2022 Flashcards
(159 cards)
1
Q
Where do retroperitoneal extra-adrenal paragangliomas typically appear?
A
Along the abdominal aorta
They often present with heterogenous parenchyma and can affect local vasculature.
2
Q
What imaging characteristics are associated with intracranial abscessation on DWI?
A
Hyperintense on DWI, hypointense on ADC map
Mean ADC values range from 0.37 to 1.24x10-3 mm2/s.
3
Q
What is the most common spinal cord neoplasm in cats?
A
Lymphoma
It is also the second most common intracranial tumor.
4
Q
What are the MRI findings in dogs with lymphoma?
A
Contrast enhancement in all lesions, marked in 25/30 cats
Infiltration of adjacent extra-neural tissue was observed in 11/31 cats.
5
Q
What characteristics define apex nodules in Scottish terriers?
A
Triangular to oval shaped, smooth mucosal covering, well-defined margins
Incidental apex nodules could mimic neoplasia.
6
Q
What percentage of dogs have unilateral or bilateral sciatic lymph nodes?
A
15.7%
Bilateral gluteal lymph nodes were identified in 0.8% of dogs.
7
Q
What is the effect of vertebral vascular canal dysplasia (VVCD) in dogs?
A
Affects > 50% of vertebral body height
English bulldogs have significantly more affected thoracic vertebrae than French bulldogs.
8
Q
What is the sensitivity and specificity of ultrasound for identifying dogs with ureteral ectopia?
A
Sensitivity 93.5%, specificity 100%
Dogs with ureteral ectopia had more concurrent urinary tract abnormalities.
9
Q
What does renal cortical thickness (RCT) indicate in dogs?
A
Reflects the pathological condition of the kidney
Normal reference range is 3-8mm.
10
Q
What were the accuracy metrics of AI software diagnosing cardiogenic pulmonary edema?
A
Accuracy 92.3%, sensitivity 91.3%, specificity 92.4%
Positive predictive value 56%; negative predictive value 99%.
11
Q
How do carcinoma and pheochromocytoma differ in imaging?
A
Differences in pre- and postcontrast attenuation, tumor thrombus characteristics
Radiologists’ agreement was excellent for CVC invasion.
12
Q
What is the prevalence of nasal masses in cats with cryptococcosis?
A
30%
Most cases described as non-destructive rhinitis.
13
Q
What clinical improvement was observed in female dogs with cystic endometrial hyperplasia-pyometra complex after treatment?
A
9/12 animals showed clinical improvement by day 3
Doppler parameters changed significantly in responding dogs.
14
Q
What effect does reducing radiation exposure have on CT imaging?
A
Reduces radiation exposure by up to 74% at lower kVp settings
Higher image noise may occur with lower doses.
15
Q
What causes stenotic myelopathy in large breed dogs?
A
Thoracolumbar articular process hyperplasia and degenerative joint disease
MRI showed malformation at T13-L1 or T12-T13.
16
Q
What findings are associated with perineal hernia in dogs?
A
Larger prostates with cysts and abnormal rotation
An S-shaped urethra flexure was found in 60.9% of PH dogs.
17
Q
What are the radiographic features of canine subungual keratoacanthoma?
A
Lysis of P2 and P3, nail enlargement and deformation
Differentiation from neoplastic and non-neoplastic aetiologies is necessary.
18
Q
What imaging characteristics correlate with brain abscesses?
A
Homogenous signal on T1W and T2W, peripheral hypointense halo
Progressive central enhancement on delayed T1W postcontrast sequences is noted.
19
Q
What are the CT findings of hypaxial muscle abscesses in dogs?
A
Enlargement of hypaxial muscles with fluid-attenuating noncontrast enhancing areas
May also show vertebral lysis and retroperitoneal effusion.
20
Q
What is the significance of nasopharyngeal luminal change in Beagle dogs?
A
Median change of 16.6%, significant association with BCS and body weight
Change over 50% can occur without cardiopulmonary diseases.
21
Q
How does MRI finding of hydromyelia relate to lesion chronicity in IVDE?
A
Absence of hydromyelia correlates with longer duration of clinical signs
<14 days duration is sensitive and specific for predicting hydromyelia.
22
Q
What are the characteristics of sarcomas on imaging?
A
Large dimensions, cystic appearance, low post-contrast enhancement
Nodular hyperplasia shows high post-contrast enhancement.
23
Q
What is the difference in imaging characteristics between extra-axial tumors and gliomas?
A
Extra-axial tumors have similar contrast enhancement margins to surgical margins
Gliomas’ T2W hyperintensity underestimates surgical margins.
24
Q
What is the imaging appearance of GI wall edema in humans?
A
Three-layer appearance with thickened submucosal layer
More commonly present in the gastric body and pylorus.
25
What is the sensitivity of CT sialography in detecting diseased glands in dogs?
66.7%
## Footnote
Sialoceles are defined as submucosal or subcutaneous accumulation of saliva.
26
What are the characteristics of sialoceles on imaging?
Fluid attenuating non-contrast enhancing content with soft tissue attenuating contrast enhancing walls
## Footnote
Intraluminal nodular protrusions are unique to sialoceles.
27
What are sialoliths and osseous metaplasia identified as?
Histological findings in sialoceles
## Footnote
These findings are related to the unique characteristics of sialoceles, including intraluminal nodular to frond-like protrusions.
28
What is a reliable method for measuring prostate volume on CT images?
CT imaging with minimal intra- and interobserver variability
## Footnote
The method shows minimal effects of contrast enhancement and consistent results across different protocols.
29
What is the normal range for the angle between iliac wings in pelves?
0.6° to 1.5°
## Footnote
Abnormal pelves have angles ranging from 3.8° to 7.1° with a cut-off angle of 2.0° for accuracy in diagnosis.
30
What does a bronchial pattern in radiology produce?
Large-diameter, branching, tapering bands
## Footnote
This pattern radiates from the lung hilus, while the bronchiolar pattern produces smaller, nonradiating lines.
31
What is the prevalence of presumed right auricle aneurysm in dogs?
0.21% in a study of 10,886 dogs
## Footnote
Three phenotypes of RAA were identified, including diffuse saccular dilation and focal saccular dilation.
32
Which breed is overrepresented for neurological symptoms after thoracolumbar intervertebral disc herniation?
Dachshunds
## Footnote
The study noted significant artifacts in 33% of cases and described a new complication in one instance.
33
What percentage of cases saw altered conclusions with post-contrast MRI?
17.5%
## Footnote
Post-contrast studies improved interobserver agreement compared to non-contrast studies.
34
What are the common MRI characteristics of canine prostatic neoplasia?
Heterogenous hyperintensity on T2W images and prostatic capsular margin distortion
## Footnote
Additional features include cavitations and neurovascular bundle compression.
35
What incidental finding was identified on the odontoid process?
A small osseous body compatible with a persistent ossiculum terminale
## Footnote
This finding is considered without clinical implications.
36
What sonographic finding is common in dogs with confirmed IBD?
Intestinal muscularis thickening relative to submucosa
## Footnote
Most dogs exhibited muscular layer thickness above normal ranges.
37
What is the prevalence of renal medullary striations on ultrasound in cats?
2.2%
## Footnote
These striations are associated with high UPC values and renal tubular dysfunction.
38
What characterizes intravascular lymphoma?
Proliferation of large malignant lymphocytes within blood vessels
## Footnote
MRI findings include hyperintense lesions on T2W and iso-hypointense lesions on T1W.
39
What growth patterns are seen in different tumor types?
Concentric, eccentric, and mixed growth patterns
## Footnote
These patterns vary between adenocarcinoma, leiomyomas, and lymphomas.
40
What is the association between pyloric hyperplasia and adenocarcinoma?
Both can form mass lesions involving the mucosal layer
## Footnote
Adenocarcinomas typically form wall-thickened lesions involving the outer layer.
41
What is the mean VHS in healthy Maltese dogs?
9.53 ± 0.46 vertebrae
## Footnote
Interobserver agreement for VHS was almost perfect.
42
What does the CT-GFR value indicate compared to serum iohexol clearance?
CT-GFR underestimates SIC-GFR
## Footnote
GFR calculations should use the derived equation from linear regression.
43
What percentage of students reported receiving radiation safety training?
28%
## Footnote
This highlights a gap in training among veterinary students.
44
What effect does an intensive veterinary radiology clerkship have?
Improves radiographic interpretation skills and course satisfaction
## Footnote
Case-based discussions enhance learning outcomes.
45
What is the upper limit of renal resistivity indexes for healthy cats?
0.64 to 0.72
## Footnote
RI values increase with kidney disease and are influenced by BW, HR, and age.
46
What can intravenous dexmedetomidine and morphine cause?
Gallbladder wall thickening in 33% of cases
## Footnote
There is no significant association with plasma histamine concentrations.
47
What is the comparison between IO and IV iodinated contrast administration?
Comparable in enhancement characteristics
## Footnote
Minimal adverse effects were noted from IO catheters despite technical difficulties.
48
What are the common imaging characteristics of cranial and vertebral osteosarcoma?
Signal heterogeneity in T2W images, contrast enhancement, osteolysis, compression of the CNS or cauda equina, an associated soft tissue mass, a long zone of transition, osteosclerosis, signal isointensity to normal-appearing grey matter in T1W images, and T2W hyperintensity of adjacent brain or spinal cord.
## Footnote
Contrast enhancement is typically strong and heterogenous. Osteosarcoma results in a monostotic aggressive bone lesion.
49
What MRI features are significantly associated with brain abscesses?
A homogenous signal on T1W and T2W sequences, a T2W or T2*W GE peripheral hypointense halo, and an even enhancing capsule.
## Footnote
Progressive central enhancement on delayed T1W postcontrast sequences correlates with ring-enhancing gliomas.
50
What was the accuracy of the AI algorithm in detecting pleural effusion?
88.7% accuracy, with sensitivity at 90.2% and specificity at 81.8% (PPV 92.5%, NPV 81.8%).
51
What percentage of cats had gallbladder sludge during abdominal ultrasound?
44% of cats.
52
What was the most reliable parameter for diagnosing non-neoplastic urinary bladder disease in dogs?
Fall time >10.40s (sensitivity 83.33%, specificity 66.67%).
53
What are normal findings in Rhode Island Red hybrid hens during a coelomic ultrasound?
Small volume of coelomic effusion, visibility of liver, gallbladder, gonad, GIT, pancreas, and spleen.
## Footnote
The cysticoenteric duct and hepatoenteric duct were visualized in only 57% of the hens.
54
What imaging findings were observed in dogs with subungual keratoacanthomas?
Osteolysis of the distal phalanx’s ungual process and crest, regional soft tissue swelling, thickened claw, and possible lysis of the distal aspect of the middle phalanx.
55
What imaging modalities revealed osteomyelitis changes in dogs with presumed migrating foreign material?
Radiography and/or ultrasound.
56
What is the recommended dose of intravenous iodinated contrast medium for abdominal CT?
600 to 880 milligrams of iodine per kilogram.
57
What are the most prevalent CT findings of sacroiliac joint disease in large breed dogs?
Subchondral erosion (100% on both CT and MRI) and subchondral sclerosis (95% CT, 97% MRI).
58
What was the visibility percentage of lumbar arteries using fast 3D contrast-enhanced MRI angiography?
100% of cases.
59
What DTI measures differed between mROI and sROI in paraplegic dogs?
Fractional anisotropy was higher, while mean diffusivity, axial diffusivity, and radial diffusivity were lower for mROI compared to sROI.
60
True or False: Ultrasound can replace radiographs for diagnosing the direction of hip luxation.
False.
61
What are oesophageal varices and what causes them?
Abnormally dilated veins in the oesophagus caused by alterations of blood flow or pressure.
62
What percentage of dogs had correctly identified medial glenohumeral ligaments in ultrasonographic examination?
67%.
63
What is the correlation between VHS and HSVR?
There is a strong correlation between VHS and HSVR.
64
What imaging method increased the conspicuity of intracranial lesions to 92.5%?
SWI (Susceptibility Weighted Imaging).
65
What MRI abnormalities are found in cases of SRMA?
Meningeal enhancement (87.1%), nerve roots (14.3%), synovium of the articular facets (48.6%), and paravertebral muscles (48.6%).
66
What are the CT features of discospondylitis in dogs?
Endplate involvement, periosteal proliferation, vertebral body involvement, and abnormal IVDS.
67
What is the most common location for spinal epidural empyema in dogs?
Lumbar spine (78%).
68
What is sclerosing encapsulating peritonitis?
A chronic inflammatory condition where the small intestines are encased in a dense fibrocollagenous membrane.
69
What is the distinction between metaphyseal sclerosis and metaphyseal osteopathy in dogs?
Metaphyseal sclerosis occurs secondary to canine distemper virus without lysis, while metaphyseal osteopathy affects young growing dogs, mainly large breeds.
70
What were the common abdominal imaging findings in dogs with IMHA?
Hepatomegaly (40%), peritoneal effusion (38%), gallbladder thickening (32%), and sludge (28%).
71
What percentage of dogs with acute pancreatitis had GIT wall changes?
47%.
72
What were the most common CT findings of suspected aspiration pneumonia?
Lung lobe consolidation with air bronchograms (100%), followed by ground-glass attenuation (89.4%).
73
What factors were independent predictors of in-hospital death in dogs with gallbladder mucocele?
Increasing age and decreasing intraoperative SBP nadir.
74
What percentage of dogs with sternal lymphadenopathy and malignancy had thoracic neoplasia?
50%.
75
What is the best CT phase for imaging the pancreas?
Triple-phase abdominal CT.
76
What imaging techniques allowed good visualization of renal pelvises and ureters?
Excretory magnetic resonance urography and computed tomography urography.
77
What anatomical structures did the interarcuate branch arise from?
The ventral venous plexus at the level of the intervertebral vein at C2-C3 spinal cord.
78
What change occurs in transcranial doppler velocities during the ictal-phase of induced seizures?
Significantly increased by 130% in the basilar and middle cerebral arteries.
79
What was the effect of injection duration on aortic enhancement peak during CT?
The aortic enhancement peak was less, and the arrival time at the aortic enhancement peak was longer with a 15-second injection compared to a 5-second injection.
80
What was the effect of the 750mg/kg dose compared to the 450mg/kg dose on peak enhancement?
The maximum peak enhancement at the aorta, portal vein, and hepatic parenchyma was greater with the 750mg/kg dose.
81
How did injection duration affect the aortic enhancement peak?
The aortic enhancement peak was less, and the arrival time at the aortic enhancement peak was longer with a 15-second injection duration compared to a 5-second duration.
82
What significant differences were observed in contrast-enhanced US variables?
All 3 contrast-enhanced US variables showed no significant differences between the PPS and control groups.
83
In the left gastrophrenic shunt group, how did the rising time (RT) compare to other shunt types?
The rising time (RT) and portal vein-to-hepatic parenchyma transit time (ΔHP-PV) were significantly longer than in the other shunt types.
84
What was the recommended dose of contrast medium for thoracic duct enhancement?
The recommended dose was 1mL/kg (0.5mL/kg/pad; concentration, 350mg of iodine/kg).
85
What was the complication rate post thoracic duct enhancement procedure?
The post-procedure complication rate is low.
86
What was the prevalence of dilated perivascular spaces in the ventral forebrain?
The prevalence of dilated perivascular spaces was high at 57%.
87
What echogenicity characteristics differentiate nodular hyperplasia from adenocarcinomas and lymphomas?
Nodular hyperplasia appears as small, hypoechoic nodules showing isoenhancement and no wash-out, while adenocarcinomas and lymphomas are larger, with mixed echogenicity.
88
What is the significance of T1W hyperintense signals in ischemic stroke identification?
Ischemic stroke can be identified as an intralesional T1W hyperintense signal compared to grey and white matter.
89
What are the two types of transcaval ureter malformation?
Type I: symmetrical branches and right-lateral to the aorta; Type II: asymmetrically branches and right-dorsal to the aorta.
90
What percentage of dogs with Brucella canis discopondylitis were under 5 years old?
94% of dogs with Brucella canis discopondylitis were <5 years old.
91
What were the most frequent neurological signs for spinal lymphoma in cats?
Rapidly progressive paraparesis or paraplegia.
92
What was the mean ± SD width of the duodenal papilla in clinically healthy cats?
3.13±0.68mm.
93
What echogenicity characteristics were noted in cats with pancreatitis?
Echogenicity of the pancreas was of no prognostic value in cats with suspected pancreatitis.
94
What are the main radiographic features of cardiogenic pulmonary oedema in cats?
Moderate-to-severe cardiomegaly, left atrial enlargement, caudal pulmonary vessel dilation, and interstitial pulmonary pattern.
95
True or False: Hyperthyroidism is associated with radiographic pulmonary hyperinflation.
False.
96
What was the most commonly observed gallbladder morphology in dogs?
Bilobed morphology (14.35%).
97
What is the significance of the resistance index of intraovarian arteries during oestrus?
It decreases up to day 5 and then increases on 5 days after oestrus.
98
What were the common features of cats with lymphoma compared to those with adenocarcinoma?
Lymphadenopathy was significantly more common in lymphoma, and the intestine was significantly thicker in lymphoma.
99
What correlation exists between renal dimensions and the growth of cats?
Renal dimensions, renal cortical thickness, and corticomedullary ratio increased with the growth of the cat.
100
What was the average thickness of the pancreas in cats?
0.5 to 0.9cm in the left lobe and body, and 0.3 to 0.6cm in the right lobe.
101
What happens to the resistance index of the uterine arteries during oestrus compared to the post-oestrus period?
It is lower during oestrus than in the post-oestrus period.
## Footnote
(Vercellini et al)
102
Which type of cancer in cats is associated with more frequent intestinal obstruction and layer enhancement?
Adenocarcinoma.
## Footnote
(Tanaka et al)
103
In normal feline brain, where are the mean ADC values the highest and lowest?
Highest in the hippocampus and lowest in the cerebellar hemisphere.
## Footnote
(Cordella et al)
104
What imaging characteristics were not significantly associated with long-term serum creatinine concentrations in long-term survivors after treatment of feline ureteral obstructions?
Renal pelvic dilation, kidney size, or thickness of renal parenchyma.
## Footnote
(McEntee et al)
105
What were the most common abnormal CT findings in cats with traumatic brain injury?
* Lateral ventricle asymmetry/midline shift (42.8%)
* Intracranial haemorrhage (35.7%)
* Caudotentorial lesions (14.2%)
* Depressed cranial vault fractures (14.2%)
## Footnote
(Mann et al)
106
What percentage of cats with retrobulbar tumor presented with respiratory signs and exophthalmos?
Most commonly presented with respiratory signs and exophthalmos.
## Footnote
(Jones et al)
107
What was the most common underlying cause for feline urinary incontinence?
Urethral obstruction (67%).
## Footnote
(Merindol et al)
108
What was the effect of IV contrast medium administration on mean creatinine, SDMA, and UPC measurement?
No significant short-term effects were seen if patients were adequately hydrated.
## Footnote
(Prullage et al)
109
What type of fracture was most common in cats, excluding proximal femoral physis?
Distal femur fractures.
## Footnote
(Rubinos et al)
110
What are the MRI features of feline hippocampal and piriform lobe necrosis (FHN)?
* T2 and FLAIR hyperintense
* T1 hypointense
* Contrast enhancing hippocampus and piriform lobes
## Footnote
(Scalia et al)
111
What percentage of CKCS showed ventriculomegaly?
70%.
## Footnote
(Tirrito et al)
112
What was the prevalence of extensive epidural haemorrhage in Dachshunds compared to French bulldogs?
11.2% in Dachshunds and 41.3% in French bulldogs.
## Footnote
(Poli et al)
113
What significant correlation was found related to CVC to aortic diameter ratio and mean blood pressure in dogs?
Higher CVC to aortic diameter ratio was associated with low mean blood pressure.
## Footnote
(Hanazana et al)
114
In elbows with MCP diseases, which portion had higher mean HU measurements?
Medial and lateral portions of the humeral condyles.
## Footnote
(Soares et al)
115
What is the consequence of a double aortic arch?
Entrapment of the oesophagus and trachea.
## Footnote
(Scalia et al)
116
What are the MRI features of presumptive constrictive myelopathy?
* Focal myelopathy
* Focal subarachnoid space irregular margination
* Symmetric V-shaped ventral extradural lesion
## Footnote
(Aikawa et al)
117
What was the prevalence of local metastatic disease in dogs with anal sac adenocarcinoma?
71%.
## Footnote
(Sutton et al)
118
What can presumed dorsal mediastinal haemorrhage be managed with?
Supportive care alone.
## Footnote
(Peak et al)
119
What was the finding of CT sonography compared to IV contrast enhanced CT?
CT sonography revealed a more extensive tract in 21% of cases.
## Footnote
(Jimenez-lopez et al)
120
What clinical signs are associated with sublumbar abscessation in dogs?
* Flank or lumbar soft tissue swelling
* Lumbar pain
* Hyperthermia
* Cutaneous discharging sinus
* Lethargy
## Footnote
(Jacques et al)
121
What is the prevalence of leopard-spotted splenic parenchyma associated with in dogs?
Lymphomatous infiltration.
## Footnote
(Sumping et al)
122
What was the prevalence of heart disease in English bull terriers?
65%.
## Footnote
(Chompoosan et al)
123
What was the recurrence rate of cervical IVDE in dogs?
60% imaging confirmation of recurrence.
## Footnote
(Argent et al)
124
What MRI pattern was present in dogs with grade III oligodendroglioma?
Moderate-to-marked contrast enhancement and ring pattern.
## Footnote
(Amphimaque et al)
125
What is the prevalence of oesophageal varices in dogs?
0.012%.
## Footnote
(Slead et al)
126
What signs on lung US were identified for dogs with aspiration pneumonia?
* B-lines
* Shred signs with or without bronchograms
## Footnote
(Fernandes Rodrigues et al)
127
What was the correlation between blood-brain barrier dysfunction and seizure prevalence in dogs?
Dogs with blood-brain barrier dysfunction had significantly higher seizure prevalence.
## Footnote
(Hanael et al)
128
What should be monitored closely in dogs with gallbladder sludge?
Gallbladder sludge taking up >50% of the GB area.
## Footnote
(Bulter et al)
129
What effect did azithromycin and erythromycin have on gastric emptying time in healthy cats?
Shortened gastric emptying time in the late phase of fractional emptying.
## Footnote
(Rutherford et al)
130
What imaging technique is useful to detect kidney infarction in dogs?
Contrast enhanced CT, especially in the sagittal plane.
## Footnote
(Sutthigran et al)
131
What was the incidence of pathologic penetration-aspiration in dogs on videofluoroscopic swallow study?
39%.
## Footnote
(Grobman et al)
132
What correlation was found between lipase and US results in dogs with pancreatitis?
Weakly correlated.
## Footnote
(Hammes et al)
133
What agreement was found between uroendoscopy and US when evaluating dogs with lower urinary tract disorder?
Moderate to substantial agreement.
## Footnote
(Hsieh et al)
134
What was the prevalence of low respiratory tract disease in small-breed dogs with preclinical MMVD?
74.6%.
## Footnote
(Lam et al)
135
What was the median time to normalization of CRP and SAA concentrations in dogs with pneumonia?
Shorter than antimicrobial treatment duration.
## Footnote
(Menard et al)
136
What can increase the suspicion for glucocorticoid deficient hypoadrenocorticism?
* Albuin/globulin ratio
* Lymphocyte count
* Serum cholesterol concentration
* Adrenal gland width
## Footnote
(Reagan et al)
137
What was the accuracy for radiographic diagnosis of pneumoperitoneum secondary to GI perforation in dogs and cats?
Fair to excellent for all observers.
## Footnote
(Marwood et al)
138
What common clinical findings were associated with liver lobe torsion in pet rabbits?
* Anaemia
* Elevated plasma alanine aminotransferase
* Blood urea nitrogen
## Footnote
(Sheen et al)
139
What echogenicity pattern is seen in pancreatic adenocarcinoma at B-mode?
Mixed echogenicity.
## Footnote
(Burti et al)
140
What associations were found between cough and CT findings in dogs?
* Cough and bronchial lesions
* Cough and neutrophilic inflammation on cytology
## Footnote
(Osathanon et al)
141
Which breeds were most affected by foraminal and far-lateral TL IVDH?
Dachshunds and mixed breeds.
## Footnote
(Silva et al)
142
What percentage of poorly/moderately-differentiated hepatocellular lesions were confirmed by imaging?
62.5%.
## Footnote
(Sumping et al)
143
Which breeds are most affected for foraminal and far-lateral TL IVDH?
Dachshunds and mixed breeds
## Footnote
Foraminal and far-lateral TL IVDH is particularly common in these breeds.
144
What are the most frequent clinical signs of foraminal and far-lateral TL IVDH?
Pain in spinal palpation, hip manipulation, pelvic limbs lameness
## Footnote
These signs indicate discomfort and potential neurological issues.
145
What are the most common affected sites for foraminal and far-lateral TL IVDH?
L5-L6 or L6-L7
## Footnote
These intervertebral discs are frequently involved in cases of TL IVDH.
146
What is the outcome for dogs treated surgically and medically for foraminal and far-lateral TL IVDH?
Good to excellent outcome
## Footnote
Both treatment methods yield favorable results in affected dogs.
147
What percentage of poorly/moderately-differentiated hepatocellular lesions showed presumptive necrosis on CT and MRI?
62.5%
## Footnote
This statistic highlights the diagnostic challenges in identifying these lesions.
148
What is the median signal intensity ratio of poorly/moderately-differentiated HCC compared to well-differentiated HCC and hyperplasia?
Significantly lower (hypointense)
## Footnote
This difference can aid in differentiating lesion types on MRI.
149
What is the best test to exclude congenital portosystemic shunt (cPSS)?
Paired serum bile acids
## Footnote
This test has a sensitivity and negative predictive value of 100% for cPSS.
150
What is the sensitivity and specificity of fasting ammonia for diagnosing cPSS?
Sensitivity: 77.4%, Specificity: 93.3%
## Footnote
Elevated fasting ammonia levels indicate a high likelihood of cPSS.
151
What percentage of cases require additional imaging to visualize cPSS?
20%
## Footnote
This indicates the limitations of ultrasound in some instances.
152
What significant differences were found in tonsil measurements between brachycephalic and normocephalic dogs?
No significant differences, except in French bulldogs with BOAS
## Footnote
French bulldogs showed relatively high volume and large cross-sectional areas.
153
What is the ratio that had the highest sensitivity and specificity for diagnosing atlantoaxial instability in small-breed dogs?
Ventral and dorsal atlantodental interval (VCI)
## Footnote
The VCI is a critical measurement in assessing this condition.
154
What are the cutoff values for the VCI in diagnosing atlantoaxial instability in extended and flexed head positions?
>0.16 in extended and >0.2 in flexed head positions
## Footnote
These values are diagnostic thresholds for the condition.
155
What is the median number of vessels draining from the right lateral liver lobe into the CVC?
2 vessels
## Footnote
This anatomical detail is relevant for understanding hepatic drainage patterns.
156
How many vessels from the quadrate lobe typically drain into the CVC or indirectly via the left hepatic vein (LHV)?
1 vessel
## Footnote
This pattern is common in the quadrate lobe's vascular anatomy.
157
What is the dominant blood supply to the scrotum?
Ventral perineal arteries
## Footnote
These arteries originate from the internal pudendal arteries.
158
Which arteries supply the cranial scrotum?
Ventral scrotal arteries
## Footnote
They perfuse only the cranial border of the scrotum.
159
True or False: Dorsal scrotal arteries supply a larger area than ventral scrotal arteries.
True
## Footnote
This indicates the relative vascular supply distribution in the scrotum.
