cerebral angiography. The artery marked with an arrow on the angiogram below is the: Vertebral artery Basilic artery Posterior cerebral Inferior cerebral

A patient presents for endovascular clot retrieval after experiencing a right hemisensory loss and right homonymous hemianopia. The vessel most likely occluded is the left Anterior cerebral artery Anterior inferior cerebellar artery Posterior cerebral artery Posterior inferior cerebellar artery Superior cerebral artery

Posterior cerebral artery

A patient with a history of restless leg syndrome is agitated in the post-anaesthesia care unit. After excluding other causes, the best treatment of the agitation in this patient is: Midazolam Olanzepine Haloperidol Clozapine Droperidol

Midazolam

Benzatropine ameliorates the side effects of drugs that antagonise: -musc -nic -d2 -ser -nadr

A 25-year-old woman is administered two doses of aprepitant for postoperative nausea and vomiting after a sleeve gastrectomy. She normally takes the oral contraceptive pill. You should advise her to use alternative contraception for the next: 3 days 7 days 14 days 28 days

28 days

A trainee becomes aware that a patient they have just anaesthetised for emergency surgery is breastfeeding and seeks your advice regarding recommencement of breast feeding. You advise that breast feeding is contraindicated because during the admission today the patient received: Tramadol Codeine Ketamine Midazolam

Codeine

You have been asked to provide general anaesthesia for a complex thoracic endovascular aortic aneurysm repair. After the placement of a lumbar drain the recommended safe time before the administration of intravenous heparin is: 30 minutes 1 hours 2 hours 4 hours

1 hours

A derived value from an arterial blood gas sample is: PO2 PCO2 pH Base excess

Base excess

An electrocardiogram (ECG) abnormality which is NOT usually associated with severe anorexia nervosa is Resting tachycardia Wandering pacemaker ST depression T-wave inversion Prolonged QT

Resting tachycardia

A 30 year old athlete undergoing a knee arthroscopy under general anaesthesia becomes tachycardic intraoperatively. A 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) is obtained. The most likely diagnosis is: (apparently delta waves present)AVNRT AVRT (WPW) AF Flutter

AVRT (WPW)

The coagulopathy that can result from intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy is due to Deficiency all hepatic synthesised enzymes Deficiency II, V, VII, IX

Deficiency II, V, VII, IX

Local anaesthetic-induced myotoxicity is most likely to be associated with Bier’s block Adductor canal Sciatic nerve block

Adductor canal

Stellate ganglion block is NOT contraindicated in patients with Contralateral phrenic nerve palsy Glaucoma Recent MI Arrythmia Refractory arrhythmia

Refractory arrhythmia

Painless post-operative visual loss with preserved pupillary reflexes is most likely due to Retinal detachment Anterior ischaemic optic neuropathy Corneal abrasion Posterior ischaemic optic neuropathy Posterior cerebral ischaemia

Posterior cerebral ischaemia

Sensory innervation of the cornea is by the Nasociliary nerve Optic nerve Trigeminal nerve * Frontal nerve

Nasociliary nerve

Risks associated with robot-assisted laparoscopic prostatectomy surgery in comparison with open prostatectomy include all of the following EXCEPT Major haemorrhage Corneal burn Cerebral oedema CO2 embolism

Major haemorrhage

A risk factor which increases the likelihood of developing local anaesthetic systemic toxicity is Hypoxia Alkalaemia High alpha-1-acid glycoprotein Hypocarbia Increased carnitine levels

Hypoxia

Post-dural puncture headache in obstetric anaesthesia is associated with a greater likelihood of all of the following EXCEPT Depression Bacterial meningitis Chronic back pain Cerebra venous thrombosis ?Other

Your patient has been administered 50 mL of oral 5–aminolevulinic acid hydrochloride (Gliolan) three hours prior to her scheduled craniotomy for resection of a glioblastoma. Care should be taken perioperatively to avoid the adverse effect of: Photosensitivity Renal injury

Photosensitivity

A man who had successful treatment of a germ cell tumour ten years ago presents for laparoscopic appendectomy. Your intraoperative management should consider:

Lowest FiO2 possible

Complications of hyperbaric oxygen therapy include all of the following EXCEPT: Hypoglycaemia Cataracts Worsening CCF Seizures Reversible hypermetropia

Reversible hypermetropia

The risk of postoperative respiratory failure in myasthenia gravis is increased by the administration of: Gentamycin Teicoplanin Cefazolin Vancomycin

Gentamycin

In pulmonary function testing the presence of airflow limitation is defined by a postbronchodilator FEV1/FVC ratio less than: 50 60 70 80 90

?removed from exam report BMI 45 best way to improve PaO2: a Recruitment b. Peep 10 c. Increase TV d. Increase RR e. Increase Minute ventilation

The equipment shown in the picture below is a: (apparently a NIM tube)

NIM Tube

?removed from exam report Size 9 Arndt bronchial blocker – what size of tube needed? 6 7 8

?removed from exam report Winging of scapular what nerve not involved? Suprascapular nerve Long thoracic nerve Accessory nerve Dorsal scapular nerve

Suprascapular nerve

The breast does NOT receive sensory innervation from: Supraclavicular Anterior intercostal Posterior intercostal? (misremembered? This is not a nerve) Pectoral?

Posterior intercostal? (misremembered? This is not a nerve)

A patient has numbness and weakness in her hand postoperatively. You are trying to distinguish between an ulnar nerve lesion and a C8-T1 radiculopathy. You can diagnose a C8-T1 radiculopathy if she has weakness:

repeat

The estimated proportion of human induced climate change attributable to nitrous oxide is: 0.01 0.06 1 6

The size 5 i-gel® supraglottic airway is recommended for patients who weigh over: 50 60 70 80 90

A new volatile agent is developed. The property it shares with sevoflurane that will enable it to be used in a sevoflurane vapouriser and deliver an accurate concentration is its: Saturated vapour pressure Oil:gas partition coefficient Blood:gas partition coefficient

Saturated vapour pressure

The use of erythropoietin before major surgery results in :Less transfusion same thrombosis Less transfusion more thrombosis No change in transfusion or thrombosis No change in transfusion, more thrombosis

Less transfusion same thrombosis

International guidelines state that patients presenting for major surgery have inadequate or low iron stores if their serum ferritin level is less than 20 30 40 50 100

100

In a patient with anaemia of chronic disease, of the following the most likely to be elevated is: MCV Transferrin saturation Soluble Transferrin receptor Ferritin Total iron binding capacity

Ferritin

A structure that is NOT clamped during a Pringle manoeuvre is the: Hepatic vein Hepatic artery Portal vein Round ligament ? incorrectly remembered

Hepatic vein

The muscle or muscle group with the greatest resistance to the action of non-depolarising neuromuscular blocking agents is the: Diaphragm Pharyngeal Adductor pollicis

Diaphragm

The most common cause of mortality in children with diabetic ketoacidosis is: Cerebral oedema Central pontine demyelination Septic shock

Cerebral oedema

A 30-year-old man with morbid obesity (body mass index [BMI] 55 kg/m2) presents for middle ear surgery. The most appropriate bolus dose of propofol for induction should be based on: Lean body weight Total body weight Ideal body weight Ideal body weight + 70%

Lean body weight

Predictors of successful awake extubation after volatile anaesthesia in infants include: 2ml/kg tidal volume Grimacing Coughing RR >20 CO2 >60

Grimacing

The most common presenting rhythm associated with maternal cardiac arrest is: VT VF Asystole PEA SVT

PEA

A 74-year old man in the post-anaesthesia care unit complains of chest pain. An electrocardiogram (ECG) is performed. The occluded coronary artery is the : (apparently showed ST elevation V1-3) Left anterior descending Right coronary Posterior descending Left circumflex Ostial something

Left anterior descending

A normal 75 kg term parturient may be expected to have a total blood volume of: 5250 6000 6750 7500

7500

A drug which is likely to slow the heart rate in a patient with a heart transplant is: Adenosine Metaraminol Phenylephrine

Adenosine

A patient requiring an elective major joint replacement has had a recent stroke. The minimum recommended duration between the stroke and surgery is: 3 months 6 months 9 months 12 months

9 months

A patient presents for a trans-urethral resection of the prostate (TURP). He had a single drug eluting coronary stent for angina pectoris inserted six months ago and is taking clopidogrel and aspirin. The most appropriate preoperative management of his medications is to: A) Stop aspirin, continue clopidogrel B) Stop aspirin 10 days prior, and clopidogrel 5 days prior C) Stop clopidogrel 10 days prior D) Stop clopidogrel 5 days prior E) Continue both

D) Stop clopidogrel 5 days prior

Globe perforation during eye block is more common in myopic eyes because the Higher incidence of staphyloma Globe is too short Higher rate of increased IOP Corneal is less thick

Higher incidence of staphyloma

A five-year-old child weighing 25 kg is to be strictly nil by mouth overnight following a laparotomy. The most appropriate fluid prescription is : 65ml/hr N Saline 45ml/hr N Saline w 5% dextrose 45ml/hr N Saline w 2.5% dextrose 65ml/hr 0.45% Saline w 2.5% dextrose 65ml/hr 0.45% Saline w 5% dextrose

45ml/hr N Saline w 5% dextrose

Non-anaesthetist practitioners wishing to provide procedural sedation should have training in sedation and/or anaesthesia for a minimum of : 6 weeks 3 months 6 months 12 months

3 months

The nerve labelled by the arrow in the diagram below is the (apparently diagram of upper lumbar plexus? With iliohypogastric being the answer?) Iliohypogastric Ilioinguinal Obturator

Of the following, the deficit that DOES NOT result from damage to the common peroneal nerve is: Loss of foot dorsiflexion Loss of dorsal foot sensation Loss of knee flexion Loss of knee extension

Loss of knee extension

The most common type of perioperative stroke is: Thrombotic Ischaemic Embolic Haemorrhagic Hypotension

Embolic

The drug of choice for the treatment of duct dependent congenital heart disease is: Alprostadil Prostacyclin Sildenafil NSAID

Alprostadil

Of the following drugs, the least likely to cause pulmonary vasodilation when used at low doses in patients with chronic pulmonary hypertension is: Dopamine Dobutamine Vasopressin Milrinone

Dopamine

? removed from exam report Least risky heart condition in a neonate (or infant?) with congenital cardiac disease undergoing a non-cardiac procedure Left to right shunt Right to left shunt Single ventricle with palliative fontan Tetrallogy of fallot BT or TOF repair ?Option of severe pulm HTN ?Option of systemic to pulmonary arterial chunt

Left to right shunt

Cardiovascular effects of hyperthyroidism include Decreased diastolic relaxation Decreased SVR Decreased PVR Increased diastolic BP

Decreased SVR

A 25-year-old man suffers a burn involving 30% of his total body surface area. A cardiovascular physiological change expected within the first twenty-four hours is: (repeat question but with different options?) Increased CI Decreased SVR Decreased PVR Increased hepatic flow Increased stroke volume

You are involved in the care of a two-year-old child who ingested a button battery within the last 4 hours. You should consider giving Honey Milk Water Bicarb

Honey

Of the following, the LEAST likely cause of high anion gap metabolic acidosis is: Pancreatic fistula DKA Cardiac failure Antiretroviral Methanol

Pancreatic fistula

A patient presents with a serum sodium of 110 mmol/L. A feature NOT consistent with a diagnosis of syndrome of inappropriate antiduretic hormone (SIADH) is: Urine osmolarity <100 Euvolaemic state Urine Na >40 Increased cortisol

Urine osmolarity <100

In a patient with tetraplegia who develops autonomic dysreflexia, the expected haemodynamic response is: Hypertension from splanchnic vasoconstriction below lesion Hypotension from uncontrolled vagal stimulation

Hypertension from splanchnic vasoconstriction below lesion

The domains described in the Edmonton Frail Scale do NOT include: Cognition Mental illness Weight Age Functional assessment

Age

The most reliable clinical indicator of opioid-induced ventilatory impairment (OIVI) is decreased: Conscious state Respiratory rate Oxygen saturations Tidal volume

Conscious state

When performing a paediatric pain assessment, the five elements assessed to obtain the FLACC score are:

Identified risk factors for opioid-induced ventilatory impairment DO NOT include : Opiate use pre-op

Opiate use pre-op

The oral morphine equivalent of tapentadol 50 mg (immediate release) is: 5mg 10mg 20mg 25mg 30mg

20mg ~3 x less potent

?removed from exam report The implementation of comprehensive multidisciplinary geriatric assessments in the peri-operative period has been shown to Less duration in hospital Less in aged care More alive and at home at 12 months

Less duration in hospital More alive and at home at 12 months

The advantage of the Mapleson E circuit in paediatric anaesthesia is due to its: Can use low gas flows Tactile feel of compliance Assess tidal volume Rapidly change CPAP Low resistance

Low resistance

Intraoperative lung protective ventilation strategies include all of the following EXCEPT: Vt 6-8ml/kg Patient titrated PEEP Recruitment manoeuvres – recommended in surgical vent BJA int guideline I:E ratio 1:3

I:E ratio 1:3

Of the following, the lifestyle modification that is least effective in reducing essential hypertension is: Stopping caffeine Low salt diet High potassium diet Exercise Stop alcohol

Stopping caffeine

The function of the bottle labelled 'D' in the diagram below is to protect against the consequences of: (picture of 4 bottle system) Suction failure Excess positive pressure Drain kinking Excess negative pressure

Suction failure

A respiratory effect of high flow nasal oxygen therapy is: Reduced respiratory rate Reduced minute ventilation Increased work of breathing Increased deadspace

Reduced respiratory rate

A peripheral intravenous cannula is being inserted in the forearm of a man having a hemicolectomy. The skin asepsis preparation NOT suitable for this procedure is Povidone iodine 10% prep Chlorhex 2% EtOH 70% Chlorhex in EtOH Iodine tincture

Chlorhex 2%

A patient who usually takes oral morphine 50 mg bd develops a bowel obstruction and experiences withdrawal symptoms. They may be described as having: Tolerance Physical dependence Addiction Opiate dependence

Physical dependence

You are examining the precordium of a patient in the preadmission clinic and hear a fourth heart sound at the apex. This finding is consistent with: AR Athlete Normal Hypertension

Hypertension

Of the following, the incidence of venous air embolism is considered highest for LUSCS Prostatectomy Coronary artery surgery Spinal surgery Gastric endoscopy

LUSCS

The number of segments in the lower lobe of the left lung is: 2 3 4 5 6

Allergic cross-reactivity between penicillins and cephalosporins is mediated by the: Thiazolidine ring Beta lactam ring R1 chain on the Beta Lactam ring R2 chain on the thiazelidine ring Dihydrothiazine ring

R1 chain on the Beta Lactam ring

A patient with a history of paroxysmal atrial fibrillation and chronic obstructive airways disease develops a wheeze intraoperatively which resolves with administration of salbutamol via the endotracheal tube. Soon after, he develops rapid atrial fibrillation with a ventricular rate of 120 beats per minute, a BP of 90/60 and an ETCO2 of 40mmHg. His regular medications are inhaled salbutamol, inhaled salmeterol and digoxin 125mcg daily. The next most suitable treatment is: A) Amiodarone 150 mg over 10 mins and cont with infusion 0.5-1mg/min B) DC shock at 50J (weak!! Should cardiovert with at least 100J biphasic!?) C) Esmolol 0.5mg per kg followed by an infusion 0.1mg/kg/min D) 2.5-5mg metoprolol q3-5 mins max attempts x 3. E) Digoxin 500mcg

Amiodarone 150 mg over 10 mins and cont with infusion 0.5-1mg/min

A patient has blunt chest trauma. A thoracotomy is indicated if the immediate blood drainage after closed thoracostomy is greater than 500ml 1000ml 1200ml 1500ml

1500ml

The anion which contributes the most to the anion gap is: Albumin Chloride Phosphate HCO3 Urate

Albumin

Intraoperative cell salvage is contraindicated in LUSCS Infected hip revision Heparin allergy Severe coagulopathy Phaeochromocytoma

Phaeochromocytoma

Techniques to improve the speed of onset and spread of a peribulbar block include all of the following EXCEPT: Honan balloon Digital pressure Ocular massage Hyalase

Ocular massage

Performing a superficial cervical plexus block will block all of the following nerves EXCEPT the Greater auricular nerve Supraclavicular Lesser occipital Greater occipital Transverse cervical

Greater occipital

A man with atrial fibrillation has no valvular heart disease. According to joint American Heart Association (AHA), American College of Cardiology (ACC) and Heart Rhythm Society (HRS) guidelines, oral anticoagulants are definitely recommended if his CHA2DS2-VASc score is greater than or equal to: 1 2 3 4 5

The maximum warm ischaemia time acceptable for procuring the kidney following donation after circulatory death (DCD) is: 30 minutes 60 minutes 90 minutes 120 minutes

60 minutes

ANZCA fasting guidelines classify all of the following as clear fluids EXCEPT Water Black coffee Strained broth Clear cordial Pulp free juice

Strained broth

The main advantage of using noradrenaline (norepinephrine) over phenylephrine for the prevention of hypotension as a result of spinal anaesthesia for elective caesarean section is: Better APGAR Better foetal acid/base Less nausea/vomiting Less maternal bradycardia

Less maternal bradycardia

The power board on the back of the anaesthesia machine has caught fire during an elective case. CO2 extinguisher Fire blanket Fire hose Foam extinguisher Wet chemical extinguisher

CO2 extinguisher

With regard to the risk of postoperative surgical-site infection, 8 mg dexamethasone administered intraoperatively has No change in infection Increased infection in diabetics Increased infection in non diabetics

No change in infection

Cryoprecipitate contains all of the following EXCEPT: Factor II Factor VII ? misremembered Factor XIII VWF Fibronectin

Factor II

The intrinsic muscles of the larynx do NOT include Suprahyoid Cricothyroid Thyroarytenoid Transverse arytenoid

Suprahyoid

Suxamethonium causes a sustained contraction of the extraocular muscles for up to: 2 minutes 3 minutes 5 minutes 10 minutes 20 minutes

10 minutes

A factor that is NOT used to calculate the Child-Pugh score is Albumin Ascites INR Creatinine Bilirubin

Creatinine

A patient with an acute subarachnoid haemorrhage arrives in the emergency department. Her Glasgow Coma Scale is 10 and she has no motor deficit. A CT brain shows diffuse subarachnoid haemorrhage with no localised areas of blood > 1mm thick, and no intracerebral nor intraventricular blood. Her World Federation of Neurosurgical Societies (WFNS) grade of subarachnoid haemorrhage is: 1 2 3 4 5

An adult with renal failure on regular haemodialysis has an ASA (American Society of Anesthesiologists) physical status classification of at least: 1 2 3 4 5

Not required to diagnose DCD ?removed from exam report Feel like the question would have been more specificApnoea Art line flat 2 mins Immobility No skin perfusion Absence of drugs causing sedation or coma

Absence of drugs causing sedation or coma

Of the following, the procedure that is most commonly associated with chronic pain after surgery is:

What do you do with a patient with sickle cell disease for surgery with Hb 80 ?removed from exam report A)Group and screen B) Exchange transfusion to HbSS <30% C) Transfuse to Hb 100

Transfuse to Hb 100

A woman experiences a post-partum haemorrhage associated with uterine atony that is unresponsive to oxytocin and ergometrine. The recommended intramuscular dose of carboprost (15-methyl prostaglandin F2 alpha ) to be administered is 50mcg one dose 50mcg repeated to max 250mcg single dose 1g

250mcg single dose

Methylene blue may be used in the treatment of all of the following conditions EXCEPT repeat G6P deficiency Priapism Methaemoglobinaemia Portopulmonary hypertension Protamine allergy

G6P deficiency

?not in exam report Which of the following is (is not?) associated with worse outcomes to anaphylaxis High ASA score Concurrent beta blocker dose Ischaemic heart disease Anaphylaxis to specific drug ?

Anaphylaxis to specific drug ?

(not listed in recall) The relatively slower onset of action of bupivacaine with adrenaline in brachial plexus anaesthesia compared to other local anaesthetics relates to: High pH High pKa High protein binding Additional of adrenaline High lipid solubility

High pKa

(not listed in recall) A patient has return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC) but remains unresponsive after cardiac arrest. ANZCOR Guidelines recommend all the following measures EXCEPT

(not listed in recall) The oculocardiac reflex results in:

(not listed in recall) The abnormality shown in this image is LEAST likely to be caused by an injury to the

(not listed in recall) The Vortex Approach to airway management does all of the following EXCEPT

(not listed in recall) Local anaesthetic blockade of the sciatic nerve results in loss of function of all of the following EXCEPT

(not listed in recall) A bleeding patient has ROTEM results including (results displayed). The most appropriate treatment is:

2021.2 Flashcards

(148 cards)