2025 Sergeant's Test

Question 1

The authority to take adverse action or initiate a rejection during probation is vested with the ____________.

Answer 1

Commissioner

(HPM 10.2, 1-4)

Question 2

What are the 4 possible outcomes of an Administrative Investigation?

Answer 2

• Adverse Action
• Rejection During Probation
• Miscellaneous Investigation
• Non-Punitive Termination

(HPM 10.2 2-3)

Question 3

What is a Lyberger Admonishment?

Answer 3

An admonishment given in administrative interrogations advising subjects they do not have the right to refuse to answer administrative questions

(HPM 10.2 2-8)

Question 4

The six types of penalties for adverse actions are as follows:

Answer 4

• Formal Written Reprimand
• Salary Reduction within Salary Range of the Class
• Suspension
• Involuntary Transfer
• Demotion
• Dismissal

(HPM 10.2 2-3)

Question 5

What is a Coleman hearing?

Answer 5

The process that allows an employee who has resigned by being absent without leave (AWOL) to present information to an impartial departmental member

(HPM 10.2, 2-6)

Question 6

Compelled statements made during an administrative interrogation ___________ be included in a criminal interrogation.

Answer 6

Shall not

(HPM 10.2 4-6)

Question 7

When an employee is placed on a leave of absence without pay, the investigation must be completed, reviewed, and the employee served with the notice of adverse action within how many days?

Answer 7

15 calendar days

(HPM 10.2 4-16)

Question 8

An employee may file an appeal with the SPB no later than how many days after the Notice of Adverse Action?

Answer 8

30 calendar days

(HPM 10.2 9-12)

Question 9

Informal and Formal counseling are considered routine business communication and, therefore, is/is not subject to the grievance process. Furthermore, the employee is/is not entitled to representation.

Answer 9

Is not / Is not
Note: A formal counseling session will be documented on the counseled employee’s monthly evaluation form (100, 112)

(HPM 10.2, 3-6)

Question 10

Corrective documentation can take the form of any of the following:

Answer 10

• Monthly evaluation comment
• Memorandum of Counseling
• Memorandum of Direction
• Censurable CHP 2

(HPM 10.2 3-7)

Question 11

The assigned primary investigator shall be ___________ than the highest ranking involved employee.

Answer 11

at least one rank higher

(HPM 10.2 4-4)

Question 12

Interviews can be accomplished by a single investigator or by an investigative team, limited to a maximum of _______.

Answer 12

two investigators

(HPM 10.2, 6-10)

Question 13

Area and Division commanders shall ensure the investigation is forwarded to OIA within ____ from the date the Area becomes aware of the misconduct.

Answer 13

60 calendar days

(HPM 10.2, 4-5)

Question 14

Adverse Action. An employee may file an appeal with the SPB Appeals Division no later than ____ after the effective date of a Notice of Adverse Action.

Answer 14

30 calendar days

(HPM 10.2, 9-12)

Question 15

A rejected, probationary employee may file an appeal with the SPB Appeals Division no later than ____ after the effective date of the rejection.

Answer 15

15 calendar days

(HPM 10.2, 9-12)

Question 16

The respective Division commander is the final level of approval for adverse action with a penalty of:

Answer 16

• Formal written reprimand
• Suspension of one (1) to five (5) working days
• Equivalent monthly step reduction

(HPM 10.2, 8-4)

Question 17

The respective Assistant Commissioner is the final level of approval for adverse action with a penalty of:

Answer 17

• Suspension of six (6) to 20 working days
• Removal from a specialty pay position (Bargaining Unit 5 personnel)

(HPM 10.2, 8-4)

Question 18

The Commissioner or Deputy Commissioner is the final level of approval for adverse action with penalty of:

Answer 18

• Dismissal
• Demotion
• Suspension > 20 days or equivalent monthly step reduction
• Rejection during probation
• Non-punitive termination

(HPM 10.2, 8-5)

Question 19

How many consecutive days must an employee be absent without leave to be considered AWOL?

Answer 19

5

(HPM 10.2 2-5)

Question 20

Of the four outcomes for an administrative investigation does AWOL, failure to meet minimum qualifications, and medical disqualifications fall under?

Answer 20

Non-punitive termination

(HPM 10.2 2-4)

Question 21

The Bazemore admonition shall be included in all _______ which are counseling or remedial in nature.

Answer 21

Memoranda of Direction (MODs)

(HPM 10.2 3-8)

Question 22

An employee shall not have an assigned locker searched unless the search is conducted under any one of the following conditions:

Answer 22

• In the involved employee’s presence
• With the involved employee’s consent
• After a valid search warrant has been obtained
• When the involved employee has been notified that a search will be conducted

(HPM 10.2 11-10)

Question 23

Per GC § 19635, no adverse action shall be valid against any state employee unless notice is served within_______ years after the cause for discipline first arose.

Answer 23

3 years

(HPM 10.2 4-13)

Question 24

Pursuant to Government Code (GC) § 3304, adverse action shall not be undertaken against an employee if the investigation is not completed within ______ of the Department’s discovery of the allegation.

Answer 24

one (1) year

(HPM 10.2 4-12)

Question 25

Investigations shall be completed within what timeframe?

Answer 25

60 CALENDAR days / Appropriate AC may extend ## Footnote (HPM 10.2 4.3.f)

Question 26

Can a witness request complete confidentiality from the accused employee?

Answer 26

They cannot. The employee has the right to review the allegations ## Footnote (HPM 10.2 6-4)

Question 27

POBR regs allow an employee how many days to submit a written response to any adverse comment entered into the employee’s personnel file?

Answer 27

30 days ## Footnote (HPM 10.2 7-9)

Question 28

All notices of disciplinary action shall be served within ___________ of the decision to impose discipline.

Answer 28

30 calendar days ## Footnote (HPM 10.2 8-11)

Question 29

How many days does the PDH officer have to respond to a written response from an employee as a result of an AA?

Answer 29

14 calendar days if written ## Footnote (HPM 10.2 9-8)

Question 30

Can an employee use leave credits to satisfy an entire suspension period of 5 days or less?

Answer 30

5 days or less - yes (entire) 6 days or more - yes (1/2 of suspension) ## Footnote (HPM 10.2 9-10)

Question 31

If an employee separates from the Department during an internal investigation, the AA gets converted to what kind of investigation?

Answer 31

Miscellaneous Investigation ## Footnote (HPM 10.2 10-3)

Question 32

Begin the recorded portion of the interview by stating the date, time and specific location of the interview. All persons present shall verbally identify themselves by ____, _____, _____

Answer 32

Name, Rank or title, and Assignment ## Footnote (HPM 10.2, 6-15)

Question 33

What CHP employees are not protected under the POBR?

Answer 33

Cadets ## Footnote (HPM 10.2 11-3)

Question 34

If unrelated improper conduct is discovered during the review of MVARS video, it should be viewed as a _________________________.

Answer 34

Training opportunity ## Footnote (HPM 10.2 5-11/12)

Question 35

Notification (to employee) _____________ required prior to a criminal interrogation.

Answer 35

Is not ## Footnote (HPM 10.2 6-12)

Question 36

The Department has three classifications of Citizen’s Complaints. What are they?

Answer 36

* Category 1 * Category 2 * Other ## Footnote (HPM 10.4 2-1)

Question 37

A complaint allegation will have one of five findings. What are they?

Answer 37

* Sustained * Unintentional error * Exonerated * Departmental * Undetermined/ No finding ## Footnote (HPM 10.4 2-1)

Question 38

What counts as a “Third Party” in a third-party complaint? When a third-party complaint is received the command shall contact the complainant directly to ascertain their intentions, normally with a requested turnaround period of _________

Answer 38

* Non-involved relatives * Parents of children over the age of 18 years * Attorneys acting on behalf of a client ## Footnote (HPM 10.4 2-4)

Question 39

Which Category of complaint requires the inclusion of a chronological log?

Answer 39

Category I ## Footnote (HPM 10.4, 5-1)

Question 40

All complaints with allegations of criminal misconduct, which have been given a finding of Sustained or Unintentional Error, shall be sent where for review?

Answer 40

The respective prosecuting district attorney’s office ## Footnote (HPM 10.4 5-10)

Question 41

An aggrieved party that contacts the office by telephone shall be notified that the complaint can be filed via what?

Answer 41

the Internet ## Footnote (HPM 10.4 3-2)

Question 42

What is a category 1 complaint?

Answer 42

Complaints alleging: physical contact, excessive force, and/or criminal, racial, sexual, or immoral conduct ## Footnote (HPM 10.4 2-1)

Question 43

What is a category 2 complaint?

Answer 43

Complaints alleging verbal misconduct, nonverbal misconduct, and/or complaints regarding matters not related to an employee's conduct ## Footnote (HPM 10.4 2-1)

Question 44

List the four types of 'other' complaints.

Answer 44

* Rescinded * Frivolous * Departmental * Citation Validity ## Footnote (HPM 10.4 2-1)

Question 45

All complainants shall be acknowledged by correspondence within _____ _____ days of the Department’s notification of the complaint.

Answer 45

5 BUSINESS days ## Footnote (HPM 10.4 3-3)

Question 46

Category I, Category II, and Other complaints shall be destroyed after a period of ________, commencing from the date the Department originally received the complaint.

Answer 46

Five (5) years ## Footnote (HPM 10.4 9-2)

Question 47

Any corrective documentation issued to an employee as the result of a complaint investigation, shall be removed from the employee’s field personnel folder after a period of ______, commencing from the date of issue.

Answer 47

three (3) years ## Footnote (HPM 10.4 9-2)

Question 48

Closing correspondence shall be sent within ______ of the investigation being approved.

Answer 48

30 calendar days ## Footnote (HPM 10.4 7-1 4)

Question 49

The normal suspense period for complaints received at the command is ____.

Answer 49

sixty (60) days ## Footnote (HPM 10.4 4-1)

Question 50

The suspense period for legislative complaints is ______.

Answer 50

thirty (30) days ## Footnote (HPM 10.4 4-1)

Question 51

The employee’s complaint history (may, should, shall) be examined in order to determine the existence of previous complaints which would be relevant to the current investigation.

Answer 51

Shall ## Footnote (HPM 10.4 5-8)

Question 52

Is a complainant or witness allowed to use a tape recorder in an interview or discussion with an investigator?

Answer 52

Yes / Investigator shall record ## Footnote (HPM 10.4 5-6)

Question 53

If a complaint involves a departmental peace officer, the complainant shall be requested to return the CHP 240B or CHP 240D within _________________ days.

Answer 53

ten (10) business days ## Footnote (HPM 10.4, 3-3)

Question 54

What must be established outside the scope of a formal Administrative Interrogation?

Answer 54

That the supervisor was given prior permission by the employee ## Footnote HPM 10.4 5-6

Question 55

What must a complainant sign if the complaint involves a departmental peace officer?

Answer 55

The advisory statement on the CHP 240B ## Footnote HPM 10.4 3-3

Question 56

Within how many days must the complainant return the CHP 240B or CHP 240D?

Answer 56

ten (10) business days ## Footnote HPM 10.4, 3-3

Question 57

Who is responsible for the investigation if a complaint is generated while an employee is attending training at the Academy?

Answer 57

the Academy Commander ## Footnote HPM 10.4 4-2

Question 58

Are complaint investigations discoverable under the Public Records Act?

Answer 58

Are not ## Footnote HPM 10.4 5-5

Question 59

If, during the course of a routine interview in which the employee does not have representation, information surfaces which could lead to an AA, what shall occur when the interview is suspended?

Answer 59

The interview should be suspended, and the employee shall be informed of his/her right to representation ## Footnote [Chapter 5, page 5, section d (3)]

Question 60

CHP 268s (Potential Civil Liabilities) ________ be included as exhibits.

Answer 60

Shall not ## Footnote HPM 10.4 7-11

Question 61

Which type of form shall be completed if the complaint investigation uncovers any actual or alleged damage to property?

Answer 61

CHP 268, Civil Litigation Report ## Footnote [Chapter 7, page 13, section 6 a]

Question 62

What form shall be provided to any complainant making a claim of monetary damages?

Answer 62

CHP 287 ## Footnote HPM 10.4 3-6

Question 63

The CHP 214 shall not be issued in lieu of which forms for a mechanical violation?

Answer 63

CHP 215 or CHP 281 ## Footnote For violations including evidence of fraud or persistent neglect, immediate safety hazard, or if the violator does not agree to or cannot promptly correct the violation. (HPM 100.68 1-7)

Question 64

Officers patrolling the highways observing motorist behavior or writing reports _____ remain on their assigned beats and in public view at all times. Officers _______ create an appearance of concealment.

Answer 64

Shall / Shall not ## Footnote HPM 100.68 1-8

Question 65

Section 851.5 of the California Penal Code requires an arrested person to have the right to make at least ____ completed telephone calls immediately upon being booked, no later than _______

Answer 65

three / three hours ## Footnote HPM 100.68 2-3

Question 66

A minor has the right to make ___ telephone calls.

Answer 66

Two ## Footnote One call may be to their parent or guardian, the other to an attorney.

Question 67

Calls must be allowed no later than ___ ____ after the minor is taken into custody.

Answer 67

One hour

Question 68

A minor may not be detained in a room or cell station longer than ___ ___.

Answer 68

Six hours

Question 69

To be securely detained longer than six hours, the minor must be transferred to a ___ facility.

Answer 69

juvenile

Question 70

In no event shall a minor be present in an adult detention facility for a continuous period in excess of ___ ___.

Answer 70

Two hours

Question 71

How many phone calls are allowed when arresting a person with a minor child?

Answer 71

5 total - 3 phone calls and an additional 2 for arranging care for the child

Question 72

Officers involved in off-duty enforcement actions shall notify ____________ of their involvement.

Answer 72

Their Command

Question 73

Officers _____________ not accelerate above the prima facie or absolute speed limit to determine the actual speed of a vehicle.

Answer 73

Shall not

Question 74

At ____ miles per hour (MPH) or more above the prima facie speed limit, the officer shall stop and take enforcement action.

Answer 74

10

Question 75

From __ to __ MPH above the prima facie speed limit, the officer should stop and take enforcement action.

Answer 75

5 to 9

Question 76

From __ to __ MPH above the prima facie speed, the officer may stop and take enforcement action.

Answer 76

1 to 4

Question 77

At __ or more above the absolute speed limit, the officer shall stop and take the appropriate enforcement action.

Answer 77

5 MPH

Question 78

From _ to _ MPH above the absolute speed limit, the officer may stop and take appropriate enforcement action.

Answer 78

1 to 4 MPH

Question 79

Supervisor approval _____ be obtained before citing a motorcyclist for wearing any type of head covering that is not a motorcycle helmet.

Answer 79

Shall

Question 80

A child or ward under the age of ___ and is _____ in height may be restrained by a safety belt.

Answer 80

8 / 4’9”

Question 81

Effective January 1, 2017, all children under the age of ____ shall be properly secured in a rear-facing child passenger restraint system.

Answer 81

2 years old

Question 82

Officers _____ cite Section 16028(a) CVC according to the policy of the Department.

Answer 82

Shall

Question 83

Enter 'private person’s arrest' in the '_______' box of the CHP 215.

Answer 83

Special

Question 84

What form must be issued to a person being released from custody after accepting custody of a private person's arrest?

Answer 84

A CHP 103

Question 85

The violation cited must be a factor in the occurrence of the traffic collision. What should be written if the violator refuses to sign?

Answer 85

'refused to sign'

Question 86

Once the booking process has begun, we are no longer allowed to release the violator from incarceration. True or False?

Answer 86

True

Question 87

Who should normally issue a CHP 103 (Certificate of Release from Custody)?

Answer 87

A supervisor

Question 88

Patrol vehicle escorts _________ be provided to drivers of private vehicles for medical emergencies.

Answer 88

Should not

Question 89

Miranda warning must be provided after a custodial arrest and prior to an interrogation. When will the officer advise the minor of their constitutional rights?

Answer 89

Just prior to the release of the juvenile

Question 90

Officers ___________ stop a vehicle for the sole purpose of enforcing provisions of the graduated driver license.

Answer 90

Shall not

Question 91

Violators driving off road motor vehicles _____________ be pursued into areas not intended for vehicular use.

Answer 91

Should not

Question 92

The Department’s enforcement efforts must be consistent with the organizational values of ____________________.

Answer 92

Respect for others, Ethical practices, Equitable treatment for all, Fairness

Question 93

Commands shall immediately notify the Superintendent of Schools of the school district employing a teacher arrested for controlled substances offenses.

Answer 93

True

Question 94

While on-duty, supervisors ____________ have copies of the CHP 103 in their possession.

Answer 94

Shall

Question 95

Domestic Violence is defined as abuse committed against an adult or a minor who is a:

Answer 95

spouse, former spouse, cohabitant, former cohabitant, or a person with whom the suspect has had a child or is having or has had a dating or engagement relationship.

Question 96

Officers shall take temporary custody of any firearm in __________, or _____________, as necessary for the protection of the peace officer or other persons present.

Answer 96

plain sight or discovered pursuant to a consensual search

Question 97

Weapons shall be held not less than ________ and must be available for release not more than _________ after seizure.

Answer 97

48 hours / 48 hours

Question 98

An EPO expires no later than the close of judicial business on the ______ or the _________ following the day of issuance.

Answer 98

fifth court day / seventh CALENDAR day

Question 99

A DOJ report shall be submitted to the LCDA within __________ upon suspicion of child abuse or neglect.

Answer 99

36 hours of receiving information

Question 100

Upon locating a missing person, officers shall immediately notify _________________.

Answer 100

the Attorney General's office via MUPS

Question 101

What are the four criteria for the Amber Alert?

Answer 101

* Confirmation * Seventeen/disability * Imminent * Information

Question 102

Silver Alert criteria include that the missing person is 65 years of age or older, developmentally disabled, or cognitively impaired. True or False?

Answer 102

True

Question 103

What two forms must be provided to a hate crime victim?

Answer 103

* A CHP 876, Rights of Hate Crime Victims brochure * A CHP 174, Right to Privacy Acknowledgement

Question 104

If confidentiality is invoked, how shall the report be formatted?

Answer 104

The CHP 174 shall become the face page to the report.

Question 105

Pursuant to Section 836(c) PC, what action is an officer required to take regarding a protective order?

Answer 105

An officer shall physically arrest an individual who has violated the provisions of a protective order.

Question 106

What is the purpose of the Yellow Alert?

Answer 106

To establish a quick response system designed to issue and coordinate public alerts following a hit-and-run incident.

Question 107

Commands shall advertise vacancies for a minimum of ________ ________ days.

Answer 107

10 working days

Question 108

When a supervisor recommends denial of an employee’s salary adjustment, they shall prepare a ____________.

Answer 108

Memorandum

Question 109

Employees on 12 months probation will receive written appraisals at _______, _____, and ________.

Answer 109

4 months, 8 months, 12 months

Question 110

In order to use FMLA/CFRA leave, employees must have worked 12 months and at least _____ hours in the previous 12 months.

Answer 110

1,250

Question 111

Supervisors who accompany employees to medical appointments SHALL advise the physicians that _______ is the adjusting agent.

Answer 111

SCIF

Question 112

Sergeants and officers may earn up to ____ hours of CTO.

Answer 112

480

Question 113

A notice to AWOL employees will be sent to the employee’s last known place of residence. Service is effective _________ after the postmark date for addresses within California.

Answer 113

5 calendar days

Question 114

LC 4800.5 provides that uniformed employees who are temporarily disabled from a work-related injury or illness are to receive full salary for a period of up to _______.

Answer 114

one year

Question 115

Employees may be granted a maximum of _____ of work time to vote provided there is insufficient time to vote outside of working hours.

Answer 115

two hours

Question 116

Completion of the CHP 415 must occur within ______ of the end of each work shift.

Answer 116

a specified time frame

Question 117

Employees are to receive full salary for a period of up to _______.

Answer 117

one year ## Footnote HPM 10.3 20-5

Question 118

Employees may be granted a maximum of _____ of work time to vote provided there is insufficient time to vote outside of working hours.

Answer 118

two hours ## Footnote HPM 10.3 26-21

Question 119

Employees shall give at least __________ notice of the intent to take time off to vote.

Answer 119

two working days ## Footnote HPM 10.3 26-21

Question 120

Employees shall complete a CHP 415 within ______ of the end of each work shift.

Answer 120

24 hours ## Footnote HPM 10.3 28-15

Question 121

Employees shall forward all CHP 415s to the reviewing supervisor for approval or rejection within the next _______ period.

Answer 121

24 hour ## Footnote HPM 10.3 28-15

Question 122

T/F - Canine pay is a specialty pay for officers.

Answer 122

False ## Footnote It is a care and maintenance premium (HPM 10.3 32-12)

Question 123

Long-term U.S. military leave cannot exceed how many years?

Answer 123

5 ## Footnote HPM 10.3 8-17

Question 124

An employee serving a 12-month probationary period must work a minimum of _____________ during the 12-month period.

Answer 124

1,680 hours ## Footnote HPM 10.3 7-3

Question 125

What is considered short term military leave?

Answer 125

6 months ## Footnote 180 calendar days or less (HPM 10.3 8-14)

Question 126

An employee using FMLA/CFRA on an intermittent basis is not entitled to more than _____________________.

Answer 126

12 weeks ## Footnote (480 hours for a normal 40 hours a week) within a 12-month period (HPM 10.3 8-39)

Question 127

Are employees allowed to work overtime while on FMLA?

Answer 127

Overtime shall be allowed; outside the employee’s normal work shift, on an RDO, or at the commander’s discretion in order to meet the needs of the Department. ## Footnote However, if an employee is on an FMLA/CFRA leave for the employee’s own serious illness or injury, overtime shall not be allowed during that period of leave.

Question 128

Is an employee required to sign a CHP 2?

Answer 128

No ## Footnote Supervisor must sign and write 'refused to sign' (HPM 10.3 15-2)

Question 129

Uniformed employees who are on an approved leave of absence for over two years are required to complete ____________ before resuming field related duties.

Answer 129

Refresher or Reinstatement Training at the Academy ## Footnote HPM 10.3, 8-7

Question 130

Supervisors shall be responsible for providing an employee with the CHP 738 within _____ _____ days after the employee has submitted a request for an FMLA/CFRA leave.

Answer 130

Five business ## Footnote HPM 10.3 8-31

Question 131

Employees are prohibited from engaging in any secondary employment activity until they have received written approval from _____ _____ on a CHP 318.

Answer 131

Their Commander ## Footnote This shall apply to employees on vacation, and all leaves of absence with pay (except military leave). (HPM 10.3 14-4)

Question 132

Overtime will be credited on a ___________ basis.

Answer 132

one-quarter-hour ## Footnote With a full quarter hour credit to be granted if half or more of the period is worked (HPM 10.3, 24-4)

Question 133

For the purpose of assigning voluntary overtime details, uniformed employees shall not be considered available if the assignment would result in the employee working more than _______ hours in any 24-hour period.

Answer 133

16.5 ## Footnote HPM 10.3 Pg 24-7

Question 134

To ensure an employee has enough excess hours to use, the employee should maintain a balance of _______ hours.

Answer 134

16-40 hours ## Footnote When an employee’s plus excess hours balance exceeds 40 hours, the employee may be required to utilize excess hours to return to a balance of 40 hours (HPM 10.3 pg 28-18)

Question 135

What are the three phases of DUI detection?

Answer 135

Phase 1- Vehicle in motion * Phase 2- Personal contact * Phase 3- Pre arrest screening ## Footnote HPM 70.4 2-1

Question 136

A DS 367 or DS 367M _____ be completed for every subject arrested for DUI.

Answer 136

Shall ## Footnote (Sections 23152/23153 CVC), regardless of their BAC (HPM 70.4 4-4)

Question 137

When may officers include a charge of Section 273a(b) PC (child endangerment)?

Answer 137

Whenever a person is arrested for a violation of Section 23152 CVC and a person under 18 years of age is a passenger in the vehicle. ## Footnote HPM 70.4 4-7

Question 138

In cases in which a subject evades arrest and flees into a residence, are officers justified in entering the residence?

Answer 138

Yes ## Footnote HPM 70.4 4-10

Question 139

Implied Consent laws do/do not apply to DUI on a bike or scooter.

Answer 139

Do not ## Footnote HPM 70.4 5-3

Question 140

When will nonconsensual blood draws be performed when the suspect is suspected of being in violation of Section 23140 CVC?

Answer 140

When a traffic collision results in the death of a person and an arrest for felony vehicular manslaughter ## Footnote HPM 70.4 5-23

Question 141

What is required in order to conduct a nonconsensual blood draw?

Answer 141

- a valid search warrant, signed by the appropriate magistrate * or the exigent circumstances (beyond the mere dissipation of alcohol in the blood) ## Footnote HPM 70.4 5-19

Question 142

The arresting officer ______ obtain supervisory approval prior to the arrestee being physically compelled to submit to a blood draw.

Answer 142

Shall ## Footnote HPM 70.4 5-23

Question 143

The approving supervisor, if readily available, ______ be present during the procedure.

Answer 143

Should ## Footnote HPM 70.4 5-23

Question 144

Admin Per Se provisions only apply to ____ or _________; they do not apply to _________.

Answer 144

BAC levels or refusals * DUI of drugs ## Footnote HPM 70.4 6-5

Question 145

The original DS 367, the violator's California driver license (if available), and a copy of the breath test results must be forwarded to DMV within __________.

Answer 145

five business days ## Footnote HPM 70.4 6-6

Question 146

The PAS devices shall be checked for accuracy every _______ ___________ days or _____ tests, whichever occurs first.

Answer 146

10 CALENDAR days * 150 tests ## Footnote HPM 70.4 7-11

Question 147

Areas shall prepare operational plans for each checkpoint and submit them to Division at least _______ before the scheduled date of operation.

Answer 147

one week ## Footnote HPM 70.4 8-7

Question 148

Areas are required to provide a printed news release to the media _____ hours prior to the checkpoint operations.

Answer 148

48 hours ## Footnote Specific checkpoint locations shall not be released sooner than two hours prior to the checkpoint start time (HPM 70.4 8-13)

Question 149

Checkpoint operational plans shall be kept on file by the Area for a minimum period of __________, in the event they are needed for court cases.

Answer 149

two (2) years plus the current year ## Footnote HPM 70.4 8-8

Question 150

Sobriety/driver license checkpoint teams should normally operate for periods of __________.

Answer 150

four to six hours ## Footnote HPM 70.4 8-9

Question 151

At least ______ warning signs shall be used when setting up a sobriety checkpoint.

Answer 151

six ## Footnote HPM 70.4 8-15

Question 152

The team leader _____ monitor traffic to ensure that a back-up of vehicles does not occur.

Answer 152

Shall ## Footnote HPM 70.4 8-10

Question 153

The average time a vehicle spends in the lane should not normally exceed ________.

Answer 153

Three Minutes ## Footnote HPM 70.4 8-10

Question 154

At intervals of approximately __________, a vehicle should be selected and timed through the checkpoint lane.

Answer 154

Ten Minutes ## Footnote HPM 70.4 8-10

Question 155

What is the optimal screening time of each vehicle in a Sobriety/Driver License Checkpoint?

Answer 155

Optimally, screening should not take more than 30 seconds. ## Footnote HPM 70.4 8-10

Question 156

If the only offense at the checkpoint is 12500, the vehicle _______ be released to the registered owner.

Answer 156

Shall ## Footnote Provided they are a licensed driver, or to any licensed driver authorized by the registered owner to take possession of the vehicle (HPM 70.4 8-13)

Question 157

Which three FSTs should be used as primary FSTs, whenever possible?

Answer 157

HGN * Walk and Turn * One Leg Stand ## Footnote Due to their scientific validation, HPM 70.4 2-21

Question 158

What form must be provided to release an in custody individual for a misdemeanor DUI to a hospital?

Answer 158

CHP 103, Certificate of Release from Custody ## Footnote The officer shall provide the arrestee with a copy of the CHP 103 and file the original with the CHP 202.

Question 159

What are four incidents that meet the criteria of a Threshold Incident?

Answer 159

1) Any incident in which a member of the Department is seriously injured or killed during the performance of their duties. * 2) Any incident involving departmental personnel which results in serious injury, hospitalization, or death to a member of the public. * 3) When a member of the Department intentionally or by accident discharges a firearm at a person, whether on or off-duty, and whether or not an individual is struck. * 4) Any sensitive or complex internal investigation when the liability appears to be that of the Department. ## Footnote HPM 100.86 1-7

Question 160

Threshold Incidents require immediate notification to the Emergency Notification and Tactical Alert Center (ENTAC) within how many days?

Answer 160

seven calendar ## Footnote HPM 100.86, 2-3

Question 161

List examples of Nonthreshold PCL Incident.

Answer 161

1) Any incident involving a patrol vehicle collision which results in an ‘other visible’ and/or ‘complaint-of-pain’ injury to a party or parties, other than a member of the Department. * 2) Any incident involving the use of force by a member of the Department which results in an other visible and/or complaint-of-pain injury to a suspect or bystander. * 3) Any incident involving an other visible and/or complaint-of-pain injury from the use of handcuffs. * 4) When high-risk or felony stop procedures are used and the suspect(s) is/are later found to be an innocent party. * 5) An incident where a civilian slips and falls in the front lobby of an Area office and sustains an injury. * 6) When an innocent party’s vehicle runs over a spike strip. * 7) Any incident when there is damage caused by the push-bumper removal of a vehicle or equipment from the roadway. ## Footnote HPM 100.86 1-9

Question 162

A nonthreshold PCL requires the transmission of a completed CHP 268 by Area to the appropriate Division within ______________ days of the date of the incident.

Answer 162

seven calendar ## Footnote HPM 100.86, 2-3

Question 163

What is a CHP 275, when shall it be completed, and in what time frame?

Answer 163

275 is a Use of Force Form. ## Footnote It shall be completed for any incident in which a peace officer utilizes force to overcome physical resistance from an uncooperative civilian and shall be transmitted to Division within seven calendar days of the date of incident. HPM 100.86, 3-4

Question 164

The discharge of a firearm by a departmental peace officer _________ be reported utilizing the CHP 275.

Answer 164

Shall ## Footnote HPM 100.86 3-4

Question 165

All UOF incidents which result in injury to a civilian shall be documented on a ____________.

Answer 165

CHP 275 AND a CHP 268 ## Footnote HPM 100.86 3-4

Question 166

All materials/documents marked Preserved for Threshold Incidents shall be retained on a _______ litigation hold.

Answer 166

10 year ## Footnote Nonthreshold PCL Incidents shall be retained on a 5 year litigation hold (HPM 100.86, 2-5)

Question 167

What is defined as custody for the BCIA 713 reporting purpose?

Answer 167

Any point in time when a person’s freedom of movement has been denied by law enforcement. ## Footnote This includes during the process of arrest, death while attempting to elude police, and in-custody arrest being transported to or from law enforcement facilities. HPM 100.86 4-3

Question 168

All in-custody/arrest-related deaths shall be reported to the Office of Risk Management (ORM) within _______________ from the date of incident.

Answer 168

seven calendar days ## Footnote HPM 100.86 / 4-3

Question 169

Which reports are required for any incident involving a state vehicle being driven by a state driver which results in injury or property damage?

Answer 169

CHP 208 * STD. 270 * CHP 555 ## Footnote Time frames: CHP 208 and STD. 270 to Division within seven calendar days; CHP 555 same as CHP 208 or when completed (HPM 100.86 5-6)

Question 170

What incidents shall be recorded on a CHP 442?

Answer 170

Whenever an employee is involved in a collision or suffers an injury requiring the submission of a CHP 121 ## Footnote HPM 100.86 5-7

Question 171

What is the time frame for Division to be notified after an incident?

Answer 171

Within seven calendar days ## Footnote Refers to the requirement for reporting incidents according to CHP regulations.

Question 172

What form is used when an employee is involved in a collision or injury?

Answer 172

CHP 442 ## Footnote Necessary for documenting incidents involving employee collisions or injuries.

Question 173

What should be provided when an individual claims a loss of $1,000 or less?

Answer 173

CHP 287 ## Footnote A form that facilitates the claim process for minor losses.

Question 174

Who should carry the CHP 287 form to expedite the claim process?

Answer 174

Field supervisor ## Footnote Essential for ensuring claims are processed efficiently.

Question 175

What form must be completed in response to a CHP 287 submission?

Answer 175

CHP 268 ## Footnote Required for tracking the response to claims submitted.

Question 176

When should a 287 claim be expedited?

Answer 176

When a spike strip causes tire damage or when a departmental employee loses/damages personal property ## Footnote Highlights specific scenarios that warrant expedited claims.

Question 177

Pursuit reports should be completed within how many days from the date of the pursuit?

Answer 177

Seven calendar days ## Footnote Ensures timely documentation of pursuit incidents.

Question 178

Who is responsible for creating a pursuit report if an officer is outside their home command?

Answer 178

The involved officer's home command ## Footnote Clarifies reporting responsibilities in pursuit situations.

Question 179

Under what conditions should commands document minutes and mileage in a pursuit?

Answer 179

When the pursuit is within their geographical boundaries and they have at least one unit involved ## Footnote Important for tracking resources and accountability during pursuits.

Question 180

Fill in the blank: Pursuit reports shall be completed and routed to the respective Division within ________ days from the date of the pursuit.

Answer 180

seven calendar ## Footnote Emphasizes the importance of timely reporting.

Question 181

If involved in a multi-Agency pursuit, the CHP Area supervisor _______ remind the allied agency representative of their responsibility to submit a ___________.

Answer 181

Shall / CHP187A ## Footnote HPM 100.86, 7-7

Question 182

What are the conditions under which a Peace Officer owes a duty of care to the public?

Answer 182

* Places a person in peril * Affects or increases the risk of harm to a person by specific conduct * Creates a special relationship by making an expressed or implied promise to undertake specific conduct on behalf of an individual who detrimentally relies on that promise ## Footnote HPM 100.86, 8-3

Question 183

Upon request, employees __________ be given the opportunity to view their Blue team EIS dashboard with a supervisor.

Answer 183

Shall ## Footnote HPM 100.86, 9-9

Question 184

What are the four levels of organization framework for mutual aid within the state?

Answer 184

* Local (cities) * Operational areas (counties) * Regional (two or more counties) * State ## Footnote HPM 100.67 / 1-4

Question 185

Approval of __________ is required before committing CHP resources in response to a request for mutual aid.

Answer 185

the Commissioner or his/her designee ## Footnote HPM 100.67 1-5

Question 186

Prior to receiving approval to commit resources, _____________ may authorize mobilization of personnel.

Answer 186

Division chiefs ## Footnote HPM 100.67 1-7

Question 187

Except for _____ _____ _____ and _____ _____ _____; mutual aid, the CHP will not normally dedicate resources directly to city requests.

Answer 187

"officer needs assistance"; and "emergency traffic assistance" ## Footnote HPM 100.67 1-3

Question 188

In most cases, national parks are exclusive jurisdiction enclaves. Local or state law enforcement personnel are prohibited from assisting in mutual aid situations because of a_____________.

Answer 188

complete lack of authority ## Footnote HPM 100.67 1-12

Question 189

_________ is the primary back-up law enforcement agency for any city whose police department is involved in a job action.

Answer 189

The sheriff ## Footnote HPM 10.67 1-11

Question 190

The bordering state’s Fresh Pursuit Acts extend peace officer authority to officers from other states when in “fresh pursuit” of a ______________.

Answer 190

fleeing felon ## Footnote 100.67 5-1

Question 191

Departmental personnel shall not provide service or assistance to a city or county law enforcement agency involved in a job action unless authorized by:

Answer 191

* The Commissioner * Deputy Commissioner * Assistant Commissioner, Field * Assistant Commissioner, Staff ## Footnote HPM 100.67 1-8

Question 192

All assistance rendered voluntarily or in response to a request from an adjoining state shall be limited to that area within ____________ of any point along the common border.

Answer 192

50 statute miles ## Footnote HPM 100.67 4-4

Question 193

Whether in pursuit or for collision/investigative follow-up, supervisory approval _____ be obtained prior to entering the adjoining state.

Answer 193

should ## Footnote HPM 100.67 5-2

Question 194

Immunity claims need to be forwarded to AC field within __________.

Answer 194

48 hours ## Footnote HPM 100.67 Annex A

Question 195

T/F Routine enforcement of traffic violations (infractions) can be made outside the State of California.

Answer 195

False ## Footnote (prohibited) HPM 100.67 5-4

Question 196

Indian reservations and rancherias are to be considered exclusive jurisdiction with respect to civil matters, and neither the Department nor local government can ______________________.

Answer 196

* Cite for parking violations * Impose Administrative Per Se driver license sanctions * Enforce the “zero tolerance” minor driving-under-the-influence law * Enforce local ordinances ## Footnote HPM 100.67 6-6

Question 197

Officers should take appropriate enforcement action for all violations observed, regardless of claims of diplomatic or consular immunity alleged by violators. However, a person shall not be subjected to in-custody arrest when:

Answer 197

* Diplomatic or consular immunity is claimed by the individual or suspected by the officer * The officer has verified or reasonably suspects that the claim of immunity is valid ## Footnote HPM 100.67 8-3

Question 198

When may peace officers intervene despite immunity claims?

Answer 198

When necessary to prevent the endangerment of public safety or the commission of a serious crime ## Footnote HPM 100.67 8-4

Question 199

Diplomatic agents are afforded the highest levels of immunity. They ________ exempt from arrest or detention and ________ immune from all criminal prosecution by the host state.

Answer 199

Are / are ## Footnote HPM 100.67 8-4

Question 200

Uniformed employees must be guided by two key principles in the understanding and application of the use of force policy:

Answer 200

* Sound professional judgment * The use of only that force reasonable for the situation as provided by law and in conformance with departmental policy ## Footnote HPM 70.6 1-6

Question 201

What are the 7 force options?

Answer 201

* Control hold * OC Spray * PR-24 or ASP * Personal weapons * Electronic Control Device * Less Lethal * Deadly force ## Footnote HPM 70.6 1-6-1-9

Question 202

How often shall the contents of this chapter be reviewed by all uniformed employees at the rank of sergeant and below?

Answer 202

On a quarterly basis ## Footnote HPM 70.6 1-11

Question 203

It (would/would not) be appropriate for an officer to place his finger on the trigger while conducting a building search.

Answer 203

would ## Footnote HPM 70.6 2-4

Question 204

An officer (should/shall) report any off-duty accidental discharges of any firearm that (is/may be) carried concealed under the authority of California peace officer status.

Answer 204

Shall / may be ## Footnote HPM 70.6 2-10

Question 205

Vehicle Code Section 21055 grants exemptions to the operators of AEV when the vehicle displays a red light and siren during which conditions?

Answer 205

* In response to a Fire alarm * In the Immediate pursuit of an actual or suspected violator of the law * While engaged in Rescue operations * In response to an Emergency call ## Footnote 70.6 / 5-4

Question 206

Upon being notified of the pursuit, the supervisor should / shall immediately notify the communications center they are joining or monitoring the pursuit.

Answer 206

Shall ## Footnote HPM 70.6, 5-13

Question 207

What are the 6 Legal intervention/forcible stop options in a pursuit?

Answer 207

* Channelization * Use of Firearms * Roadblocks * Ramming * Boxing in * Spike Strip ## Footnote HPM 70.6, 5-10

Question 208

An officer SHALL discontinue a pursuit when directed by a supervisor. Under certain circumstances the officer SHOULD discontinue a pursuit. Such circumstances may include, but are not limited to:

Answer 208

* Risk outweighs the gain * An allied agency has been notified to discontinue their participation * Information about the suspect’s identity has developed * The pursued vehicle’s location is no longer definitely known ## Footnote HPM 70.6 5-18

Question 209

Legal intervention on a pursued vehicle may be undertaken only under the following circumstances:

Answer 209

* When the officer has reason to believe the continued movement of the pursued vehicle would place others in imminent danger of great bodily harm or death * When the apparent risk of harm to others is so great as to outweigh the apparent risk of harm involved in making the forcible stop ## Footnote

Question 210

Ramming ________ not occur when either the pursued vehicle or the pursuing vehicle is traveling in excess of ____ miles per hour (mph).

Answer 210

should / 35 MPH ## Footnote HPM 70.6 5-20

Question 211

How often shall the CHP 228, Pursuit Policy Attestation, be completed by all uniformed employees?

Answer 211

annually ## Footnote HPM 70.6 5-25

Question 212

Department policy requires patrol vehicle speedometers be calibrated every ___________________ using radar or a fifth wheel.

Answer 212

90 days or 30,000 miles ## Footnote HPM 70.6 7-7

Question 213

The speed obtained by radar is used only to verify the officer’s _______ ______ of the speed.

Answer 213

Visual estimate ## Footnote Officers must complete 24 hours of specialized training and 30 hours of field training before certification (70.6 / 7-7)

Question 214

Properly identified members of the news media (shall not / should not / shall / should) be restricted from entering locations where newsworthy events have occurred.

Answer 214

Should not ## Footnote 70.6 / 8-5

Question 215

A minimum of _____________________ should be used during felony stops.

Answer 215

three officers ## Footnote HPM 70.6 8-14

Question 216

What are the recommended distances for making felony stops using a PV? Using a motorcycle?

Answer 216

* Patrol vehicle = 30 feet * Motorcycle = 50 to 75 feet at a 45-degree angle ## Footnote HPM 70.6 8-26

Question 217

Officers shall not employ a roadblock except as permitted for the purpose of ____________ and/or ______________.

Answer 217

"major felony" apprehension / disaster relief ## Footnote HPM 70.6 16-1

Question 218

OC shall not be used at a distance__________ unless an extreme hazard exists to the officer or other person.

Answer 218

less than three feet ## Footnote HPM 70.6 26-2

Question 219

During the course of enforcement duties, all certified officers and sergeants (may, should, shall) carry the ECD if available.

Answer 219

shall ## Footnote Exceptions include attendance at funerals and court appearances (HPM 70.6 29-4)

Question 220

Taser deployment- A supervisor _________ respond.

Answer 220

should ## Footnote Pictures of the probe sites, drive stun sites, and any other injuries shall be taken (HPM 70.6 29-14)

Question 221

All ECDs utilized for on-duty carry shall be downloaded each month and an audit shall be conducted. Records shall be retained for how long?

Answer 221

the life of the ECD plus ten years ## Footnote Electronic records will suffice (HPM 70.6 29-14)

Question 222

How often shall uniformed employees at the rank of sergeant and below participate in an eight-hour Officer Safety Training (OST) day?

Answer 222

Annually ## Footnote HPM 70.6 17-3

Question 223

When a subject has been exposed to the ECD and is suspected to be under the influence of _____________, a true medical condition may exist.

Answer 223

stimulants ## Footnote HPM /70.6 29-11

Question 224

The FTEP program consists of a minimum of ___ hours of collaborative field training.

Answer 224

600 hours ## Footnote It is divided into 4 phases (10.11, page 1-3)

Question 225

How many Area FTEP coordinators must Areas have?

Answer 225

Each Area assigned a trainee shall provide an Area FTEP coordinator. If more than two trainees, an alternate coordinator is also required ## Footnote FTEP Coordinators and their alternates are Sergeants (10.11, 2-6)

Question 226

Each Area FTEP coordinator and alternate coordinator must successfully complete which courses?

Answer 226

* POST-certified Field Training Supervisor/Administrator/Coordinator (SAC) Course * 40-hour FTO Basic Course within one year ## Footnote HPM 10.11 2-6

Question 227

How many FTEP training cycles are there per year?

Answer 227

Usually four ## Footnote Reflective of cadet training classes (10.11; page 3-3)

Question 228

During phases I, II, & III, a trainee SHALL be provided with a minimum of ___ (hours) per phase.

Answer 228

187 hours ## Footnote Trainees SHALL have a minimum of 600 hours after four phases (HPM 10.11; page 3-4)

Question 229

What shall be covered during the first week of FTEP?

Answer 229

* Firearms qualifications * Impact weapons qualifications * Trainee demonstrated proficiency in arrest and control techniques ## Footnote (10.11; page 3-4)

Question 230

During Phase IV training, when should FTO’s intervene?

Answer 230

* Officer Safety * Illegal/Unethical Activity * Embarrassment to people, the department, or the FTO ## Footnote (10.11, page 3-5)

Question 231

What training must FTOs successfully complete?

Answer 231

* Field Training Officer Basic Course * Field Training Officer Update Module Courses every three years ## Footnote HPM 10.11, 4-6

Question 232

During Phase IV training, when should FTO’s intervene?

Answer 232

Officer Safety, Illegal/Unethical Activity, or Embarrassment to people, the department, or the FTO.

Question 233

What training must FTOs successfully complete?

Answer 233

Field Training Officer Basic Course and the Field Training Officer Update Module Courses every three years.

Question 234

The CHP 51WP shall be used only for correspondence between ________.

Answer 234

state agencies.

Question 235

If desired information cannot be furnished within _________ from the date of receipt, the correspondence shall be acknowledged with an interim response.

Answer 235

15 working days.

Question 236

The original of all correspondence shall be signed in ______ ink.

Answer 236

blue.

Question 237

Category 1 correspondence is prepared on a ____________, and shall be used for intradepartmental and interdepartmental correspondence.

Answer 237

CHP 51WP, Memorandum template.

Question 238

Category 2 correspondence is prepared on______________.

Answer 238

California Highway Patrol (CHP) letterhead.

Question 239

How many spaces shall be between the signature block and the complimentary close in a letter?

Answer 239

Four line spaces.

Question 240

The complimentary close shall be blocked two line spaces below the body of the correspondence, flush with the left margin. “___________” shall be used to close all departmental letters.

Answer 240

Sincerely.

Question 241

_______ shall be used for time-sensitive material.

Answer 241

OnTrac.

Question 242

True/False - Personal mail can be dispatched using departmental stationary, but not departmental postage.

Answer 242

False.

Question 243

Communications Network (Comm-Net) messages may also be used to establish policy for up to _______________.

Answer 243

90 calendar days.

Question 244

An Officer is considered on 'Long Term Assignment' after what period of time?

Answer 244

31 Days.

Question 245

When employees travel on a regular day off to a required court appearance, they may claim mileage from ______ to _______ and back ______.

Answer 245

Home, court, home.

Question 246

A headquarters shall be established for each employee and shall be defined as:

Answer 246

the place where an employee spends the largest portion of the employee’s working time.

Question 247

Employees shall submit their request for travel advance at least ____ _____ days prior to the first day of travel.

Answer 247

Two Business Days.

Question 248

Employees shall furnish original receipts when claiming reimbursement for any item of expense of $_____ or more.

Answer 248

$25.00.

Question 249

No per diem shall be allowed at any location within ______ of an employee’s headquarters.

Answer 249

50 miles.

Question 250

On the first day of travel on a trip of 24 hours or more: Breakfast may be claimed if the trip begins at or before _____ or ended after ________.

Answer 250

0600-0800 / 1100-1400.

Question 251

Represented employees may claim overtime meals when they are required to work the total number of hours in their regular shift and at least ____ hours immediately before or after a regularly scheduled work day.

Answer 251

Two.

Question 252

Privately-owned motorcycles or motor-driven cycles (are/are not) authorized as a means of transportation in the conduct of official state business.

Answer 252

are not.

Question 253

How much money is an officer entitled to during a short notice cancellation for a reimbursable services contract?

Answer 253

$50.

Question 254

When an individual claims to have suffered a loss $1,000 and under they shall be provided with a __________.

Answer 254

CHP 287.

Question 255

Areas shall review submitted claims (CHP 287) and prepare a ________.

Answer 255

CHP 268.

Question 256

An employee on ____________ or injury status is not considered unavailable for service.

Answer 256

Sick leave.

Question 257

If the immediate superior is tendered service of a subpoena less than ______________________ prior to the date of hearing, he/she may refuse acceptance.

Answer 257

Five working days.

Question 258

Public information from the arrest log includes the_____________________________.

Answer 258

name, date of birth, gender, and criminal charges.

Question 259

The office responsible for the processing of the PRA request shall send the Department’s written response to the requester no later than the close of business on the ______.

Answer 259

10th day.

Question 260

Labor Code Section 432.7 ________ law enforcement agencies from providing copies of arrest reports pertaining to employees who are not peace officers to the employing agency prior to conviction.

Answer 260

Prohibits.

Question 261

Labor Code Section 432.7 _________________ a law enforcement agency to request from or provide to another law enforcement agency, a copy of an arrest report pertaining to the arrest of a peace officer employee prior to conviction.

Answer 261

allows.

Question 262

Interior air shall not be heated above _____ nor cooled below _____.

Answer 262

68° / 78°.

Question 263

Completed CHP 735s shall be forwarded to Fiscal Management Section within ___________ days.

Answer 263

ten business.

Question 264

An X Number is a streamlined mechanism to quickly obtain simple services that have a total cost under $______ per state fiscal year.

Answer 264

$5,000.

Question 265

What is the current Per Diem daily rate, including all meals and incidentals?

Answer 265

Total $46.00.

Question 266

California Highway Patrol management administers contracts in ____ of the ____ bargaining units.

Answer 266

12 of the 21.

Question 267

The Department has the right to require an employee who has accrued Compensating Time Off (CTO) to burn off up to ___ hours of CTO.

Answer 267

480.

Question 268

Under the Dills Act, represented employees have the right to be represented by their exclusive representative regarding:

Answer 268

wages, hours, and other terms and conditions of employment.

Question 269

“Represented employee” means an employee who is not designated as ____, ____, ____, or ______ under the Dills Act.

Answer 269

supervisory, managerial, confidential, or excluded.

Question 270

What does POBR stand for?

Answer 270

Public Safety Officers’ Procedural Bill of Rights.

Question 271

If there is a conflict between departmental policy and the provisions of a negotiated contract (MOU), the ____________ shall be controlling.

Answer 271

Contract.

Question 272

Who are excluded employees?

Answer 272

Managerial employees, Confidential employees, Supervisory employees, Other excluded employees.

Question 273

The primary consideration when approving requests for the use of release time is?

Answer 273

The needs of the command.

Question 274

Who has the authority to deny a request for state release time?

Answer 274

An employee’s supervisor.

Question 275

When the representative has not been designated by an employee organization, is the employee and his representative entitled state release time for preparation?

Answer 275

No.

Question 276

Self-Representation. An employee who is representing themselves in a grievance or complaint ____________________ the right to state release time for preparation.

Answer 276

Does not have.

Question 277

What is the difference between a grievance and a complaint?

Answer 277

A grievance alleges a violation of the contract; a complaint settles disputes over policy or procedures.

Question 278

What are examples of represented employee grievances?

Answer 278

* Denial of representation during the grievance procedure * Denial of overtime compensation provided by the contract * Annual Performance Evaluations.

Question 279

Examples of represented employee complaints are:

Answer 279

* Allegation that an officer must work a graveyard shift alone * Denial of hardship transfer.

Question 280

The first step to initiate the grievance/complaint procedure is an informal discussion between the employee and the employee’s _________.

Answer 280

Immediate supervisor.

Question 281

Elements of a Formal Grievance/Complaint must include:

Answer 281

* Alleged violation * Statement of the problem * Proposed remedy.

Question 282

The first step to initiate the grievance/complaint procedure is an informal discussion between the employee and the employee’s _______.

Answer 282

Immediate supervisor ## Footnote Reference: HPM 9.1 7-5

Question 283

Elements of a Formal Grievance/Complaint must include which of the following?

Answer 283

* Alleged violation - specific provision or policy violated * Statement of the problem * Proposed remedy ## Footnote Reference: HPM 9.1 7-7

Question 284

Grievance records shall be retained at the affected command for a period of _____ year(s) following the date of the final action.

Answer 284

three ## Footnote Reference: HPM 9.1 7-12

Question 285

Complaint records shall be retained in the affected command for a period of _____ year(s) following the date of the final action.

Answer 285

one ## Footnote Reference: HPM 9.1 7-12

Question 286

True or False: At any time during the grievance process, the grievant may withdraw their complaint and refile the same complaint/grievance at a later date.

Answer 286

False ## Footnote A grievant may withdraw a grievance at any time; however, they shall not file a subsequent grievance on the same alleged incident or issue. Reference: HPM 9.1 8-6

Question 287

For Bargaining Unit 5 employees, a commander is obligated to meet-and-confer with a CAHP representative over the findings of a citizen’s complaint investigation if requested. This is known as __________________.

Answer 287

Informal Dispute Resolution (IDR) process ## Footnote Annual evaluations (CHP 118s) are excluded from this process. The purpose is to resolve disputes through an informal process at the lowest possible level. Reference: HPM 9.1, 11-4

Question 288

Specialty pay positions: .

Answer 288

*Pilot or flight officer positions *Investigator positions (Vehicle Theft Investigator or Fraud Investigator) *Motorcycle assignments *Bilingual assignments ## Footnote Additional examples include Investigator positions, Motorcycle assignments, and Bilingual positions. Reference: HPM 9.1 14-4

Question 289

Prior to removing an employee for cause from any specialty pay position, approval must be obtained from _______________.

Answer 289

the appropriate Assistant Commissioner ## Footnote HPM 9.1 14-4

Question 290

An employee removed from a specialty pay position is entitled to a(n)________________ if desired.

Answer 290

administrative hearing ## Footnote HPM 9.1 14-5

Question 291

Expressing support for a particular employee organization during a decertification election is an example of what?

Answer 291

Unfair Labor Practice ## Footnote HPM 9.1, 12-3

Question 292

For the substance test to be effective, each supervisor must ensure that:

Answer 292

* Reasonable suspicion is supported by proper documentation * Employee's rights are not violated * Sample is properly collected * Chain of custody is maintained ## Footnote HPM 9.2 1-3

Question 293

What are the “six Cs” of substance abuse?

Answer 293

* Consistency * Confirmation * Collection of sample * Chain of Custody * Control of Quality * Contracts ## Footnote HPM 9.2 1-4

Question 294

There are three constitutional issues when it comes to substance abuse testing:

Answer 294

* Fourth amendment - search and seizure * Fifth amendment - self-incrimination * Fourteenth amendment - due process ## Footnote HPM 9.2 2-3

Question 295

No state employee who is on duty or on standby for duty shall:

Answer 295

* Use, possess, or be under the influence of illegal or unauthorized drugs or other illegal mind-altering substances * Use or be under the influence of alcohol to any extent that would impede the employee's ability to perform their duties safely and effectively ## Footnote HPM 9.2 3-3

Question 296

The following departmental classifications have been designated and approved as _______________ positions:

Answer 296

* All peace officers * All cadets * Automobile Mechanic * Automotive Technician series * Commercial Vehicle Inspection Specialist I and II * Public Safety Dispatcher and Public Safety Operator * Public Safety Dispatch Supervisor I and II * Gunsmith * Heavy Truck Driver * Lead Automobile Mechanic * Lead Motorcycle Mechanic * Motor Carrier Specialist I, II and III * Motorcycle Mechanic * School Pupil Transportation Safety Coordinator ## Footnote HPM 9.2 4-3/4

Question 297

Can a supervisor require clerical personnel to submit to mandated substance testing if the supervisor has reasonable suspicion?

Answer 297

No ## Footnote HPM 9.2 5-3

Question 298

Reasonable suspicion exists only after the ____________________________ has also considered the facts and/or evidence.

Answer 298

confirming official ## Footnote HPM 9.2 6-3

Question 299

For the purposes of the Department’s substance testing program, the __________ ________ will be the first designated manager in the supervisor’s chain of command.

Answer 299

Confirming Official ## Footnote HPM 9.2 6-6

Question 300

A positive substance abuse test will result from a blood alcohol level of ____ percent.

Answer 300

.04 ## Footnote HPM 9.2 6-5

Question 301

Use of the PAS device to establish reasonable suspicion (is/ is not) authorized.

Answer 301

is not ## Footnote HPM 9.2 6-5

Question 302

California Department of Human Resources (CalHR) discontinued the practice of obtaining a ______ sample for alcohol testing.

Answer 302

urine ## Footnote HPM 9.2 / 7-3

Question 303

What kind of test should be used as the primary means of determining whether or not an employee has abused drugs?

Answer 303

urine ## Footnote HPM 9.2 7-3

Question 304

Employees refusing to cooperate at any stage of the collection process may/should/shall be ordered to cooperate.

Answer 304

Shall ## Footnote HPM 9.2 7-6

Question 305

The notification shall be emailed or faxed to OIA __________ hours after the specimen is collected.

Answer 305

no later than 48 hours ## Footnote HPM 9.2(7-7)

Question 306

If an employee tests positive for Marijuana and has a legitimate recommendation from a licensed physician, the MRO (will/ will not) consider marijuana to be a legal prescription.

Answer 306

will not ## Footnote HPM 9.2 7-8

Question 307

The employee is not entitled to representation during the testing process, but does have the right to have a representative assist him/her to ______________________.

Answer 307

Prepare a memorandum to the Medical Review Officer ## Footnote HPM 9.2 / 7-11-12

Question 308

In those instances where only alcohol is suspected, the employee should be returned to full duty the following day if ___________.

Answer 308

completely recovered from its effects ## Footnote HPM 9.2 8-4

Question 309

The supervisor who made the initial determination of reasonable suspicion must prepare a _________________________________.

Answer 309

Reasonable Suspicion Report using the CHP 202X ## Footnote HPM 9.2 11-3

Question 310

A Reasonable Suspicion Report ______________ be completed whenever a determination of reasonable suspicion of workplace substance abuse leads to substance testing.

Answer 310

Shall ## Footnote HPM 9.2 11-4

Question 311

To whom are EAP services available?

Answer 311

to all employees and their lawful spouses, unmarried dependent children, and registered domestic partners ## Footnote HPM 10.5 1-3

Question 312

Those seeking assistance are entitled to the number of sessions shown below for each unrelated problem type, per fiscal year:

Answer 312

* Excluded Employees = 7 * Bargaining Unit 5 and 7 Employees = 7 ## Footnote HPM 10.5 1-4

Question 313

No information on identity, diagnosis, or treatment will be disclosed to the Department, unless the individual accessing EAP services authorizes such a release in writing. Exceptions are when Magellan Healthcare is required by law to release information under the following circumstances:

Answer 313

* Crime * Abuse * Subpoenaed * Harm ## Footnote HPM 10.5 1-4

Question 314

EAP – Counseling Program. When an employee demonstrates substandard job performance and/or conduct, a commander or supervisor may consult with the EAP to discuss the appropriateness of the Management/Supervisor Referral Letter. Such a referral may be offered as a means by which an employee can _____ ___ _____; however, contact with the EAP by the employee remains _______.

Answer 314

Improve their performance / voluntary ## Footnote HPM 10.5 / 1-5

Question 315

A Peer Support Program (PSP) volunteer ____________ be found insubordinate for failure to divulge information obtained as a PSP volunteer under any administrative investigation of employee misconduct other than for ____________________.

Answer 315

cannot / criminal activities ## Footnote HPM 10.5 2-4

Question 316

The protection of confidentiality within the Department shall not apply to employee misconduct which constitutes __________.

Answer 316

criminal activity ## Footnote HPM 10.5 3-4

Question 317

The CIRT is available to respond at the request of the Division or Area commander, when an employee is killed in the line of duty to provide assistance to _________________.

Answer 317

the involved command and the employee’s family ## Footnote HPM 10.5 5-3

Question 318

With the exception of a __________________, an employee’s attendance during a Critical Incident Stress Debriefing session is voluntary.

Answer 318

Shooting incident ## Footnote HPM 10.5 6-3

Question 319

The Department further recognizes the potential for critical incident stress reactions to exist in officers who, in the performance of their duties, are involved in the following: _________________.

Answer 319

* Discharge of a firearm at a person, whether or not injury or death occurs * Are the target of an assailant’s discharged firearm, whether or not injury results ## Footnote HPM 10.5 6-4

Question 320

If the appointed debriefing counselor recommends that the employee should not return to work for a specific period of time, the involved employee may be granted up to________ of paid administrative time off.

Answer 320

five days ## Footnote HPM 10.5 6-4

Question 321

Supervisors are responsible for ensuring that reported unsafe or unhealthy conditions are documented on the ______________________________.

Answer 321

CHP 113B, Hazard Report/Inspection form. ## Footnote HPM 10.6 1-5

Question 322

Supervisors __________ investigate accidents, injuries, and exposures to determine whether or not unsafe work procedures or conditions were causative.

Answer 322

Shall ## Footnote HPM 10.6, 1-5

Question 323

The Command Occupational Safety Committee (COSC) shall meet at least __________ upon notification by the chairperson.

Answer 323

Quarterly ## Footnote HPM 10.6 2-8

Question 324

A newly-appointed Command Safety Coordinator (CSC) shall conduct a command self-inspection, within __________.

Answer 324

30 days of his/her appointment ## Footnote HPM 10.6 2-10

Question 325

An injury or illness which occurs during an employee’s temporary assignment shall be charged to the command where the employee is temporarily assigned UNLESS the assignment is for _____________.

Answer 325

control of civil disturbance ## Footnote HPM 10.6 3-9

Question 326

The Division of Occupational Safety and Health (DOSH), Compliance Office, may issue a complaint letter alleging an unsafe condition in the command. The command is required to investigate the alleged condition and respond to the DOSH, Compliance Office, in writing within _____________.

Answer 326

14 calendar days ## Footnote HPM 10.6 5-3

Question 327

All employees who frequently (how long) are required to drive on official business should/shall be trained in defensive driving techniques.

Answer 327

once a month or more, shall ## Footnote HPM 10.6 8-3

Question 328

Employees who infrequently (how long) drive on official business may operate a state or private vehicle for a limited period, provided they have successfully passed a road test as described in Paragraph 3.a.(4) above.

Answer 328

less than once a month ## Footnote HPM 10.6 8-4

Question 329

Uniformed employees will receive a minimum of _________ per year of commentary driver training.

Answer 329

one hour ## Footnote HPM 10.6 8-5

Question 330

If an employee sustains a serious or fatal injury involving a body part protected by PPE, the commander _____ ensure the equipment is preserved as evidence.

Answer 330

Shall ## Footnote HPM 10.6 10-3

Question 331

An injury or illness which requires more than first aid, may require more than one-time medical care, and the employee is able to return to work following the date of the injury or illness is an example of what type of injury?

Answer 331

Non-disabling injury ## Footnote HPM 10.7 1-2

Question 332

Employee sustains an injury or illness during working hours and is incapable of reporting to work for his/her next scheduled work shift due to the injury or illness. This is an example of what type of injury?

Answer 332

Disabling injury ## Footnote HPM 10.7 1-2

Question 333

What is the difference between a “recurrence” injury and an “aggravation” injury?

Answer 333

* A recurrence of an injury or illness does not have a new, clearly defined incident * An aggravation of an injury or illness has an identifiable new incident ## Footnote HPM 10.7 1-3

Question 334

Commanders shall revoke a uniformed member’s peace officer powers and secure all state-issued firearms whenever the uniformed employee is off duty as a result of a:

Answer 334

psychological reason, to include stress ## Footnote HPM 10.7 2-4

Question 335

Commanders or their designees _____ contact SCIF at least _______ to review the status of those cases in which employees have been placed off duty.

Answer 335

Shall / Monthly ## Footnote HPM 10.7 Ch. 2-6

Question 336

Supervisors, if practical, _________ accompany employees to their initial medical appointments.

Answer 336

shall ## Footnote HPM 10.7, 2-8

Question 337

The CHP 121D submitted to Division ______ contain information on employees who are assigned to limited duty or are off duty for ____________________________; however, it ______ contain information on employees who are assigned to limited duty or are off duty for ________________.

Answer 337

* May, less than 30 Calendar Days * Shall, 30 Calendar Days or More ## Footnote HPM 10.7, 2-7

Question 338

Employees who are off duty as a result of occupational injuries and illnesses ______ be assigned to their residence, with an assigned work shift of 0800 hours to 1700 hours, Monday through Friday.

Answer 338

shall ## Footnote HPM 10.7

Question 339

Employees who are off duty for _____________________________.

Answer 339

occupational injuries and illnesses ## Footnote This includes employees assigned to limited duty or off duty due to occupational injuries or illnesses.

Question 340

Employees off duty due to occupational injuries and illnesses shall be assigned to their residence with a work shift of __________.

Answer 340

0800 hours to 1700 hours, Monday through Friday ## Footnote This is in accordance with HPM 10.7 2-9.

Question 341

Within ________ of reporting a __________ of an injury or illness, the employee shall prepare a CHP 51.

Answer 341

24 hours / recurrence ## Footnote This is specified in HPM 10.7, 3-5.

Question 342

The CHP 121 shall be completed by the employee's supervisor within _____.

Answer 342

24 hours ## Footnote The CHP 121 must be filed within 5 days and the employee’s 442 updated within 3 days.

Question 343

As soon as possible after notification of a non-disabling injury or illness, the supervisor shall provide the employee's medical care provider a _______.

Answer 343

CHP 443 ## Footnote This is outlined in HPM 10.7, 5-5.

Question 344

While on limited duty, employees shall not:

Answer 344

* Wear a uniform * Operate an enforcement vehicle * Display a badge ## Footnote These restrictions are stated in HPM 10.7 8-4.

Question 345

The duration of the limited duty assignment shall not exceed __________.

Answer 345

two years ## Footnote This is directed by the nature of the injury or illness and the needs of the Department.

Question 346

Commanders may authorize limited duty assignments of ___________.

Answer 346

less than one year ## Footnote Extensions beyond one year require authorization from the appropriate Commissioner.

Question 347

Employees returning from limited duty of less than one year shall be retrained and recertified at ___________.

Answer 347

their currently assigned commands ## Footnote Different requirements apply for absences of more than one year and two years.

Question 348

The participation of CHP employees in job actions is _________.

Answer 348

Incompatible ## Footnote This refers to work slowdowns, strikes, and similar actions.

Question 349

If a job action has been announced, the use of the State facility is _______.

Answer 349

Prohibited ## Footnote Employees shall not use State facilities to promote strikes or other concerted activities.

Question 350

The two types of strikes are ____________ and _____________.

Answer 350

Statewide and Wildcat ## Footnote Wildcat strikes are those that are less than statewide.

Question 351

Each employee suspected of participating in a strike _______ be interrogated by a supervisor.

Answer 351

Shall ## Footnote This can occur during or after the strike has concluded.

Question 352

If employees fail to provide required medical substantiation during a sick out, they will be _____ for the period of absence.

Answer 352

Docked ## Footnote This does not preclude adverse action.

Question 353

If employees fail to notify the CHP that they are striking, they will be considered __________.

Answer 353

AWOL ## Footnote This is outlined in HPM 10.8 2-2.

Question 354

Continued unsatisfactory performance may result in administrative action which may include:

Answer 354

* rejection during the probationary period * removal from a specialized assignment * adverse action ## Footnote This is mentioned in HPM 10.10 1-4.

Question 355

The CHP 100 is primarily intended to serve as a tool to promote ________________.

Answer 355

personal growth ## Footnote It is also aimed at enhancing performance.

Question 356

Probationary reports shall be completed within ________ of the end of 4 months, 8 months, and 12 months.

Answer 356

10 days ## Footnote These reports must be submitted to HRS, Personnel Files Services.

Question 357

Two rating categories for substandard performance on the CHP 100 are _________ and _______.

Answer 357

Needs Improvement / Deficient ## Footnote This helps in officer development.

Question 358

When interim reporting is initiated, the rater shall assign a rating of Deficient to the applicable critical task(s) on the CHP 118 and prepare ______.

Answer 358

a plan of action ## Footnote This is necessary to correct the deficiency.

Question 359

The pillars of community outreach are _____ _____ and ______.

Answer 359

community partnerships and problem solving ## Footnote This is part of HPM 22.8 1-4.

Question 360

What are the principles of community outreach?

Answer 360

* Responsibility * Public Support * Communication * Problem-Solving * Identification of Traffic Safety Problems ## Footnote These principles are outlined in HPM 22.8, page 1-5 to 1-6.

Question 361

What are the five applications that can be used to impact potential problems?

Answer 361

* Enforcement * Education * Engineering * Expectations * Partnerships ## Footnote These applications are stated in HPM 22.8 1-7.

Question 362

Community outreach can develop trust with residents on three levels. What are they?

Answer 362

* Formally * Working level * Informally ## Footnote These levels are described in HPM 22.8, page 1-9.

Question 363

CHP 320 shall be prepared and retained at the Area for a period of ___ ____. Area shall forward a copy of the CHP 320 each quarter to Division no later than the ____ of the month following the quarter.

Answer 363

One year / 10th ## Footnote This is specified in HPM 22.8 1-13.

Question 364

Community members should be surveyed at least ______________ to ascertain where they perceive traffic safety can be improved.

Answer 364

Once each year ## Footnote This is part of community outreach efforts.

Question 365

What is the most widely used problem-solving process in law enforcement?

Answer 365

SARA ## Footnote This stands for scanning, analysis, response, and assessment model.

Question 366

_________ is a general term which describes the activities used to manage the image of the California Highway Patrol.

Answer 366

Public relations ## Footnote This is related to accomplishing the departmental mission and goals.

Question 367

Who is responsible for pursuing an effective public relations program?

Answer 367

Every employee, at every level ## Footnote This includes both uniformed and nonuniformed employees.

Question 368

Departmental employees are not to wear an approved CHP uniform while off duty without the permission of the _______________________.

Answer 368

Office of the Commissioner ## Footnote This is to maintain the integrity of the uniform.

Question 369

How many hours of mentoring leave can an eligible employee receive per calendar year?

Answer 369

40 hours ## Footnote Employees must use an equal amount of personal time for the activities.

Question 370

T/F - Official CHP insignia decals will remain the property of the CHP.

Answer 370

True. ## Footnote CHP reserves the right to confiscate and remove decals used in a negative manner.

Question 371

What groups are protected by law against employment discrimination?

Answer 371

* Age (40 and above) * Ancestry * Color * Disability (physical and mental, including HIV and AIDS) * Gender, Gender Identity, and Gender Expression * Genetic Information * Marital Status * Medical Condition (cancer and genetic characteristics) * Military and Veteran Status * National Origin (includes language use restrictions) * Political Affiliation * Race * Religion (includes religious dress and grooming practices) * Retaliation * Sex (includes pregnancy, childbirth, breastfeeding, related medical conditions, and sexual harassment) * Sexual Orientation. ## Footnote HPM 10.12 2-3

Question 372

Harassment is defined as conduct which is ________, _________, ________ conduct perpetuated by an individual’s status in a protected group.

Answer 372

pervasive, persistent, unwelcome ## Footnote Harassment becomes illegal when it conditions employment or is severe enough to be hostile.

Question 373

What standard is used to measure the severity of harassment?

Answer 373

reasonable person standard. ## Footnote HPM 10.12 2-4

Question 374

Sexual harassment is defined as unsolicited and unwelcome sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, and other conduct of a sexual nature when:

Answer 374

* Submission is made as a term or condition of employment * Submission to or rejection of such conduct is used as the basis for employment decisions. ## Footnote HPM 10.12 3-4

Question 375

Courts recognize two types of sexual harassment under federal and state law. These include ______ and ______.

Answer 375

quid pro quo (this for that), hostile work environment. ## Footnote HPM 10.12 3-5

Question 376

If the manager knows of harassment and fails to act, the Department ______ held liable.

Answer 376

maybe. ## Footnote HPM 10.12, 3-5/6

Question 377

Supervisors must receive sexual harassment prevention training within ________ of their promotion and _________ thereafter.

Answer 377

six months, every two years. ## Footnote HPM 10.12, 3-7

Question 378

Employees who feel they are victims of sexual harassment are encouraged to inform the individual their behavior is unwelcome, but they are/are not required to do so.

Answer 378

are not. ## Footnote HPM 10.12 3-7

Question 379

Three criteria must exist for conduct to create a hostile work environment based on sexual harassment. These are:

Answer 379

* The behavior must be of a sexual nature * The behavior must be unwelcome * The behavior must be severe or pervasive enough to create a hostile environment. ## Footnote HPM 10.12 3-8 /3-9

Question 380

Can a third-party file a complaint of sexual harassment if the behavior is not directed towards them?

Answer 380

Yes. ## Footnote Based on a hostile environment (HPM 10.12 3-11)

Question 381

For the purposes of reasonable accommodation, a person with a disability is someone who?

Answer 381

* Has a physical or mental impairment that limits major life activities * Has a record of such impairment * Is regarded as having such an impairment. ## Footnote HPM 10.12, 4-7/8

Question 382

Time Frames for Externally-Filed Discrimination Complaints: Federal EEOC must be filed within ______ days.

Answer 382

300 days. ## Footnote HPM 10.12 6-14/4-15

Question 383

What is the departmental internal discrimination complaint process available to?

Answer 383

departmental employees, including cadets. ## Footnote HPM 10.12 Ch.6-16

Question 384

The complainant has __________ months from the last incident to contact an EEO counselor regarding discrimination-related issues.

Answer 384

11 months. ## Footnote HPM 10.12 6-16

Question 385

A complainant not satisfied with the EEO counselor’s inquiry may file a discrimination complaint with the Division chief within __________ days.

Answer 385

ten working days. ## Footnote HPM 10.12 6-20

Question 386

To establish a prima facie case of retaliation, an employee must show:

Answer 386

* Engaged in a protected activity * Subjected to an adverse action * A causal link exists. ## Footnote HPM 10.12 8-3

Question 387

The CHP 415 must be completed by each affected officer within ___________ of the end of each work shift.

Answer 387

24 hours. ## Footnote HPM 40.71, 1-3

Question 388

Officers whose regular assigned work shift includes ____ or more hours between 1800 and 0100 are entitled to Evening Shift Differential pay.

Answer 388

4. ## Footnote HPM 40.71, 1-6

Question 389

Field Sergeant/Officer-In-Charge is responsible for the supervision of officers assigned to field duties. Only actual time spent performing supervisory duties is to be reported as Beat _________.

Answer 389

Beat 822. ## Footnote HPM 40.71 Pg 2-10

Question 390

The purpose of the Department’s ______ ______ _______ is to establish a credible process allowing commanders to identify and solve problems before they become critical issues.

Answer 390

Command Inspections Program (CIP). ## Footnote HPM 22.1 1-3

Question 391

An audit is an evaluation which provides an assessment performed by whom?

Answer 391

a trained auditor. ## Footnote HPM 22.1 1-4

Question 392

What is an inspection and who can conduct it?

Answer 392

A process for analyzing a command that can be conducted by any member of the Department. ## Footnote HPM 22.1 1-4

Question 393

A minimum of ______ chapter inspections will be conducted each calendar year.

Answer 393

Two. ## Footnote HPM 22.1 1-6

Question 394

Prior to any inspection, the command should receive ______ notice.

Answer 394

30 days. ## Footnote HPM 22.1 1-8/9

Question 395

When entering the evidence/property room for inspections, there shall be at least ___ employees present.

Answer 395

Two. ## Footnote HPM 22.1 2-3

Question 396

Verify all unclaimed property of value has been picked up after it has been held for ______ days.

Answer 396

90 days. ## Footnote HPM 22.1, 2-4

Question 397

Periodic inspections ensure the integrity of the evidence/property system. At least __ percent of the items shall be inspected.

Answer 397

10 percent. ## Footnote HPM 22.1 CH. 2-4

Question 398

What percentage of items must be inspected if discrepancies are revealed?

Answer 398

20 percent, or a minimum of 20 items ## Footnote At least ten additional items shall be inspected if discrepancies are found.

Question 399

An inventory is a survey of ___ percent of the items held in the evidence/property system.

Answer 399

100 ## Footnote Conducted to ensure the integrity of the evidence/property system.

Question 400

Inventories shall be conducted _______ and/or whenever an inspection reveals excessive discrepancies.

Answer 400

Annually ## Footnote Ensures regular checks on the evidence/property system.

Question 401

What information must a security log record when someone enters the evidence/property room?

Answer 401

Name and identification number of the person entering, as well as the date, time, and reason for entry ## Footnote Maintains accountability for access to evidence.

Question 402

The number of keys to the property room shall be limited to how many?

Answer 402

The number of evidence officers assigned to the command plus the commander’s emergency access key ## Footnote Limits access to maintain security.

Question 403

The evidence officer should not be an active _________ or ___________ involved in collecting evidence in the field.

Answer 403

Field Officer / Investigator ## Footnote Prevents conflict of interest.

Question 404

Pass-through-type temporary lockers shall be secured from the inside to prevent entry. Evidence may be left in these lockers for no more than _______.

Answer 404

one day ## Footnote Unless on a weekend or holiday.

Question 405

Change funds over $_______ and petty cash funds over $_____ are stored in a locked, metal cash box.

Answer 405

$100 / $200 ## Footnote Ensures secure storage of cash funds.

Question 406

Supervisors and managers are required to have all employees initial and sign a _____ during the employee’s annual appraisal/review.

Answer 406

CHP 237A ## Footnote Related to Sexual Harassment Prevention and Discrimination Policy.

Question 407

True/False: Employees shall have a primary firearm immediately available while traveling in a marked enforcement vehicle.

Answer 407

True ## Footnote Required regardless of destination or attire.

Question 408

When entering a jail facility, what shall you do with your gun before securing it?

Answer 408

Remove the magazine(s) from the pistol(s) ## Footnote The round in the chamber(s) shall be left in that position.

Question 409

Where are you permitted to dry fire your gun while at CHP Facilities?

Answer 409

At a clearing tube ## Footnote Firearms shall not be drawn, loaded, unloaded, or dry fired elsewhere.

Question 410

Examples of Finger ON Trigger include situations where a suspect refuses to show their hands or follow instructions during a felony stop. Name one other example.

Answer 410

While conducting a building search, a suspect is located but refuses to come out from concealment ## Footnote Indicates heightened threat levels.

Question 411

Examples of Finger NOT on Trigger include officers behind cover during felony stop procedures. Name one other example.

Answer 411

During a foot pursuit when the firearm has been removed from the holster ## Footnote Indicates reduced threat levels.

Question 412

The primary firearm shall be fired monthly by all uniformed employees. At least _____ of the monthly shoots should be conducted during the hours of darkness.

Answer 412

Two ## Footnote Ensures proficiency in various conditions.

Question 413

How often shall the primary firearm, shotgun, and tactical rifle be shot?

Answer 413

Primary firearm monthly, shotgun quarterly, rifle quarterly ## Footnote Employees must qualify annually on each weapon.

Question 414

An employee shall not expend over _____ rounds in any single training session.

Answer 414

100 ## Footnote With the Area commander’s approval, additional rounds may be fired.

Question 415

Employees who fail to meet the minimum qualification during weapons qualification requirements _____ be placed on _________ ________.

Answer 415

Shall / Interim Reporting ## Footnote Ensures accountability for training standards.

Question 416

Each command shall have at least _ weapons inspection officers and _ range officers.

Answer 416

2 / 2 ## Footnote Ensures proper oversight of weapon handling.

Question 417

While on duty, uniformed employees are required to carry a minimum of ____ fully loaded magazines.

Answer 417

3 ## Footnote Ensures readiness during patrol.

Question 418

How many Departmental pistol inspections are required annually?

Answer 418

Two inspections ## Footnote Includes a complete inspection during the employee’s annual performance appraisal.

Question 419

Employees shall thoroughly clean their primary firearm after being fired during any training session and shall inspect it at least ______________.

Answer 419

once each week ## Footnote Ensures proper maintenance of weapons.

Question 420

How shall a less-lethal shotgun be carried during a tour of duty?

Answer 420

Shall be carried with the chamber and magazine tube empty ## Footnote Loaded with approved kinetic energy munitions.

Question 421

The _____, ______ and ______ shall be distinctly colored orange on a less-lethal shotgun.

Answer 421

Fore-end, Stock, and Sling ## Footnote Enhances visibility to distinguish from lethal firearms.

Question 422

After initial qualification, employees assigned to carry the less-lethal shotgun shall be required to shoot a minimum of ________ annually.

Answer 422

two rounds ## Footnote Ensures ongoing proficiency.

Question 423

What are the four types of uniforms authorized for wear by uniformed employees of the California Highway Patrol (CHP)?

Answer 423

* Formal Uniform * Utility Uniform * Cold Weather Uniform * Work Uniform ## Footnote Different uniforms for varying duties and conditions.

Question 424

The mock dickey _______ be worn under the short-sleeve shirt without a jacket.

Answer 424

may ## Footnote Allows for flexibility in uniform appearance.

Question 425

If an undergarment is worn and visible with the tan work uniform, it shall be _____ in color.

Answer 425

white ## Footnote Ensures uniformity in appearance.

Question 426

True/False: When a jacket is worn with the utility uniform, either the mock turtleneck or mock dickey is required.

Answer 426

True ## Footnote Maintains a professional appearance.

Question 427

When performing patrol duties, uniformed employees operating a patrol car shall keep the campaign hat _____________________________.

Answer 427

readily available within the vehicle ## Footnote Ensures compliance with uniform standards.

Question 428

Special pins authorized for short-term wear are to be worn only during a specified time period and in the manner designated by the ______.

Answer 428

Commissioner ## Footnote Ensures proper representation of honors.

Question 429

Left pocket flap is reserved solely for what accoutrements?

Answer 429

Medal of Valor, Officer of the Year, US Flag, Military Flag Pin, or other special pin ## Footnote Maintains the significance of awards.

Question 430

Right Pocket. No more than _______ accoutrements shall be placed on the right pocket flap.

Answer 430

Three ## Footnote Organized in order starting from the inside.

Question 431

Moderate “natural” and other hair styles are permitted if conforming with the hair standards described above; however, the maximum extension from the scalp shall not exceed _______.

Answer 431

two inches ## Footnote Ensures professionalism in appearance.

Question 432

What are the requirements for wearing sideburns?

Answer 432

Not extend below the bottom of the ear, end with a clean-shaven horizontal line, maximum width at the bottom shall not exceed 1-1/2 inches ## Footnote Maintains uniformity in appearance.

Question 433

What are the requirements of a mustache?

Answer 433

Must not extend more than 1/2 inch beyond the corners of the mouth nor below the vermillion border of the upper lip ## Footnote Waxed ends or points are prohibited.

Question 434

What jewelry may be worn in uniform by male uniformed employees?

Answer 434

* Medical or identification bracelets * A total of two conservative rings ## Footnote Maintains professionalism while on duty.

Question 435

The following jewelry may be worn by female uniformed employees: 1) Medical or identification bracelets. 2) A total of two conservative rings. What is an additional item allowed in civilian attire?

Answer 435

Earrings: one in each earlobe, stud-type only ## Footnote Ensures uniformity and professionalism.

Question 436

Soft body armor shall be worn by?

Answer 436

* All personnel assigned to field enforcement duties * All personnel who operate a marked patrol vehicle in uniform * All personnel participating in “live-fire” weapons training ## Footnote Ensures safety during high-risk activities.

Question 437

Soft body armor shall be replaced within _________ from the date of manufacture.

Answer 437

5 years ## Footnote Ensures effectiveness of protective gear.

Question 438

Solid-colored socks, without design, in either_______, _______, or_____, shall be worn any time the socks are visible.

Answer 438

* royal blue * navy blue * black ## Footnote Maintains uniform appearance.

Question 439

All uniformed employees at the rank of ____________ shall carry the Department-issued aerosol projector on the duty belt.

Answer 439

Captain and below ## Footnote Ensures all personnel have access to non-lethal options.

Question 440

When performing patrol duties, all uniformed employees _____ maintain a serviceable Department-issued High-visibility Reflective Safety Vest (HRSV) readily available within their patrol vehicle.

Answer 440

shall ## Footnote Enhances visibility for safety.

Question 441

The knit cap (beanie) may be worn only in designated cold weather Areas and only with the _____ _____ uniform.

Answer 441

cold weather ## Footnote Ensures appropriate uniform for conditions.

Question 442

Wearing sunglasses or eyeglasses on top of the head is _________.

Answer 442

prohibited ## Footnote Maintains a professional appearance.

Question 443

A Uniform and Equipment Inspection shall be conducted _________ at every Area command.

Answer 443

annually ## Footnote Includes commercial vehicle inspection facilities and headquarters commands.

Question 444

What is the job of the sergeant in charge during the uniform inspection?

Answer 444

Shall accompany the inspecting officer and take notes on appropriate items ## Footnote Ensures thorough documentation of the inspection.

Question 445

CAHP has the right to represent its members regarding what aspects?

Answer 445

* wages * hours * other terms and conditions of employment ## Footnote Ensures representation in employment matters.

Question 446

With an employee's_______________, an authorized CAHP Representative shall be permitted to inspect the employee's official Department personnel file.

Answer 446

written consent ## Footnote Allows for transparency in employee records.

Question 447

A grievance is a dispute involving the _____, _____, or _____ of the express terms of this Agreement.

Answer 447

* Interpretation * application * enforcement ## Footnote Defines the scope of grievances.

Question 448

An employee grievance or complaint initially shall be discussed with ___________________.

Answer 448

the immediate supervisor ## Footnote Must occur within a specified timeframe after the incident.

Question 449

What is a grievance?

Answer 449

A dispute of one or more employees, or a dispute between the State and CAHP involving the *interpretation*, *application*, or *enforcement* of the express terms of this Agreement. ## Footnote MOU pg. 8

Question 450

Who should an employee discuss their grievance with initially?

Answer 450

The employee's immediate supervisor ## Footnote MOU pg. 9

Question 451

Within how many days must an employee discuss their grievance after the event?

Answer 451

21 calendar days ## Footnote MOU pg. 9

Question 452

How many days does the immediate supervisor have to respond to the grievance discussion?

Answer 452

Seven calendar days ## Footnote MOU pg. 9

Question 453

What is the time frame to file a formal grievance at Level I after the event?

Answer 453

Twenty-one calendar days ## Footnote MOU pg. 9

Question 454

What is the time frame to respond to a formal grievance at Level I?

Answer 454

14 calendar days ## Footnote MOU pg. 9

Question 455

What is the response time for Level II grievance appeals?

Answer 455

21 calendar days ## Footnote MOU pg. 9

Question 456

What is the time frame to appeal a Level II grievance decision?

Answer 456

14 calendar days ## Footnote MOU pg. 9

Question 457

What is the final step in the formal complaint process?

Answer 457

Level III grievance process ## Footnote MOU pg. 10

Question 458

How long does a grievant have to appeal a Level III decision?

Answer 458

14 calendar days ## Footnote MOU pg. 10

Question 459

What is the time frame for the Director of DPA to respond to a Level IV grievance?

Answer 459

45 calendar days ## Footnote MOU pg. 10

Question 460

How many days does CAHP have to appeal to binding arbitration after Level IV?

Answer 460

30 calendar days ## Footnote MOU pg. 10

Question 461

What is a complaint in this context?

Answer 461

A dispute between one or more employees or between the CAHP and the Department involving the application or interpretation of an existing *written rule* or *policy*. ## Footnote MOU pg. 11

Question 462

When must an employee's complaint be discussed with their immediate supervisor?

Answer 462

Within 21 calendar days of the event ## Footnote MOU pg. 12

Question 463

What is the time limit to file a formal complaint at Level I?

Answer 463

21 calendar days or 7 calendar days after the informal decision, whichever is later ## Footnote MOU pg. 12

Question 464

What is the response time for a Level I formal complaint?

Answer 464

14 calendar days ## Footnote MOU pg. 12

Question 465

What is the time frame to appeal a Level I decision?

Answer 465

14 calendar days ## Footnote MOU pg. 12

Question 466

What is the last step for appealing a Level II decision?

Answer 466

14 calendar days to the Office of the Commissioner ## Footnote MOU pg. 13

Question 467

How many days do employees have to appeal minor discipline actions?

Answer 467

10 calendar days ## Footnote MOU pg. 14

Question 468

What does IDR stand for?

Answer 468

IDR stands for *informal dispute resolution* ## Footnote MOU pg. 15

Question 469

What is the time frame for an employee to request a Level I IDR?

Answer 469

Within 21 calendar days of the issuance of written comments ## Footnote MOU pg. 16

Question 470

What is the response time for Level I IDR?

Answer 470

21 calendar days ## Footnote MOU pg. 16

Question 471

What is the time frame for a Level II IDR request?

Answer 471

Within 21 calendar days of the Level I decision ## Footnote MOU pg. 16

Question 472

What is the time frame for a Level III IDR request?

Answer 472

Within 21 calendar days of the Division Commander’s decision ## Footnote MOU pg. 17

Question 473

What is the swing shift pay differential amount?

Answer 473

$1.00 per hour ## Footnote MOU pg. 22

Question 474

What hours qualify for a graveyard shift differential?

Answer 474

2300 and 0600 hours ## Footnote MOU pg. 22

Question 475

What is the maximum number of hours for CTO carryover?

Answer 475

480 hours ## Footnote MOU pg. 24

Question 476

What is the compensation for travel time to work location?

Answer 476

One and one-half hours each way ## Footnote MOU pg. 25

Question 477

How many hours of overtime is provided for answering a telephonic subpoena?

Answer 477

2 hours ## Footnote MOU pg. 26

Question 478

What is the maximum vacation hour carryover to the following year?

Answer 478

816 hours ## Footnote MOU pg. 40

Question 479

What is the maximum amount of sick leave credit an employee may accumulate?

Answer 479

There is no limit. ## Footnote (MOU page 40)

Question 480

Verification of reason for sick leave usage may be required after the ______ consecutive day of sick leave usage.

Answer 480

Second ## Footnote (MOU page 41)

Question 481

Absence from duty for attendance upon the employee's ill or injured family member is limited up to how long?

Answer 481

48 hours during any one calendar year ## Footnote (MOU)

Question 482

Bereavement leave with pay is authorized for the death of immediate family members for up to how many days?

Answer 482

Three eight-hour days per occurrence ## Footnote (MOU)

Question 483

Bereavement leave for the death of extended family members is authorized for up to how many days in a fiscal year?

Answer 483

Three (3) eight-hour days ## Footnote (MOU)

Question 484

If the death requires travel over ______ miles one way, additional time off with pay shall be granted.

Answer 484

400 ## Footnote (MOU Page 44)

Question 485

Eligible employees may receive up to ___ hours of mentoring leave per calendar year.

Answer 485

Forty (40) hours ## Footnote (MOU Page 45)

Question 486

Recruitment time off must be used within what time frame?

Answer 486

Within one year of the date in which it was earned ## Footnote (MOU page 49)

Question 487

An employee must work an additional ____________ for each overtime meal after qualifying for the first overtime meal.

Answer 487

Six hours ## Footnote (MOU page 60)

Question 488

No more than __________ overtime meals may be claimed for each 24-hour period.

Answer 488

Three ## Footnote (MOU page 60)

Question 489

The Department shall not initiate an ________________ against an employee for the loss or damage of issued equipment.

Answer 489

Adverse action ## Footnote (MOU page 67)

Question 490

Is the odor of alcohol or marijuana on an employee’s breath/person enough to determine 'reasonable suspicion'?

Answer 490

No ## Footnote (MOU page 69)

Question 491

If outdoors or large interiors are involved in evidence collection, the scene should initially be identified as ____ the distance from the center of the scene to the ______ ____ piece of evidence.

Answer 491

Twice, farthest known ## Footnote (HPM 70.1 1-4)

Question 492

Juveniles who are arrested must be advised of ________ _______ regardless of questioning.

Answer 492

their rights (Miranda) ## Footnote (HPM 70.1 1-5)

Question 493

It is not necessary to retain field notes if all of the following conditions are met:

Answer 493

They are incorporated into a formal report, the report accurately reflects the contents of the notes, and the prosecutor turns over a copy of the formal report to the defense counsel before trial. ## Footnote (HPM 70.1 1-6)

Question 494

Evidence gathered during an administrative investigation shall be retained for a minimum of ____________________.

Answer 494

five years or the life of the investigative file, whichever is longer ## Footnote (HPM 70.1 1-7)

Question 495

Evidence consists of _______________ of witnesses, __________, __________ _________, or anything presented to the senses.

Answer 495

Testimony, Writings, Material Objects ## Footnote (HPM 70.1 (2-3))

Question 496

Evidence is either ____________ or ________________.

Answer 496

Direct, Circumstantial ## Footnote (HPM 70.1 (2-3))

Question 497

Direct evidence is evidence that directly proves a _________, without the necessity of an inference.

Answer 497

Fact ## Footnote (HPM 70.1 (2-3))

Question 498

__________________ evidence is evidence that, if found to be true, proves a fact from which an inference of the existence of another fact may be drawn.

Answer 498

Circumstantial ## Footnote (HPM 70.1 (2-3))

Question 499

Three classifications of evidence are:

Answer 499

* Testimonial * Documentary * Physical ## Footnote (HPM 70.1 2-4)

Question 500

A log (should/shall) be kept of all personnel who enter and leave the crime scene in major crime cases.

Answer 500

Shall ## Footnote (HPM 70.1 3-6)

Question 501

How many types of evidence searches are there?

Answer 501

Seven ## Footnote (HPM 70.1 3-7)

Question 502

Evidence. __________ _______ should be used as often as possible to store evidence.

Answer 502

Plastic Bags ## Footnote (HPM 70.1 (4-5))

Question 503

Large quantities of controlled substance, in excess of ________, may be destroyed without a court order.

Answer 503

ten pounds ## Footnote (HPM 70.1 4-6)

Question 504

Employees shall place all evidence and property in the designated evidence/property temporary storage lockers prior to the _________________________.

Answer 504

End of their work shift ## Footnote (HPM 70.1 (5-3))

Question 505

All packaged items shall have the following handwritten information on the package:

Answer 505

* Evidence number * Initials * Badge number of booking officer * Booking date ## Footnote (HPM 70.1 (5-8))

Question 506

All packaged items shall use ______ evidence tape to cover the overlapping ends of the strapping tape.

Answer 506

Red ## Footnote (HPM 70.1 (5-8))

Question 507

If during an evidence audit, a package is suspected of being tampered with, the Area commander _______ be notified immediately.

Answer 507

Shall ## Footnote (HPM 70.1 (5-12))

Question 508

All controlled substances and unknown substances shall be _________ _______ and sealed using _______________.

Answer 508

double bagged / heat seal polyester bags ## Footnote (HPM 70.1 5-18/19)

Question 509

If an officer has seized 350 prescription drugs, do the pills get counted or weighed prior to booking into evidence?

Answer 509

Pills shall be weighed and not counted ## Footnote (HPM 70.1 5-22)

Question 510

Drugs with a street value of $__________ or greater shall not be stored in an evidence locker.

Answer 510

$10,000 ## Footnote (HPM 70.1 5-22)

Question 511

(1) Money shall be counted by ___________.

Answer 511

two employees ## Footnote (HPM 70.1 5-29)

Question 512

(2) ______ shall print their names, IDs and sign the CHP36, Property Receipt, on the Financial Tally Sheet.

Answer 512

Both ## Footnote (HPM 70.1 5-29)

Question 513

(3) Money in excess of $______, seized as evidence shall not be stored in an evidence locker.

Answer 513

$1,000 ## Footnote (HPM 70.1 5-29)

Question 514

Except for ______________, alcoholic beverages should not be seized and retained.

Answer 514

felony cases where the item has evidentiary value ## Footnote (HPM 70.1 5-14)

Question 515

The _______ is the weight of the drug and its first container, as found.

Answer 515

item weight ## Footnote (HPM 70.1, 5-18/19)

Question 516

The _______________ is the weight of the drug and containers after they have been placed in heat sealed bags.

Answer 516

package weight ## Footnote (HPM 70.1, 5-18/19)

Question 517

All property ______ be entered into the _________________ .

Answer 517

Shall / Area Information System (AIS) ## Footnote (HPM 70.1 6-3)

Question 518

The CHP 36 serves six purposes. It serves as:

Answer 518

* Declaration * Affidavit * Report * Record * Receipt * Notice ## Footnote (HPM 70.1 6-3)

Question 519

When a firearm is taken into evidence, the CHP 36 shall include the ________,________, and _________ ___________ of the firearm.

Answer 519

Make, Model, and Serial Number ## Footnote (HPM 70.1 (6-3))

Question 520

Department employees who find property during the course of employment shall complete a CHP 36 as described above.

Answer 520

Shall ## Footnote (HPM 70.1 6-10)

Question 521

Found property valued at less than ______ must be held for at least 90 days unless the owner comes forth.

Answer 521

$250 ## Footnote (HPM 70.1 6-15)

Question 522

All firearms and ____________ coming into the possession of the Department shall be entered into the AFS.

Answer 522

conductive energy weapons ## Footnote (HPM 70.1 8-3)

Question 523

How often should 'property' officers purge evidence?

Answer 523

on a weekly basis ## Footnote (HPM 70.1 9-4)

Question 524

In the event the appropriate prosecutor declines to file a case, the evidence shall be disposed of ________ after the date of arrest.

Answer 524

90 days ## Footnote (HPM 70.1 9-4)

Question 525

How long must evidence be held for felonies?

Answer 525

90 days ## Footnote (HPM 70.1 9-6)

Question 526

How often shall the property supervisor conduct inspections?

Answer 526

quarterly ## Footnote (HPM 70.1 12-4)

Question 527

The number of key(s) to the property room shall be limited to _______________.

Answer 527

the number of primary property officers assigned to the command plus the commander's emergency access key(s) ## Footnote (HPM 70.1 12-10)

Question 528

What should the keys used to access the property room be permanently marked with?

Answer 528

Do Not Duplicate

Question 529

The number of key(s) to the property room shall be limited to __________.

Answer 529

the number of primary property officers assigned to the command plus the commander's emergency access key(s)

Question 530

How many sets of keys are allowed for temporary storage lockers?

Answer 530

a maximum of TWO sets

Question 531

Who shall accompany the evidence tow operator to the storage facility?

Answer 531

An officer

Question 532

An MVARS DVD _____ be pre-flighted the day of the officer’s shift.

Answer 532

shall

Question 533

What must be completed on an MVARS DVD at a minimum?

Answer 533

* date * shift * patrol vehicle number (P/V #) * officer identification number (ID)

Question 534

MVARS DVDs shall be retained for a minimum of __________.

Answer 534

one year

Question 535

Employees are required to review their command-specific EOP __________.

Answer 535

annually

Question 536

How many emergency preparedness exercises must all field commands conduct or participate in at least?

Answer 536

two

Question 537

What will function as the Department’s statewide Department Operations Center (DOC)?

Answer 537

Emergency Notification and Tactical Alert Center (ENTAC)

Question 538

Cal OES has established five levels of emergency response: __________.

Answer 538

* Field Level Response * Local Government Response * Operational Level Response * Regional Level Response * State Level Response

Question 539

What does NIMS stand for?

Answer 539

National Incident Management System

Question 540

What does SEMS stand for?

Answer 540

Standardized Emergency Management System

Question 541

The ____ shall be used as the response mechanism for all emergency incidents.

Answer 541

ICS

Question 542

Incident Command System responsibilities must continue until __________.

Answer 542

all emergency operations at the scene have been terminated and order has been restored

Question 543

Federal span of control guidelines recommend a maximum of ____ to ____ functions per supervisor.

Answer 543

three to seven

Question 544

What are the five basic Incident Command System (ICS) functions?

Answer 544

* Finance Section * Logistics Section * Operations Section * Planning/Intelligence Section * Command or Command Staff

Question 545

What is an Emergency Operations Plan?

Answer 545

Preparedness documents intended to be read and understood prior to an emergency

Question 546

What does an Incident Action Plan (IAP) reflect?

Answer 546

The objectives, strategy, and tactics determined necessary by the Incident Commander

Question 547

What is a 72-Hour Self-Sufficient Operation Plan?

Answer 547

Operational guidance to ensure commands are prepared to be self-sufficient for the first 72 hours following a disaster

Question 548

What are the incident objectives and priorities based on?

Answer 548

* Life Safety * Incident Stabilization * Property Conservation

Question 549

Each Incident Action Plan objective should have the following SMART characteristics: __________.

Answer 549

* Specific * Measurable * Action Oriented * Realistic * Time Sensitive

Question 550

Bomb searches conducted by CHP personnel shall be limited to _____________ searches only.

Answer 550

visual and facility

Question 551

Do not use CHP radios within ___ feet of a suspicious vehicle.

Answer 551

300 feet

Question 552

The purpose of the ___________ and ___________ is to expedite the staging of personnel to an emergency event.

Answer 552

Tactical Alert and Tactical Deployment

Question 553

What conditions must be met for area commanders to place neighboring Areas on a Tactical Alert?

Answer 553

* There is an actual or potential threat to public safety * The scope of the event has or will span beyond the resource capabilities of the Area * The division commander has been notified

Question 554

True/False: The tan work uniform is authorized during a TA or tactical deployment.

Answer 554

False

Question 555

On-duty personnel shall keep gas tanks at no less than ___________ throughout the duration of the TA.

Answer 555

¾-tank full

Question 556

What documentation is required to support a departmental reimbursement claim?

Answer 556

* CHP 415 C for each employee * CHP 701B used as reports for daily, cumulative and final summary

Question 557

An after-action memorandum shall be submitted within __________ days of the conclusion of a localized emergency operation.

Answer 557

30 calendar days

Question 558

According to NIMS and SEMS, how many officers are in a squad?

Answer 558

11 officers, 1 sergeant

Question 559

What does a Mobile Field Force consist of?

Answer 559

A total of 52 people minimum and 14 general purpose patrol vehicles

Question 560

Who can become a member of an MFF?

Answer 560

Any uniformed employee of the Department

Question 561

Mutual aid requests for a _________________ are self-explanatory.

Answer 561

Single or partnered unit

Question 562

What types of incidents will the CHP normally respond to regarding civil unrest?

Answer 562

* Incidents affecting state or county highways * Incidents affecting state property * Official requests for mutual aid assistance

Question 563

How many types of resistant protesters are there?

Answer 563

3

Question 564

When protesters intentionally oppose lawful orders without physical resistance, they are considered ____________.

Answer 564

Passive Resistance Protesters

Question 565

When protesters oppose lawful orders in a physical manner, they are considered _________ _________.

Answer 565

Active Resistance Protesters

Question 566

A lawful order to disperse and a use of force warning should/shall be given prior to utilizing pain compliance.

Answer 566

Shall

Question 567

What is the standard holding position of the baton during a tactical formation?

Answer 567

The Long-Extended Position

Question 568

What are the four operational guidelines for crowd control?

Answer 568

* Standard Baton Position * Passive Resistance * Active Resistance * Assaultive Resistance

Question 569

A platoon is composed of _____ squads normally working as a single unit.

Answer 569

two to three

Question 570

A company is composed of a minimum of ____ squads.

Answer 570

Four

Question 571

A battalion is composed of ___ or more companies.

Answer 571

Two

Question 572

Describe the five tactical formations/movements.

Answer 572

* Column of Files * Line Formation * Encirclement * Separation Formation * Crossbow Formation

Question 573

The maximum effective distance of a tactical rifle is ___ yards.

Answer 573

200

Question 574

Use of the wooden dowel as a distraction tool may only be authorized by the __________.

Answer 574

incident commander

Question 575

Resisters shall not be dragged for an unnecessary distance. A minimum of _____ officers shall carry the arrestee.

Answer 575

Three

Question 576

Persons at least _____________ and ______________ who are not arrested may be released to a responsible adult.

Answer 576

12 years of age / under 18 years of age

Question 577

Minors under the age of 12 who are not arrested shall be transported to ____________.

Answer 577

a child protective services agency facility

Question 578

How often shall chemical protective masks be inspected?

Answer 578

Quarterly and prior to use

Question 579

What will MREs respond to when requested?

Answer 579

Commercial vehicle traffic collisions involving serious injury, fatality, or extensive property damage

Question 580

What is the protocol for transporting a child in protective services?

Answer 580

Be transported to a child protective services agency facility or released to a child protective services agency representative.

Question 581

How often shall chemical protective masks be inspected?

Answer 581

Quarterly and prior to use.

Question 582

What is the role of MRE in commercial vehicle traffic collisions?

Answer 582

Assist the investigating officer by performing an inspection of the mechanical condition, load, registration, and manifests of the vehicle, as well as the driver’s log.

Question 583

Who is authorized to place operators or commercial motor vehicles Out of Service (OOS)?

Answer 583

Currently assigned commercial enforcement officers and Motor Carrier Specialists who have completed the Level I - North American Standard Inspection Training Class, and any uniformed supervisor.

Question 584

True or False: Military vehicles are required to stop at CHP scales.

Answer 584

False.

Question 585

True or False: CHP Officers may stop any vehicle transporting timber products without probable cause.

Answer 585

True.

Question 586

Reinspections shall only be performed within the first _______ days after a Level 1 or Level 5 inspection.

Answer 586

30 Calendar.

Question 587

What are the three main elements of the Commercial Enforcement Program?

Answer 587

* Inspection Facilities (IF) * Platform scales (PS) * Mobile Road Enforcement (MRE) duties.

Question 588

What should an officer do when a driver is placed OOS for a logbook or HOS violation?

Answer 588

Instruct the driver not to drive for the appropriate amount of time and note this in the driver’s logbook.

Question 589

Interstate and intrastate drivers returning to the same location within a ________ of the normal work reporting location do not need to maintain a log.

Answer 589

100 air-mile radius.

Question 590

What BAC level requires a CMV operator to be placed Out Of Service for 24 hours?

Answer 590

0.01 percent or greater.

Question 591

The total outside width of any vehicle or load shall not exceed _____ inches.

Answer 591

102.

Question 592

The maximum legal height permitted for a vehicle or load is _____ feet.

Answer 592

14 feet 3 inches.

Question 593

A 'farm labor vehicle' is designed for the transportation of _____ or _____ farm workers.

Answer 593

nine or more.

Question 594

What are required for most prima facie speed limits?

Answer 594

Engineering and Traffic Surveys.

Question 595

The ETS must be within _____ _____ of the radar speed violation date.

Answer 595

5 years.

Question 596

Section 40802(c) CVC requires each radar/lidar unit to be calibrated within ______ years prior to the alleged violation.

Answer 596

three.

Question 597

True or False: Signage is required to advise motorists that radar/lidar is used on roadways.

Answer 597

False.

Question 598

All radar operators must attend __ ____ of Academy-supervised radar training.

Answer 598

24 hours.

Question 599

Officers shall complete ______ hours of practical field training with radar within ______ days of successful completion of the classroom training phase.

Answer 599

30 hours / 90 days.

Question 600

How often must Radar/lidar-certified officers recertify?

Answer 600

Each calendar year.

Question 601

What must be noted on a CHP 215 when a Radar/Lidar was used?

Answer 601

Unit Serial Number and Enforcement Vehicle License Number.

Question 602

The Area radar/lidar program audit is required at intervals of no longer than ______ after the last audit.

Answer 602

24 months.

Question 603

The Parental Notification Program is used for violations committed by children under ________.

Answer 603

14 years of age.

Question 604

A CHP 215 may/may not be issued in combination with the CHP 281.

Answer 604

May.

Question 605

Special code number ________ is to be used for all allied agency turn-overs.

Answer 605

110.

Question 606

All information on a CHP 215 must be printed using either a _____ or a _____ pen.

Answer 606

pencil / ball-point.

Question 607

Mark the 'Traffic' box if ___ violations are CVC violations.

Answer 607

All.

Question 608

If there are multiple warrants for the arrestee from different counties, prepare a _________ CHP 215 for ____ county.

Answer 608

separate / each.

Question 609

If an officer is called away from the stop, enter '_____________' on the CHP 215.

Answer 609

Emergency.

Question 610

Whenever a person is arrested for 647(f) PC, what notation must be made in the body of the CHP 215?

Answer 610

'A' or 'D' for alcohol or drugs.

Question 611

What can go in the signature box of the 215?

Answer 611

Signature, In Custody, Refused, Complaint to be filed, Owners Responsibility, Parental Notification, Statistical Purposes Only ## Footnote HPM100.9 1-18/19

Question 612

Upon completion of a CHP 215 book, green copies are to be retained for _____ and white copies for _____ after the completion of the entire book.

Answer 612

one year / six months ## Footnote HPM 100.9 1-24

Question 613

A CHP 215 shall be considered 'issued' when _____ .

Answer 613

an alleged violator has signed and received a copy of the citation or a copy has been mailed to the individual ## Footnote HPM 100.9 1-28

Question 614

What is the difference between dismissing a 215 and voiding a 215?

Answer 614

Dismissing is for citations that have been issued; voiding is for citations that have not been issued ## Footnote HPM 100.9 1-28, HPM 100.9 1-30

Question 615

The CHP 215 (should/shall) be used in lieu of the CHP 281 for registration violations.

Answer 615

Shall ## Footnote HPM 100.9 (3-1)

Question 616

A CHP 281 may/should/shall be issued in addition to a CHP 215 as the result of a single enforcement action.

Answer 616

May ## Footnote HPM 100.9 3-2

Question 617

A California Highway Patrol (CHP) 422 should/shall be completed for unattended vehicles that appear to be abandoned or unlawfully parked.

Answer 617

Should be ## Footnote HPM 100.9 7-1

Question 618

The original, gold colored CHP 214 are to be retained in the area office files for a minimum of _____ and the officer's green copy for _____ .

Answer 618

six months / one year ## Footnote HPM 100.9, page 9-5

Question 619

How are CHP 214 primarily tracked?

Answer 619

Via the California Automated Reporting System's Automated 415 application ## Footnote HPM 100.9, page 9-6

Question 620

Vehicles should not be stopped solely for failure to display registration indicia until _____ .

Answer 620

the beginning of the second month following the month of expiration ## Footnote HPM 82.5 1-3

Question 621

When a vehicle registration inquiry returns with 'No Record On File,' this indicates no transactions have taken place on the vehicle for _____ .

Answer 621

4 years ## Footnote HPM 82.5 1-5

Question 622

License plates shall be seized only when evidence indicates unlawful attachment was made for the purpose of _____ .

Answer 622

evading the registration fees or concealing the registration status ## Footnote HPM 82.5 1-12

Question 623

The California Vehicle Code requires vehicle owners registered in a foreign jurisdiction to apply for California registration within _____ .

Answer 623

20 days after gainful employment or residency is established ## Footnote HPM 82.5 3-3

Question 624

All Areas will maintain a viable CRFR program and _____ assign an Area CRFR coordinator.

Answer 624

shall ## Footnote HPM 82.5 3-6

Question 625

True/False - Occasionally a vehicle may display license plates from more than one state.

Answer 625

True ## Footnote HPM 82.5 4-8

Question 626

True/False - A manufacturer or representative may use a special-plated vehicle for personal use.

Answer 626

True ## Footnote HPM 82.5 8-4

Question 627

The ________ of the primary and alternate SBO/C shall review and approve their CHP 100E monthly activity report by the ______ day of the month following the month of activity.

Answer 627

supervisor / 5th working ## Footnote HPM 82.4 1-6

Question 628

How often is the Department required to inspect and certify school buses?

Answer 628

At least once every 13 months ## Footnote HPM 82.4 1-12

Question 629

Upon receiving information regarding a fatal collision involving a school bus, the Area commander shall make telephone notifications to _____ .

Answer 629

the appropriate Division commander and Research and Planning Section ## Footnote HPM 82.4 3-3

Question 630

The SBO/C _______ review all school bus collision reports.

Answer 630

shall ## Footnote HPM 82.4 3-5

Question 631

Type 1 buses are designed for carrying _____ passengers, while Type 2 buses are designed for carrying _____ passengers.

Answer 631

more than 16 / 16 or less ## Footnote HPM 82.4 5-12

Question 632

T/F: School Bus Coordinators should conduct random annual inspections of at least 10% of each carrier’s school bus.

Answer 632

FALSE ## Footnote SBOC’s SHALL conduct a random annual inspection of at least 5%.

Question 633

A separate CHP 180 is completed for a boat on a trailer.

Answer 633

False ## Footnote It would be considered cargo.

Question 634

A CHP 180 may be amended to indicate a more appropriate removal authority by which procedure?

Answer 634

Line out the incorrect authority, write the correct one, prepare a memorandum, and notify the RO or LO ## Footnote HPM 81.2 1-4

Question 635

A Notice of Stored Vehicle shall be mailed or personally served to the RO and LO within _____ .

Answer 635

48 hours ## Footnote HPM 81.2 1-4

Question 636

A CHP 180 for a vehicle impounded as evidence shall be retained for _____ years.

Answer 636

2 years ## Footnote HPM 81.2 1-5

Question 637

Before impounding a vehicle pursuant to Section 14602.6(a)(1) CVC, officers shall issue a citation when _____ .

Answer 637

there is sufficient evidence to establish a violation ## Footnote HPM 81.2 2-5

Question 638

If the driver’s license is suspended for certain offenses, the vehicle ____________ be subject to a 30-day impound.

Answer 638

should not ## Footnote HPM 81.2 2-5

Question 639

No vehicle shall be released without presentation of the ______________ and ___________ to the storing agency.

Answer 639

RO or agent’s valid driver license and proof of current vehicle registration ## Footnote HPM 81.2 2-8

Question 640

When there is 'reason to believe' that a vehicle theft has been falsely reported, the ___________ shall notify the insurance carrier within ___________.

Answer 640

Commander / 30 days ## Footnote HPM 81.2, Ch. 3-3

Question 641

Area commanders shall honor a request for a post-storage hearing if received within ____ days.

Answer 641

10 days ## Footnote HPM 81.2 4-3

Question 642

The hearing officer designated by the Area commander may not be the same officer who stored the vehicle and shall conduct the hearing within ___________.

Answer 642

48 hours ## Footnote HPM 81.2 4-4

Question 643

The Department is financially responsible for charges incurred from the initial seizure of evidence until _____ .

Answer 643

criminal charges are filed by the district attorney ## Footnote HPM 81.2, 6-3

Question 644

Under the direction of the Commissioner, the ____________ ___________ ________ exercises operational control of the departmental SSP.

Answer 644

Assistant Commissioner (AC) Field ## Footnote HPM 100.70 (1-4)

Question 645

Government Code Section 14615(b) states the CHP has jurisdiction over matters related to the security of state _____ , _____ , and _____ of state property.

Answer 645

employees / property / occupants ## Footnote HPM 100.70 2-2

Question 646

How long shall an MOU with allied law enforcement agencies be in effect?

Answer 646

No more than five years ## Footnote HPM 100.70, page 2-5

Question 647

True/False - If a local law enforcement agency refuses to conduct an investigation, the CHP will obtain the necessary information.

Answer 647

FALSE ## Footnote CHP will complete the appropriate investigation.

Question 648

If a CHP officer does not respond to investigate, the __________ must report the occurrence of the crime to the CHP.

Answer 648

facility manager ## Footnote HPM 100.70, 2-6

Question 649

Whenever CHP personnel respond to a crime, the ___ ___ shall be prepared for entry into the SCARS.

Answer 649

STD 99 ## Footnote HPM 100.70 3-4

Question 650

All applicable forms shall be forwarded to be entered into the SCARS within _____ of the date of incident.

Answer 650

ten days ## Footnote HPM 100.70, 3-4

Question 651

Completed STD. 99 forms shall be retained for a period of _____ from the date of the report.

Answer 651

two years ## Footnote HPM 100.70, 3-4

Question 652

What is the purpose of the SCARS database?

Answer 652

To track crimes and criminally caused property damage to state-owned and state-leased properties ## Footnote HPM

Question 653

Data entry personnel must be entered within _________ of the date of incident.

Answer 653

ten days ## Footnote HPM 100.70, 3-4

Question 654

Completed STD. 99 forms shall be retained at the Area or Division level for a period of ________ from the date of the report.

Answer 654

two years ## Footnote HPM 100.70, 3-4

Question 655

What is the purpose of the SCARS database?

Answer 655

To track crimes and criminally caused property damage to state-owned and state-leased properties ## Footnote HPM 100.70 / 3-5

Question 656

Incidents on State Property. _____ _____ cases are crimes/incidents requiring immediate investigation.

Answer 656

Priority one ## Footnote HPM 100.70 6-11

Question 657

What are the four elements of the CHP Crime Prevention and Security (CPS) Program?

Answer 657

* Security Inspection * Crime Prevention Plan * Site Vulnerability Assessment Memorandum * Crime Prevention and Security Program Training ## Footnote HPM 100.70, page 8-3 to 8-4

Question 658

Area commands shall liaison with every state agency within its area of responsibility _____ to ensure facility managers are aware of CPS services available under the CHP CPS Program.

Answer 658

annually ## Footnote HPM 100.70, page 8-5

Question 659

Facilities qualifying for a Site Vulnerability Assessment (SVA) generally fall into one of three categories. What are they?

Answer 659

* A mass population target * A critical asset target * A target of symbolic significance ## Footnote HPM 100.70, 8-6

Question 660

In the event a client state agency still feels a facility requires an SVA, the request must be forwarded through channels to ____ for approval.

Answer 660

PSD ## Footnote HPM 100.70, 8-6

Question 661

Area and Division commands shall retain the SVA memorandum ____________, _____________, or ___________________________________________________.

Answer 661

indefinitely / until updated / until the facility is no longer utilized by the requesting state agency ## Footnote HPM 100.70, 8-8

Question 662

Permits must be completed and received no later than ___________ prior to the date of the planned activity.

Answer 662

ten working days ## Footnote HPM 100.70, 10-4

Question 663

If alcoholic beverages are to be sold and consumed on the premises, an alcoholic beverage license must be obtained from ________________.

Answer 663

ABC with approval from the CHP ## Footnote HPM 100.70, 10-10

Question 664

Completed Emergency Action Plans (EAPs) shall be kept in clearly marked __ binders for easy identification.

Answer 664

red ## Footnote HPM 100.70, 14-3

Question 665

What are the four categories of Workplace Violence?

Answer 665

* Criminal Intent * Customer/Client * Worker-on-Worker * Personal Relationship ## Footnote HPM 100.70, page 15-4 to 15-5

Question 666

MAIT requires a minimum team compliment composed of a MAIT coordinator, a team leader, ___ investigators, a Motor Carrier Specialist I (MCS I), and an engineer from Caltrans.

Answer 666

Two ## Footnote HPM 110.1 1-4

Question 667

The appropriate Division commander shall be notified for incidents involving ________ or severe injury collisions.

Answer 667

fatal ## Footnote HPM 110.1 1-8/9

Question 668

MAIT ________ be called when the intent is to have MAIT prepare a physical evidence diagram only.

Answer 668

Shall Not ## Footnote HPM 110.1 1-10

Question 669

What is the chain of command for MAIT request at an active scene?

Answer 669

* Investigating officer * On-duty supervisor * Area commander * Division commander * MAIT coordinator ## Footnote HPM 110.1, 1-10

Question 670

Penal Code Section 832.5 requires that investigative reports be retained for _____________.

Answer 670

five years ## Footnote HPM 120.1 Pg1

Question 671

Evidence Code Section 1045 excludes disclosure of complaints against an Officer concerning conduct occurring more than __________ prior to the date of the motion hearing.

Answer 671

five years ## Footnote HPM 120.1 Pg2

Question 672

T/F - Evidence Code Section 1047 prohibits disclosure of records of peace officers who had no contact with the individual seeking disclosure.

Answer 672

True ## Footnote HPM 120.1 HPM 120.1 Page 3

Question 673

Service of the motion may be accepted at the Area office or at Legal Coordination Unit (LCU). What are the proper time limits for service?

Answer 673

* 20 days if served by mail * 15 days if personally served ## Footnote HPM 120.1 Pg4

Question 674

When a motion is received at the Area office, _____ should be notified immediately.

Answer 674

Legal Coordination Unit (LCU) ## Footnote HPM 120.1 -4-

Question 675

The judge will conduct an in-camera review of the documents in chambers. Who is allowed in chambers?

Answer 675

* The judge * The court reporter * The custodian of records * Any other persons agreed by the custodian ## Footnote HPM 120.1 Pg7

Question 676

Department policy is contained in (4 places):

Answer 676

* General Orders * Highway Patrol Manuals * Management Memorandums * Comm-nets ## Footnote HPM 1.1

Question 677

The maximum travel distance for an employee authorized home storage is _______ miles for commanders.

Answer 677

70 ## Footnote HPM 31.1 (1-26)

Question 678

Vehicles stored overnight ___________ be parked on a public street.

Answer 678

Shall not ## Footnote HPM 31.1 (1-27)

Question 679

Sensitive items such as weapons and state computers ________ be removed from the vehicle when parked overnight.

Answer 679

shall ## Footnote HPM 31.1 (1-27)

Question 680

Designated employees must report incidents to County Health Officers within _________ of knowledge of the incident.

Answer 680

72 hours ## Footnote HPM 84.2 Pg 2-5/6

Question 681

The initial responsibility for a spill rests with the jurisdiction where ________________.

Answer 681

The 'first drop' or first release of product occurred ## Footnote HPM 84.2, 2-2

Question 682

The mission of the California Highway Patrol is to provide the highest level of Safety, Service, and Security. What are the five departmental goals?

Answer 682

* Protect life and property * Provide superior service * Enhance public trust * Invest in our people * Identify and respond to evolving needs ## Footnote GO 0.1

Question 683

What are the organizational values of the CHP?

Answer 683

* Respect for others * Fairness * Ethical practices * Equitable treatment for all ## Footnote GO 0.1

Question 684

CHP personnel ________ issue courtesy cards that extend special privilege.

Answer 684

shall not ## Footnote GO 0.3 P-1

Question 685

The Citizen’s Advisory Board consists of how many members?

Answer 685

11 ## Footnote GO 0.7, Pg. 3

Question 686

The _____________________ serves as an advisory body to the Commissioner regarding departmental policies and procedures.

Answer 686

Citizen’s (Community) Advisory Board ## Footnote GO 0.7 page 2

Question 687

What are the Departments professional values?

Answer 687

* Courage * Honesty * Professionalism * Principles * Respect * Integrity * Dedication * Esprit De Corps ## Footnote GO 0.8

Question 688

The CHP enforces the law ________,___________, and without ___________ or___________.

Answer 688

* Equally * Impartially * Favoritism * Prejudice ## Footnote GO 0.12 Pg 1

Question 689

What are the three primary reasons to enhance safety through service?

Answer 689

* Public and officer safety is built upon mutual trust * Public support is essential for safer communities * Opportunity for CHP to assume a Leadership Role ## Footnote GO 0.12, pg 1

Question 690

What are the six steps to building Public Trust?

Answer 690

* Ask - Solicit Input * Listen - Actively Listen * Respond - Be thoughtful * Value - Make it Valuable * Trust - Repeat Constantly ## Footnote GO .12 pg 13

Question 691

At state-owned or leased-space buildings, smoking shall not be permitted within _______ of doorways.

Answer 691

25 feet ## Footnote GO 6.1, pg 1

Question 692

Acting sergeants _______ be given full supervisory duties unless critical.

Answer 692

shall not ## Footnote GO 6.7 p2

Question 693

An OIC shall only be appointed when ____________ officers will be on duty.

Answer 693

two or more ## Footnote GO 6.7, Pg. 2/3

Question 694

An OIC shall only be appointed when ____________ officers will be on duty under their supervision.

Answer 694

two or more

Question 695

Officers who are assigned to perform the duties of an OIC for _____________ during a regular shift shall receive the OIC pay differential.

Answer 695

six hours or more

Question 696

Typically, audits are characterized as either _____ or _______.

Answer 696

Internal. External.

Question 697

Who conducts internal audits?

Answer 697

Office of Inspector General (OIG), Audits Unit

Question 698

What must supervisors provide for lactation accommodation?

Answer 698

An enclosed room, other than a restroom, that is away from public view and provides privacy

Question 699

The lactation accommodation room can be a ________, _________, or a ________.

Answer 699

vacant office, a women’s lounge area, first-aid room

Question 700

Employees who require additional break time for expressing breast milk shall prepare a memorandum to their supervisor. The additional break time requested _______ with the break time already authorized for the Employee.

Answer 700

should run concurrently

Question 701

What does CALEA stand for?

Answer 701

Commission on Accreditation for Law Enforcement Agencies, Inc.

Question 702

What is the purpose of CALEA?

Answer 702

To improve the delivery of public safety services by maintaining a body of standards developed by public safety practitioners

Question 703

The CALEA council is made up of what four organizations?

Answer 703

* IACP * NOBLE * National Sheriff’s Association * Police Executive Research Forum

Question 704

The Department is required to forward a validation certification of all California Highway Patrol (CHP) records within ________ days.

Answer 704

30 days

Question 705

Transfers and assignments of officers are based on the following criteria in order of priority: (1) Needs of the Department, (2) Hardship, (3) _______.

Answer 705

Seniority

Question 706

Related employees ______ assigned to the same command when either is the commander.

Answer 706

will not be permitted

Question 707

Every ______ years a reevaluation of the Strategic Plan will be conducted.

Answer 707

five

Question 708

The AVLS data may be reviewed as part of an investigation but ______ be routinely reviewed to generate monthly employee performance evaluations.

Answer 708

shall not

Question 709

The AVLS uses Global Positioning Satellite data to locate each patrol vehicle using latitude and longitude coordinates. The data is refreshed every ______ seconds.

Answer 709

30

Question 710

The AVLS _______ used solely to determine a patrol vehicle’s speed.

Answer 710

shall not be

Question 711

Sergeants are required to perform ___________ with officers.

Answer 711

An annual ride-along

Question 712

When a special relationship is established, uniformed personnel should remain at the scene until one or more of the following occurs: (1) Relieved by department personnel, (2) Relinquished the scene to an on-scene representative, (3) An apparent emergency requiring immediate response elsewhere, (4) A supervisor directs them to assume duties elsewhere, (5) ________.

Answer 712

Peace officer's assistance is no longer necessary

Question 713

Employees who have been unavailable for a cancellation notification _____ contact their office within________ of the scheduled court appearance.

Answer 713

Shall / 24 hours

Question 714

Supervisors shall conduct a periodic review of CHP A415 entries to ensure compliance with this GO. When reviewing CHP A415 entries, supervisors should ensure no _____________ regarding the person stopped is entered in the narrative field.

Answer 714

personal or unique identifying information

Question 715

The following interactions do not require any data entry on the CHP A415: (1) Crowd control or contacts during public safety evacuations, (2) Contacts during active shooter incidents, (3) Contacts during security screenings, (4) ________.

Answer 715

Absent additional law enforcement actions

Question 716

Supervisors _____ conduct a periodic review of CHP A415 entries to ensure compliance with GO 100.21.

Answer 716

Shall

Question 717

What is the hand signal to stop a train?

Answer 717

Slowly swing a visible object horizontally at knee to hip height

Question 718

Subsequent to a vehicle search, officers should/shall make reasonable efforts to return the vehicle and its contents to the same condition as before the search.

Answer 718

Shall

Question 719

A CHP 422, Vehicle Check/Parking Warning/Highway Damage Report, _____ be completed and attached to all unoccupied vehicles which appear to be:

Answer 719

Shall

Question 720

Graveyards. ______________ may authorize the assignment of one-officer field patrol units between 2200 and 2400 or 0400 and 0600 hours.

Answer 720

Division chiefs

Question 721

The following enforcement actions and activities shall be video and audio recorded in their entirety: (1) Disabled motorists, (2) Enforcement contacts, (3) Emergency responses, (4) ________.

Answer 721

Pursuits

Question 722

When not directly involved, sworn employees ________ use MVARS equipment to record other law enforcement agency actions without permission.

Answer 722

shall not

Question 723

Event recordings may be viewed limited to the following threshold incidents: (1) Severe injury or death of a member of the Department, (2) Use of force resulting in severe injury or death, (3) ________.

Answer 723

Any in-custody death

Question 724

Managers, supervisors, or other authorized personnel may only review non-threshold event video recordings under certain circumstances. Name one.

Answer 724

Anytime an employee responsible for the MVARS event recording voluntarily agrees to the viewing

Question 725

Uniformed employees __________ request consent from an individual absent reasonable suspicion or probable cause.

Answer 725

shall not

Question 726

In order for a consent search to be lawful, the following four requirements must be met: (a) Consent must be granted freely, (b) The person granting consent must have standing, (c) The scope of the search must be defined, (d) _______.

Answer 726

The person granting consent has the right to withdraw consent

Question 727

Marcy’s Law is also known as _________________.

Answer 727

Victims’ Bill of Rights Act of 2008

Question 728

Employees ______ not talk on cellular telephones while operating a marked enforcement vehicle.

Answer 728

Should

Question 729

What are the 3 objectives for an active shooter incident?

Answer 729

* Move to, confront, and stop the active shooter(s) * Rescue victims and treat injured victims * Secure the area and assist with a secondary search

Question 730

All officers not engaged in another emergency _______ respond to the scene of an active shooter event.

Answer 730

shall immediately

Question 731

Upon arrival at the scene of an active shooter event, officers should form contact teams consisting of two to four officers, and immediately enter the crisis site. In some circumstances, a ____ officer response may be required.

Answer 731

Solo

Question 732

The on-duty supervisor shall contact the communications center to request notification to the ______________.

Answer 732

Emergency Notification and Tactical Alert Center

Question 733

A person who has __________ can obtain a copy of a California Highway Patrol (CHP) generated collision report.

Answer 733

proper interest

Question 734

Are parents of adult children considered a person of proper interest?

Answer 734

No, unless they have signed authorization from the involved adult child

Question 735

Until a collision report is complete, the following information can be provided to the public: (1) Time of collision, (2) Date of collision, (3) Location of collision, (4) ________.

Answer 735

Make of vehicle(s) involved

Question 736

When a collision is either a primary or associated collision factor of a subsequent collision, all drivers and passengers in all reports are considered to be ______.

Answer 736

persons

Question 737

What information can be provided to the public until a collision report is complete?

Answer 737

* Time of collision * Date of collision * Location of collision * Make of vehicle(s) involved * Names of vehicle occupants (other than fatal collisions) ## Footnote GO 110.2 Pg5

Question 738

When a collision is a primary or associated factor of a subsequent collision, who is considered to have proper interest?

Answer 738

All drivers and passengers in all reports ## Footnote GO 110.2 page 2

Question 739

Fill in the blank: Nonuniformed employees of this Department, while on duty, shall comply with Section 171b PC, which prohibits any person from bringing or possessing specified weapons in state owned or leased buildings. ____________ employees.

Answer 739

Nonuniformed ## Footnote GO 110.23 Pg1

Question 740

An armed CHP officer shall not participate in a voluntary off-duty ride-along with an allied law enforcement agency without first receiving the written approval from their ________ _________.

Answer 740

respective commander ## Footnote GO 100.42

Question 741

What must be completed when a probable cause search is conducted and no contraband is located?

Answer 741

CHP 216 ## Footnote Shall / GO 100.91 Pg 11

Question 742

Due to requirements of the Fair Labor Standards Act, all efforts should be made to ensure the ride-along does not extend beyond ______________.

Answer 742

The end of the eight-hour shift ## Footnote GO 71.3

Question 743

What type of notification is required to the division commander when a freeway is expected to be closed for 90 minutes?

Answer 743

Immediate ## Footnote GO 100.80 Pg4

Question 744

Officers shall ensure all blood samples obtained from a DUI suspect who is unconscious or unable/unwilling to provide free and voluntary consent to chemical testing are taken pursuant to a valid search warrant, absent ________ circumstances.

Answer 744

exigent ## Footnote MM17-021 page 1

Question 745

How often shall employees who operate Body-Worn Camera (BWC) equipment review this policy?

Answer 745

Annually ## Footnote (MM 17-048, pg 1)

Question 746

Employees shall activate their BWCs for the duration of which enforcement activities?

Answer 746

* Enforcement contacts (including pedestrians) * Vehicle searches and inventories * Assisting disabled motorists * Confrontational interactions with members of the public * Pat down frisks or searches ## Footnote (MM 17-048, pg 1 & 2)

Question 747

In cases where a victim or witness requests not to be recorded, what must the employee do before turning the camera off?

Answer 747

Record the request ## Footnote -should / shall (MM 17-048 -2-)

Question 748

Employees are ___ required to cease or initiate recording an event solely at the demand of a civilian.

Answer 748

not ## Footnote (MM 17-048 -4-)

Question 749

The StarChase tag should not normally be deployed in which situations?

Answer 749

* During heavy rain * While driving on exceptionally rough terrain * When pedestrians are between or very close to the suspect vehicle and the StarChase-equipped patrol vehicle * On motorcycles ## Footnote (MM 17-062, pg 3 & 4)

Question 750

When shall marijuana be packaged in a heat-sealed bag and placed in a second heat-sealed bag?

Answer 750

When it is suspected of being laced with fentanyl ## Footnote (MM 17-065, pg 1)

Question 751

Uniformed personnel shall notify their supervisor as soon as _____ after a use of force incident.

Answer 751

Practical ## Footnote (MM 17-069 -1-)

Question 752

What are the three primary factors (Graham Factors) to assist in determining reasonableness in use of force?

Answer 752

* Severity of the crime at issue * Whether the suspect poses an immediate threat to safety * Whether the suspect is actively resisting arrest or attempting to evade arrest by flight ## Footnote (MM 17-070, Pg. 1)

Question 753

Can flight of a suspect alone be considered sufficient justification for deployment of the less-lethal shotgun or ECD?

Answer 753

No ## Footnote (MM 17-070, pg 3)

Question 754

Reasonable accommodations and religious accommodations shall be maintained in which files?

Answer 754

* Reasonable accommodations in the employee’s medical file * Religious accommodations in the employee’s miscellaneous file ## Footnote MM 18-017

Question 755

Officers should not normally work more than how many consecutive 9-hour shifts?

Answer 755

7 consecutive ## Footnote (MM 18-020)

Question 756

Officers working the standard 40-hour work week should not normally work more than how many consecutive 8-hour shifts?

Answer 756

7 consecutive ## Footnote (MM 18-020)

Question 757

What benefit has CalHR implemented for active state employees who regularly use a bicycle to commute to work?

Answer 757

Employees may claim $20 per month, not to exceed $240 per year ## Footnote (MM 18-030 page 1)

Question 758

Employees may claim $20 for each calendar month in which they commute by bicycle on at least ______ percent of the days they are scheduled to work.

Answer 758

50% ## Footnote (MM 18-030 page 1)

Question 759

What are the occupational safety categories for 2019?

Answer 759

* Deaths * Preventable deaths * Accidental discharges of firearms * Disabling injuries * Preventable disabling injuries * Disabling illnesses * Preventable disabling illnesses * Vehicle collisions in marked sedan/patrol utility vehicle, unmarked vehicles, special purpose vehicles, motorcycles, aircraft * Preventable vehicle collisions in the same categories ## Footnote (MM 18-040, Pg. 1)

Question 760

A person 21 years of age or older may possess no more than how much cannabis and concentrated cannabis?

Answer 760

* 28.5 grams of cannabis * Eight grams of concentrated cannabis ## Footnote (MM 18-042, Pg. 2/3)

Question 761

Do commands have the authority to mandatorily assign officers to work a reimbursable services contract?

Answer 761

Yes ## Footnote (MM 18-058, pg 1)

Question 762

Department policy is contained in which four places?

Answer 762

* General Orders * Highway Patrol Manuals * Management Memorandums * Comm-nets ## Footnote HPM 1.1

Question 763

What is the maximum travel distance for an employee authorized home storage from residence to assigned headquarters for commanders?

Answer 763

70 miles ## Footnote HPM 31.1 (1-26)

Question 764

Vehicles stored overnight shall not be parked on a public street. True or False?

Answer 764

True ## Footnote HPM 31.1 (1-27)

Question 765

Sensitive items such as weapons and state computers shall be removed from the vehicle to a safe location when parked overnight, unless parked in a locked garage without public access. True or False?

Answer 765

True ## Footnote HPM 31.1 (1-27)

Question 766

Designated employees are required to report incidents to County Health Officers and Boards of Supervisors if there is a reasonable belief that the release poses substantial hazard to human health within their jurisdictions. Notification must be made within _________ of the employee's knowledge.

Answer 766

72 hours ## Footnote HPM 84.2 Pg 2-5/6

Question 767

The initial responsibility for determining HMIC jurisdiction rests with the jurisdiction where ______________.

Answer 767

The first drop or first release of product occurred ## Footnote HPM 84.2, 2-2

Question 768

Was the suspect's answer admissible at trial if he was only being detained and not in custody?

Answer 768

Yes ## Footnote Fulcher (1987) 194 Cal.App.3d 749

Question 769

Was the detention of Durant's car legal despite the stop being unauthorized?

Answer 769

Yes ## Footnote Durant (2012) 205 Cal.App.4 th 57, 66

Question 770

Was the pat-down search of the minor justified if he refused consent?

Answer 770

No ## Footnote In re H.H. (2009) 174 Cal.App.4th 653

Question 771

Was the encounter with Lopez considered a detention or a consensual encounter?

Answer 771

Consensual encounter ## Footnote Lopez (1989) 212 Cal.App.3d 289,293

Question 772

Was the search of the juvenile lawful based on a valid custodial arrest?

Answer 772

Yes ## Footnote Demetrius A. (1989) 208 Cal.App.3d 1245; Charles C. (1999) 76 Cal.App.4th 420, 424-425

Question 773

What is considered an exigent circumstance in the context of police entry?

Answer 773

When police reasonably believe someone might be in danger, such as a potential overdose ## Footnote Example: Police entered a hotel room after observing a person who appeared to be in distress next to heroin.

Question 774

Was the search for identification in a driver's purse lawful if drugs were found?

Answer 774

Yes, the limited search for ID was valid ## Footnote Example: A driver indicated she might have ID in her car, and drugs were found during the search.

Question 775

Is the interaction between an officer and a person sitting on a car classified as a detention or consensual encounter?

Answer 775

Consensual encounter ## Footnote The questioning was not accusatory, and no force was shown.

Question 776

What led to the classification of an incident as a detention when an officer approached a nervous individual?

Answer 776

The combination of spotlight and the officer rushing toward the individual amounted to unlawful detention ## Footnote The individual appeared shocked and nervous when approached.

Question 777

Were the actions of an officer who conducted an inventory following a DUI arrest legal?

Answer 777

Yes, all actions were legal ## Footnote Example: The officer found a backpack containing contraband during a lawful inventory.

Question 778

Was the 9-1-1 call sufficient to provide reasonable suspicion for a traffic stop?

Answer 778

Yes, the call provided reasonable suspicion even without personal observation of impaired driving ## Footnote Example: A truck was reported for running another vehicle off the road.

Question 779

Was the seizure of a baggie containing drugs during a pat-down lawful?

Answer 779

No, the seizure was unlawful ## Footnote Feeling a soft object does not justify further intrusion into a suspect's pocket.

Question 780

Was the command issued by an officer to a suspect in a shopping center justified?

Answer 780

No, it constituted an unjustified detention ## Footnote Just walking through a closed shopping center does not indicate reasonable suspicion.

Question 781

Did the officer have probable cause to search a vehicle after observing marijuana?

Answer 781

Yes, he had probable cause to search the passenger compartment and trunk ## Footnote The smell of marijuana and visible marijuana provided grounds for the search.

Question 782

Where is department policy contained?

Answer 782

In four places: * General Orders * Highway Patrol Manuals * Management Memorandums * Comm-nets ## Footnote Each source has specific validity periods.

Question 783

What is the maximum travel distance for home storage of state vehicles for non-commanders?

Answer 783

50 miles ## Footnote Commanders are allowed a maximum of 70 miles.

Question 784

Vehicles stored overnight shall not be parked on a public street. True or False?

Answer 784

True ## Footnote This is mandated by department policy.

Question 785

Sensitive items such as weapons and state computers shall be __________ from the vehicle when parked overnight.

Answer 785

removed ## Footnote Unless the vehicle is parked in a locked garage without public access.

Question 786

Designated employees must report hazardous material incidents to which authorities?

Answer 786

County Health Officers and Boards of Supervisors ## Footnote Reports must be made within 72 hours of knowledge of the incident.

Question 787

The initial responsibility for a hazardous material spill rests with the jurisdiction where __________.

Answer 787

the first drop or first release of product occurred ## Footnote This establishes overall HMIC responsibility.