Aerial Apparatus Driver/Operator Chapters Flashcards by Patrick Wagner

2) Which of the following NFPA Standards sets minimum qualifications for driver/operators?

A) NFPA 1001.
B) NFPA 1002.
C) NFPA 1900.
D) NFPA 1999.

B) NFPA 1002.

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4) Which NFPA is the Comprehensive Occupational Medical Program for Fire Departments?

A) NFPA 1601.
B) NFPA 1500.
C) NFPA 1501.
D) NFPA 1582.

D) NFPA 1582.

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12) Which NFPA is the Standard for a Fire Service Vehicle Operations Training Program?

A) NFPA 1601.
B) NFPA 1500.
C) NFPA 1451.
D) NFPA 1582.

C) NFPA 1451.

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6) Driver/operators of fire apparatus are regulated by which of the following?

A) State or provincial laws.
B) City ordinances.
C) Departmental standard operating procedures (SOPs)
D) All the above

D) All the above

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1) The most common type of aerial fire apparatus operated in North America is -

A) Aerial ladder apparatus.
B) Aerial ladder platforms.
C) Telescoping aerial platforms
D) Water towers

A) Aerial ladder apparatus.

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4) Typically North American-made aerial ladders range from -

A) 25 - 100 ft.
B) 35 - 110 ft.
C) 50 - 135 ft.
D) 50 - 150 ft.

C) 50 - 135 ft.

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5) The working height of an aerial ladder is measured from the -

A) Ground to the highest rung in the ladder at its maximum elevation and extension.
B) Turntable to the highest rung in the ladder at its maximum elevation and extension.
C) Ground to the farthermost tip of the ladder at its maximum elevation and extension.
D) Turntable to the farthermost tip of the ladder at its maximum elevation and extension.

A) Ground to the highest rung in the ladder at its maximum elevation and extension.

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10) At the present time, the two most common materials used for the construction of aerial ladders are -

A) Heat-treated aluminum alloy and steel.
B) Steel and stainless steel.
C) Stainless steel and fiberglass.
D) Fiberglass and heat-treated aluminum.

A) Heat-treated aluminum alloy and steel.

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13) The base rails of an aerial ladder are commonly referred to as the -

A) Anchors
B) Footers
C) Supports
D) Beams

D) Beams

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17) Aerial ladder platforms commonly range in size from -

A) 50 feet to 65 feet.
B) 65 feet to 75 feet.
C) 75 feet to 100 feet.
D) 85 feet to 110 feet.

D) 85 feet to 110 feet.

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18) The most common aerial ladder platform apparatus in use today is the -

A) Straight chassis, three-axle vehicle with a rear-mounted aerial device.
B) Straight chassis, three-axle vehicle with a midship-mounted aerial device.
C) Straight chassis, two-axle vehicle with a rear-mounted aerial device.
D) Straight chassis, tractor-trailer type vehicle with a midship-mounted aerial device.

A) Straight chassis, three-axle vehicle with a rear-mounted aerial device.

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19) What is the primary difference between telescoping aerial platforms and aerial ladder platforms?

A) There is no noticeable difference.
B) Aerial platforms can be deployed faster than telescoping aerial platforms.
C) Aerial ladders are designed with a larger ladder that allows firefighters and victims to climb either direction of the ladder.
D) Telescoping ladders have a greater reach.

C) Aerial ladders are designed with a larger ladder that allows firefighters and victims to climb either direction of the ladder.

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20) Common sizes of telescoping aerial platforms used in North America range from -
A) 50 to 65 feet. 
B) 60 to 75 feet. 
C) 70 to 95 feet. 
D) 75 to 100 feet.

D) 75 to 100 feet.

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21) What is the additional benefit found in articulating aerial platforms that is not found in other aerial apparatus?

A) They can be used for ventilation purposes.
B) The platform is able to go up and over into areas where regular aerial apparatus cannot go.
C) They can be maneuvered a full 360 degrees.
D) They deploy quicker than other forms of aerial apparatus.

B) The platform is able to go up and over into areas where regular aerial apparatus cannot go.

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22) According to IFSTA, the NFPA classification of aerial platform apparatus can be broken down into all of the following types except for -

A) Aerial ladder platforms.
B) Telescoping aerial platforms.
C) Articulating aerial platforms.
D) Articulating telescoping platforms.

D) Articulating telescoping platforms.

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23) The required minimum area on an aerial platform is -

A) 10 square feet.
B) 12 square feet.
C) 14 square feet.
D) 16 square feet.

C) 14 square feet.

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24) It is required by NFPA that each aerial platform should have a railing completely enclosing it, and have no opening under the railing greater than -

A) 16 inches.
B) 24 inches.
C) 30 inches.
D) 36 inches.

B) 24 inches.

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25) How tall should the kick plate be on an aerial platform?
A) 3 inches. 
B) 4 inches. 
C) 5 inches. 
D) 6 inches.

B) 4 inches.

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26) What is the general purpose of the ‘kick plate?’

A) To prevent the firefighters feet from sliding off the platform in case he slips.
B) To drain off excessive water during inclement fire fighting operations.
C) To quickly open the platform gates during a rescue operation.
D) To control the vertical and horizontal movement of the platform.

A) To prevent the firefighters feet from sliding off the platform in case he slips.

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30) Water fog curtain nozzles mounted on the underside of aerial platforms, must have a nozzle flow rate of at least -

A) 75 gpm.
B) 100 gpm.
C) 150 gpm.
D) 175 gpm.

A) 75 gpm.

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31) All elevating platforms must have a load capacity when fully extended, at an elevation within its normal range of -

A) 500 lb..
B) 600 lbs.
C) 750 lbs.
D) 800 lbs.

C) 750 lbs.

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32) When the water delivery system is charged on an aerial platform, what is the minimum load capacity of the platform?

A) 500 lbs.
B) 600 lbs.
C) 750 lbs.
D) 800 lbs.

A) 500 lbs.

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33) The water delivery system of an aerial platform should be capable of delivering at least _____ in any position.

A) 500 gpm.
B) 750 gpm.
C) 900 gpm.
D) 1000 gpm.

D) 1000 gpm.

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34) NFPA 1901 states that any aerial platform 110 feet or less must be able to be raised from a bedded position to its maximum extension and be able to rotate 90 degrees within -

A) 60 seconds or less.
B) 90 seconds or less.
C) 120 seconds or less.
D) 150 seconds or less.

D) 150 seconds or less.

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35) NFPA 1901 states that any aerial platform taller than 110 feet must be able to be raised from a bedded position to its maximum extension and be able to rotate 90 degrees within -

A) 90 seconds or less.
B) 120 seconds or less.
C) 150 seconds or less.
D) There are no time requirements for elevating platforms taller than 110 feet.

D) There are no time requirements for elevating platforms taller than 110 feet.

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36) The telescoping aerial platform device in which the construction consists of four sides of steel or aluminum welded together to form a box shape with a hollow center is called -

A) Tubular truss-beam construction.
B) Box-beam construction.
C) Box-base construction.
D) Truss-box construction.

B) Box-beam construction.

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37) The telescoping aerial platform device in which the construction consists of tubular steel welded to form a box shape using cantilever or triangular truss design is called -

A) Tubular truss-beam construction.
B) Box-beam construction.
C) Box-base construction.
D) Truss-box construction.

A) Tubular truss-beam construction.

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39) Standard articulating aerial platforms range in height from -

A) 30 to 55 feet.
B) 45 to 75 feet.
C) 55 to 85 feet.
D) 75 to 110 feet.

C) 55 to 85 feet.

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41) According to NFPA 1901, in order to be considered a Quint, an apparatus must have a fire pump capacity of -

A) At least 500 gpm.
B) At least 850 gpm.
C) Less than 1000 gpm.
D) In excess of 1000 gpm.

D) In excess of 1000 gpm.

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42) To be considered a Quint, the tank capacity of the apparatus must hold at least -

A) 300 gallons.
B) 500 gallons.
C) 750 gallons.
D) 1000 gallons.

A) 300 gallons.

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46) Modern aerial apparatus devices are -

A) Gear driven.
B) Hydraulically activated.
C) Spring-operated.
D) Electronically driven.

B) Hydraulically activated.

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47) Hose used for hydraulic operations must be rated to burst at a pressure at least ___ stronger than the normal operating pressure.

A) 2 times.
B) 3 times.
C) 4 times.
D) 5 times.

C) 4 times.

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48) Which of the following valves used in an aerial apparatus hydraulic system limits the pressure build up in the system, and by doing so, thus prevents damage due to over pressurization?

A) Check valves.
B) Relief valves.
C) Counterbalance valves.
D) Selector valves.

B) Relief valves.

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49) Which of the following valves used in an aerial apparatus hydraulic system prevents fluid from flowing backwards through a component and acts as a safety feature in the event a leak develops in the system?

A) Check valves.
B) Relief valves.
C) Counterbalance valves.
D) Selector valves.

A) Check valves.

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50) Which of the following valves used in an aerial apparatus hydraulic system prevents the unintentional or undesirable motion of the device from its desired position?

A) Check valves.
B) Relief valves.
C) Counterbalance valves.
D) Selector valves.

C) Counterbalance valves.

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51) The three-way valve that directs fluid to either the stabilizer control valves or the aerial device control valves is called the -

A) Actuator valve.
B) Stack valve.
C) Monitor valve.
D) Selector valve.

D) Selector valve.

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52) Cylinders that are capable of receiving oil under pressure from both sides of a piston so that force can be created in either direction are called -

A) Double-acting cylinders.
B) Stabilizer cylinders.
C) Aerial device hoisting cylinders.
D) Aerial device extension cylinders.

A) Double-acting cylinders.

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53) The cylinders responsible for elevating the aerial device from its stowed position are called -

A) Double-acting cylinders.
B) Stabilizer cylinders.
C) Aerial device hoisting cylinders.
D) Aerial device extension cylinders.

C) Aerial device hoisting cylinders.

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54) The cylinders that force the stabilizer arms out and down, and take much of the weight of the apparatus off the suspension of the vehicle are called -

A) Double-acting cylinders.
B) Stabilizer cylinders.
C) Aerial device hoisting cylinders.
D) Aerial device extension cylinders.

B) Stabilizer cylinders.

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55) Duel cylinders of an aerial device that are responsible for extending the second section of the device are called -

A) Double-acting cylinders.
B) Stabilizer cylinders.
C) Aerial device hoisting cylinders.
D) Aerial device extension cylinders.

D) Aerial device extension cylinders.

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56) Water towers have a maximum flow rate of -

A) 500 gpm.
B) 1000 gpm.
C) 3000 gpm.
D) 5000 gpm.

D) 5000 gpm.

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57) Aerial apparatus turntable decking is constructed of -

A) Cast iron.
B) Stainless steel.
C) Rigid metal plates.
D) Rolled nickel-silver.

C) Rigid metal plates.

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59) Most older types of aerial apparatus have a 3 to 3 1/2 inch pipe attached to the underside of the base section where a masterstream is connected directly to the end of the pipe. This piped aerial ladder waterway is called -

A) Telescoping waterway.
B) Detachable ladder pipe system.
C) Elevating Platform waterway system.
D) Bed ladder pipe.

D) Bed ladder pipe.

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60) Bed ladder pipes are usually equipped with a -

A) Solid stream nozzle.
B) Fog nozzle.
C) Automatic nozzle.
D) Any of the above.

A) Solid stream nozzle.

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61) Most aerial ladders 110 feet or shorter, equipped with a telescoping water system have piping that extends -

A) To the tip of the base section only.
B) Past the base section to the tip of the first fly section. C) Directly to the tip of the last fly section.
D) Well past and above the last fly section.

C) Directly to the tip of the last fly section.

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62) Telescoping ladder pipe systems consist of three or four sections that reduce in size. Normally, the minimum internal diameter of the pipe is -
A) 3 inches.
B) 3 1/2 inches. 
C) 4 inches.
D) 4 1/2 inches.

C) 4 inches.

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63) Most telescoping water pipe systems are capable of flows up to -

A) 250 gpm.
B) 500 gpm.
C) 750 gpm.
D) 1000 gpm.

D) 1000 gpm.

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(1) Detachable water pipe. (2) Fire hose (3) Hose straps. (4) Clappered Siamese. (5) Gated Wye.

A) 1, 4.
B) 1, 2, 3, 5.
C) 1, 2, 3, 4.
D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.

C) 1, 2, 3, 4.

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65) Detachable water pipe systems are capable of flows up to -

A) 250 gpm.
B) 500 gpm.
C) 750 gpm.
D) 1000 gpm.

C) 750 gpm.

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66) Most ladders equipped with detachable ladder pipe systems restrict side ways movement of the nozzle to about ______ either side of the center point of the ladder.

A) 15 degrees
B) 30 degrees.
C) 90 degrees.
D) 120 degrees.

A) 15 degrees

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67) Elevating platform waterway systems are capable of flows up to -

A) 750 gpm.
B) 1000 gpm.
C) 1500 gpm.
D) 2000 gpm.

D) 2000 gpm.

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68) Most elevating platform waterway systems are equipped with at least one ______ discharge in the platform.

A) 1 1/2 inch
B) 1 3/4 inch
C) 2 1/2 inch.
D) 3 inch.

C) 2 1/2 inch.

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69) Which of the following statements regarding aerial apparatus systems is NOT true?

A) Some elevating platforms are equipped with two nozzles.
B) NFPA 1901 requires that all aerial devices be equipped with a breathing air system.
C) The 1996 edition of NFPA 1901 requires communication systems be installed on all types of aerial devices so that the operator of the device can communicate with those deployed at the top of the device.
D) Some water pipe systems have the addition of a piercing nozzle mounted at the end of the aerial device which is used to poke through various surfaces and deliver flows up to 300 gpm.

B) NFPA 1901 requires that all aerial devices be equipped with a breathing air system.

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70) A hydraulic system has three main components. Which one of the following is not one of them?

A) Hydraulic circulator.
B) Hydraulic fluid.
C) Hydraulic reservoir.
D) Hydraulic pump.

A) Hydraulic circulator.

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71) The positive displacement-type pump that imparts pressure on hydraulic oil within the hydraulic systems is called a -

A) Hydraulic pump.
B) Hydraulic displacement unit.
C) Hydraulic generator.
D) Hydraulic reservoir.

A) Hydraulic pump.

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72) A unit that supplies the hydraulic fluid that is moved in and out of the system is called -

A) Hydraulic displacement unit.
B) Uniform hydraulic pump.
C) Hydraulic reservoir.
D) Hydraulic reserve.

C) Hydraulic reservoir.

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73) A valve that controls the flow of hydraulic oil from an aerial apparatus hydraulic system to the hydraulic cylinders is called a -

A) Monitor valve.
B) Actuator valve.
C) Stack valve.
D) Double-Acting valve.

B) Actuator valve.

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74) A step-up transformer that converts a vehicle’s 12 or 24 volt DC current into 110-220 volt AC current is called a(n) -

A) Converter.
B) Transformer.
C) Inverter.
D) Generator.

C) Inverter.

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75) The most common power source used for emergency vehicles is a(n) -

A) Converter.
B) Transformer.
C) Inverter.
D) Generator.

D) Generator.

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76) Typically how much electrical power can be supplied by an inverter?

A) 1500 watts.
B) 1800 watts.
C) 2500 watts.
D) 5000 watts.

D) 5000 watts.

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77) Approximately how much electrical power can be supplied by the largest portable generator?

A) 2500 watts.
B) 3000 watts.
C) 5000 watts.
D) 10,000 watts.

D) 10,000 watts.

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(1) Gasoline (2) Diesel (3) Propane engines (4) Hydraulic systems (5) Power take-off systems.

A) 1, 2.
B) 1, 2, 3.
C) 2, 3, 5
D) All the above

D) All the above

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79) Vehicle mounted generators on pumpers and aerial devices normally have a capacity of up to -

A) 5000 watts.
B) 10,000 watts.
C) 12,000 watts.
D) 50,000 watts.

C) 12,000 watts.

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80) Vehicle mounted generators on rescue trucks can have a capacity of up to -

A) 5000 watts.
B) 10,000 watts.
C) 12,000 watts.
D) 50,000 watts.

D) 50,000 watts.

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81) When more than one electrical appliance needs to be connected to a vehicle mounted generator, a ___ is normally placed at the end of the generator’s power cord.

A) Splitter.
B) Divider.
C) Junction box.
D) Adapter.

C) Junction box.

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82) Which of the following would be considered the four basic types of hydraulic extrication tools?
(1) Spreaders (2) Combination spreader/shears (3) Shears (4) Combination ram/shears (5) Extension Rams (6) Combination speaders/ram

A) 1, 2, 4, 5.
B) 1, 3, 5, 6.
C) 1, 2, 3, 5.
D) 2, 3, 4, 6

C) 1, 2, 3, 5.

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83) Most hydraulic pumps are not capable of supplying full power to extrication tools when the hose length between the pump and the tool exceeds -

A) 50 feet.
B) 75 feet.
C) 100 feet.
D) 150 feet.

C) 100 feet.

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85) NFPA 1901, requires that all aerial apparatus must have a ladder complement of all but which of the following ladders?

A) Attic ladders.
B) Single ladders
C) Roof Ladders.
D) Extension ladders

B) Single ladders

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86) NFPA 1901 requires that aerial apparatus carry at least ___ extension ladder(s).

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) None

B) 2

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87) How many straight ladders with folding roof hooks should be carried by aerial apparatus according to NFPA 1901?

A) None.
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3

C) 2

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88) If the aerial apparatus is going to be operated as a Quint, how many attic ladders, straight ladders with folding roof hooks, an extension ladders must the apparatus carry?

A) None
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3

B) 1

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89) Normally pole ladders are ___ or longer.

A) 25 feet.
B) 35 feet
C) 40 feet.
D) 50 feet.

C) 40 feet.

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90) All of the following forcible entry tools are required by NFPA 1901 to be carried on aerial apparatus except for which of the following?

A) Crowbars
B) Pike poles
C) Claw tools.
D) Center punches.

D) Center punches.

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91) Hydraulic door openers are also called -

A) Rabbet tools.
B) Splitters.
C) Spreaders.
D) All the above

A) Rabbet tools.

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92) Smoke ejectors are -

A) Negative-pressure fans.
B) Positive-pressure blowers
C) Blowers that blow fresh air into the structure to assist in ventilation operations.
D) All the above.

A) Negative-pressure fans.

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93) __ are used to increase the air pressure inside a structure and force out the byproducts of combustion.

A) Negative-pressure fans.
B) Positive-pressure blowers.
C) Smoke ejectors.
D) Air injectors.

B) Positive-pressure blowers.

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94) The type of multidirectional valve used in an aerial device hydraulic system is called a -

A) Double-acting valve.
B) Stack valve.
C) Actuator valve.
D) Monitor valve.

B) Stack valve.

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95) A multidirectional valve used to control the flow of hydraulic oil through a hydraulic system is called a -

A) Monitor valve.
B) Double-acting valve.
C) Relief valve.
D) Check valve.

A) Monitor valve.

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96) When does ‘Loss Control’ begin?

A) The moment responding companies leave the fire station.
B) The moment responding companies arrive at the fireground.
C) Before the initial fire attack is made.
D) After the fire has been declared under control.

A) The moment responding companies leave the fire station.

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97) In a hydraulic cylinder, the pivoting end of the piston rod that is connected to the anchor ear by the heel pin is called the -

A) Heel pin cylinder.
B) Articulating ring.
C) Trunnion.
D) Ear plate.

C) Trunnion.

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98) Which of the following sections of an aerial device are NOT extended by a system of cables and pulleys?

A) The second section.
B) The third section.
C) The fourth section.
D) The fifth section.

A) The second section.

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99) The cables used to extend aerial ladders are usually a corrosion-resistant, aircraft quality cables made with high-strength steel called -

A) Hardened steel.
B) Carbide steel.
C) Plow steel.
D) Aviator’s steel.

C) Plow steel.

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100) On aerial apparatus, the operator’s control pedestal usually stands about __ high.

A) 3 feet.
B) 3 1/2 feet.
C) 4 feet.
D) 4 1/2 feet.

B) 3 1/2 feet.

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101) Ladder pipes are usually equipped with what size hose line?

A) 2 inch.
B) 2 1/2 inch.
C) 3 to 3 1/2 inch.
D) 4 inch.

C) 3 to 3 1/2 inch.

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102) Firefighter Pete says that most ladder pipes should not be operated from an aerial positioned at a 90 degree angle. Firefighter Paddy says that ladder pipes should not be operated at a vertical position. Firefighter Paul says that if at all possible, a ladder pipe should be placed between 70 and 80 degrees.

Who is correct?

A) Pete.
B) Paddy.
C) Paul.
D) The are all correct.

D) The are all correct.

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103) Which NFPA standard establishes requirements for the quality of the air in breathing air systems?

A) NFPA 1901.
B) NFPA 1902.
C) NFPA 1990.
D) NFPA 1989.

D) NFPA 1989.

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105) A bank of lights will usually have a capacity of __ per light.

A) 300 to 1000 watts.
B) 400 to 1200 watts.
C) 500 to 1500 watts.
D) 1000 to 3000 watts.

C) 500 to 1500 watts.

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106) According to NFPA 1901, what are the lighting requirements for lights at the tip of an aerial device?

A) They must generate a minimum of 1000 watts.
B) They must be able to be controlled from the tip of the aerial device as well as from the turntable.
C) They must be quartz halogen in construction.
D) There are no requirements for lights on the tip of aerial devices listed in NFPA 1901.

D) There are no requirements for lights on the tip of aerial devices listed in NFPA 1901.

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107) The practice of minimizing damage and providing customer service through effective mitigation and recovery efforts before, during, and after an incident is called -

A) Salvage.
B) Overhaul.
C) Loss containment.
D) Loss control.

D) Loss control.

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Which is considered the most important criteria for
determining who will become a driver/operator?
p. 13

A.) Completion of training
B.) Skill with the apparatus
C.) Years with the department
D.) Rank of the fire fighter

B.) Skill with the apparatus

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Which standard offers guidance about setting up a
driver/operator training program?
p. 14

A.) NFPA 1229
B.) NFPA 1582
C.) NFPA 1451
D.) NFPA 1301

C.) NFPA 1451

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Which skill is NOT required of the driver/operator but
very useful to possess?
p. 13

A.) Mechanical aptitude
B.) Mathematical skills
C.) Reading skills
D.) Physical fitness

A.) Mechanical aptitude

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Which math skill would NOT be useful for the
driver/operator?
p. 11

A.) Extracting square roots
B.) Division with fractions
C.) Determining circumference
D.) Addition with whole numbers

C.) Determining circumference

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Which type of conditions do most driving regulations
pertain to?
p. 15

A.) Wet, open roads with clear visibility
B.) Dry, open roads with clear visibility
C.) Dry, open roads with moderate visibility
D.) Wet, open roads with moderate visibility

B.) Dry, open roads with clear visibility

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Which standard contains the requirements for the periodic medical examination?
p. 12

A.) NFPA 1500
B.) NFPA 1400
C.) NFPA 1300
D.) NFPA 1600

A.) NFPA 1500

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Which standard contains requirements for the vision and hearing screening of firefighters?
p. 12-13

A.) NFPA 1370
B.) NFPA 1591
C.) NFPA 1582
D.) NFPA 1327

C.) NFPA 1582

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Which standard must the driver/operator meet the
qualifications listed in if an aerial apparatus will be
operated?
p. 10

A.) NFPA 1002
B.) NFPA 1003
C.) NFPA 1001
D.) NFPA 1004

C.) NFPA 1001

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Which standard sets minimum qualifications for
driver/operators?
p. 10

A.) NFPA 1005
B.) NFPA 1002
C.) NFPA 1003
D.) NFPA 1004

B.) NFPA 1002

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What are firefighter fatalities while traveling to and/or
from an incident second to?
p. 10

A.) Stroke
B.) Soft tissue injury
C.) Heart attack
D.) Smoke inhalation

C.) Heart attack

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Which agency establishes the basic requirements for
licensing drivers in the United States?
p. 15

A.) Transport Advisor
B.) Federal DOT
C.) National Highway Patrol
D.) Licensing Office

B.) Federal DOT

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Which statement is correct regarding the operation of the apparatus by the driver/operator?
p. 15

A.) On the return trip some rules of the road apply
B.) On the return trip emergency lighting should be used
C.) On the return trip all rules of the road apply
D.) On the return trip emergency lighting and siren should be used

C.) On the return trip all rules of the road apply

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Who is ultimately responsible for safely transporting
firefighters, apparatus and equipment to and from the
emergency scene?
p. 9

A.) Driver/operator
B.) Safety officer
C.) Logistics coordinator
D.) Incident commander

A.) Driver/operator

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What is the common size range of telescoping aerial
platforms in use in North America?
p. 52

A.) 100 to 125 feet (30 m to 37 m)
B.) 125 to 150 feet (37 to 44 m)
C.) 50 to 75 feet (16 m to 23 m)
D.) 75 to 100 feet (23 m to 30 m)

D.) 75 to 100 feet (23 m to 30 m)

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Which type of valve allows liquid to flow in only one
direction?
p. 62

A.) Actuator
B.) Counterbalance
C.) Relief
D.) Check

D.) Check

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What rate does the NFPA standard require the protective water fog curtain nozzle on the elevating platform be capable of flowing as a minimum?
p. 50

A.) 85 gpm (320 L/min)
B.) 75 gpm (284 L/min)
C.) 65 gpm (246 L/min)
D.) 95 gpm (360 L/min)

B.) 75 gpm (284 L/min)

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Which of the following is NOT a minimum requirement for ladders to be carried on the aerial apparatus?
p. 81

A.) Attic
B.) A-frame
C.) Roof
D.) Extension

B.) A-frame

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Which configuration allows the driver/operator the option of using the apparatus as an aerial ladder or aerial
ladder platform?
p. 51

A.) Detachable platform
B.) Front-mounted platform
C.) Midship-mounted platform
D.) Rear-mounted platform

A.) Detachable platform

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Which standard contains requirements for the quality of
the air in breathing air systems?
p. 74

A.) NFPA 1903
B.) NFPA 1974
C.) NFPA 1989
D.) NFPA 1901

C.) NFPA 1989

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Which piece of safety equipment should always be used when operating hydraulic tools?
p. 79

A.) Safety gloves
B.) Turnout gear
C.) Safety goggles
D.) Safety helmet

A.) Safety gloves

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What is the medium by which the hydraulic system transmits force?
p. 61

A.) Hydraulic fluid
B.) Diesel fuel
C.) Water
D.) Gasoline

A.) Hydraulic fluid

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What is generally the range of portable lights?
p. 76

A.) 400 to 1,000 watts (0.4 to 1 kW)
B.) 400 to 2,000 watts (0.4 to 2 kW)
C.) 300 to 2,000 watts (0.3 to 2 kW)
D.) 300 to 1,000 watts (0.3 to 1 kW)

D.) 300 to 1,000 watts (0.3 to 1 kW)

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How many permanently mounted elevated master stream nozzles are typically in the platform?
p. 51

A.) Two or three
B.) Three or four
C.) Four or five
D.) One or two

D.) One or two

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Where is the detachable ladder pipe designed to be
clamped?
p. 70

A.) Middle two rungs of the fly section
B.) Bottom two rungs of the fly section
C.) Top two rungs of the fly section
D.) Any two rungs of the fly section

C.) Top two rungs of the fly section

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What is the oldest type of pre-piped aerial ladder
waterway?
p. 69

A.) Telescoping waterway
B.) Bed ladder pipe
C.) Detachable ladder pipe
D.) Elevating platform

B.) Bed ladder pipe

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What do some aerial manufacturers provide in case of a system failure?
p. 67

A.) Reverse hydraulic lines
B.) Manually operated crank
C.) Secondary device operator
D.) Backup auxiliary batteries

B.) Manually operated crank

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Where is the working height of an aerial ladder measured while the ladder is at maximum elevation and extension?
p. 46

A.) From the ground to the highest rung
B.) From the boom to the highest rung
C.) From the platform to the highest rung
D.) From the cab to the highest rung

A.) From the ground to the highest rung

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What type of steel are the extension and retraction cables constructed from for the aerial device?
p. 65

A.) Stainless
B.) Plow
C.) Cast-iron
D.) Rig

B.) Plow

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To which part of the ladder are the rungs attached?
p. 58

A.) Rails
B.) Base rails
C.) Fly sections
D.) Base

B.) Base rails

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In which order should the control levers be positioned on the pedestal from left to right?
p. 68

A.) Rotation, elevation, extension
B.) Extension, rotation, elevation
C.) Rotation, extension, elevation
D.) Extension, elevation, rotation

B.) Extension, rotation, elevation

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Which part of the aerial device has the primary function of providing continuous rotation on a horizontal plane?
p. 65

A.) Control pedestal
B.) Cable system
C.) Turntable
D.) Waterway

C.) Turntable

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What are smoke ejectors powered by?
p. 83

A.) Gasoline engines
B.) Water-driven motors
C.) Hydraulic engines
D.) Electric motors

A.) Gasoline engines

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Which is designed specifically for the deployment of
elevated master streams?
p. 72

A.) Telescoping waterway systems
B.) Detachable ladder pipe systems
C.) Water tower systems
D.) Elevating platform waterway systems

C.) Water tower systems

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Which is a commonly used material when constructing an aerial ladder?
p. 58

A.) Cast iron
B.) Fiberglass
C.) Steel
D.) Wood

C.) Steel

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What can be used when multiple connections are needed?
p. 78

A.) Junction boxes
B.) Electrical power cords
C.) Adapter boxes
D.) Auxiliary power supply

A.) Junction boxes

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Which type of nozzles are bed ladder pipes most often equipped with?
p. 69

A.) Branch stream
B.) Solid stream
C.) Fog stream
D.) Foam stream

B.) Solid stream

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Which is considered a disadvantage of the inverter?
p. 75

A.) Small capacity
B.) Inefficiency
C.) Lack of stability
D.) High noise output

A.) Small capacity

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Where is a protective water fog curtain nozzle required on the elevating platform?
p. 50

A.) Top
B.) Bottom
C.) Rear
D.) Front

B.) Bottom

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What is the first priority when positioning the quint
apparatus?
p. 57

A.) Aerial device
B.) Hose lay
C.) Ladder company
D.) Command center

A.) Aerial device

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On which fly section is the articulating platform put on
the combination aerial device with four fly sections?
p. 54

A.) Fourth
B.) Third
C.) First
D.) Second

A.) Fourth

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What should the use of the auxiliary pumps be limited to after a main system failure?
p. 63

A.) Bedding the aerial device
B.) Removing the hydraulic fluid
C.) Moving the aerial device
D.) Extending the rescue ladder

A.) Bedding the aerial device

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Which aerial ladder platform apparatus is most common today?
p. 51

A.) Straight-chassis, three-axle vehicle with rear-mounted
aerial device
B.) Straight-chassis, three-axle vehicle with a detachable
platform
C.) Straight-chassis, three-axle vehicle with a front-mounted aerial device
D.) Straight-chassis, three-axle vehicle with midship-mounted aerial device

A.) Straight-chassis, three-axle vehicle with rear-mounted

aerial device

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Which is designed to supply an adequate amount of fluid to operate the hydraulic system and to condition the fluid while it is stored in the tank?
p. 61

A.) Filter
B.) Reservoir
C.) Cooler
D.) Tubing

B.) Reservoir

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Where are the aerial device extension cylinders fitted?
p. 65

A.) Turntable
B.) Base section
C.) Fly section
D.) Trunnion

B.) Base section

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What is the maximum flow of the water tower?
p. 55

A.) 4,000 gpm (16 000 L/min)
B.) 2,000 gpm (8 000 L/min)
C.) 5,000 gpm (20 000 L/min)
D.) 3,000 gpm (12 000 L/min)

C.) 5,000 gpm (20 000 L/min)

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Up to what flow is the broken stream nozzle at the tip of the piercing nozzle of a water tower system capable of
flowing?
p. 72-73

A.) 500 gpm (1 600 L/min)
B.) 600 gpm (1 900 L/min)
C.) 300 gpm (1 000 L/min)
D.) 400 gpm (1 300 L/min)

C.) 300 gpm (1 000 L/min)

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How often should the driver/operator examine power cords for damage to the insulation or connections?
p. 78

A.) Daily
B.) Monthly
C.) Quarterly
D.) Weekly

A.) Daily

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How are most bed ladder pipe nozzles operated?
p. 69

A.) Remotely
B.) Electronically
C.) Hydraulically
D.) Manually

D.) Manually

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Which type of valve prevents damage due to
over pressurization?
p. 62

A.) Check
B.) Stack
C.) Monitor
D.) Relief

D.) Relief

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Where are the compressed breathing air cylinder of the breathing air system mounted?
p. 74

A.) At the bottom of the aerial device
B.) Under the working aerial platform
C.) On the top of the turntable
D.) Along the ladder system

A.) At the bottom of the aerial device

What is the function of the hydraulic system?
p. 60

A.) Provide pressure
B.) Provide water
C.) Provide lighting
D.) Provide power

D.) Provide power

What is the minimum number of sections that telescoping
aerial platform devices have?
p. 52

A.) Four
B.) One
C.) Three
D.) Two

D.) Two

Which piece of equipment carried on the aerial apparatus is used for forcible entry and vertical ventilation
operations?
p. 82

A.) Hacksaw
B.) Chain saw
C.) Pike pole
D.) Sledgehammer

B.) Chain saw

Which type of force is increased as the piston area
increases?
p. 63

A.) Leeward
B.) Downward
C.) Windward
D.) Upward

D.) Upward

Up to what amount of power can generators mounted on rescue vehicles generate?
p. 76

A.) 50,000 watts (50 kW)
B.) 20,000 watts (20 kW)
C.) 40,000 watts (40 kW)
D.) 30,000 watts (30 kW)

A.) 50,000 watts (50 kW)

Which floors are “pole” ground ladders used to access?
p. 81

A.) Third or fourth
B.) Fourth or fifth
C.) Fifth or sixth
D.) Sixth or seventh

B.) Fourth or fifth

Up to what water flow is possible from an elevated
platform?
p. 72

A.) 2,000 gpm (8 000 L/min)
B.) 3,000 gpm (12 000 L/min)
C.) 5,000 gpm (20 000 L/min)
D.) 4,000 gpm (16 000 L/min)

A.) 2,000 gpm (8 000 L/min)

Up to what elevation can fire streams be deployed from the water tower?
p. 55

A.) 30 degrees from the ground
B.) 60 degrees from the ground
C.) 45 degrees from the ground
D.) 90 degrees from the ground

D.) 90 degrees from the ground

How many major functions/features does the quint apparatus have?
p. 56

A.) Seven
B.) Six
C.) Five
D.) Four

C.) Five

What is used to operate all new aerial devices today?
p. 60

A.) Hydraulics
B.) Pneumonic
C.) Manually operated
D.) Electricity

A.) Hydraulics

Which two places does NFPA standard require a control station on an aerial apparatus?
p. 67

A.) On the ladder tip and in the platform
B.) On the turntable and in the platform
C.) On the ladder tip and in the cab
D.) On the turntable and in the cab

B.) On the turntable and in the platform

Within what maximum timeframe should an elevating platform that is 110 feet (34 m) or less be able to be raised from the bedded position to the maximum elevation and extension and be rotated 90 degrees?
p. 50

A.) 150 seconds
B.) 160 seconds
C.) 180 seconds
D.) 170 seconds

A.) 150 seconds

How high should the kick plate on the elevated platform be?
p. 48

A.) 4 inches (100 mm)
B.) 10 inches (250 mm)
C.) 6 inches (150 mm)
D.) 8 inches (200 mm)

A.) 4 inches (100 mm)

Which operates by lowering the air pressure inside of the building?
p. 83

A.) Positive-pressure blower
B.) Smoke ejector
C.) Smoke blower
D.) Positive-pressure ejector

B.) Smoke ejector

Which part of the ladder are the top chords to which the opposite ends of the trussing are attached?
p. 58

A.) Rails
B.) Base rails
C.) Rungs
D.) Fly sections

A.) Rails

About how far from center in either direction do most
aerial ladders with detachable ladder pipe appliances
limit sideways movement of the nozzle?
p. 71

A.) 15 degrees
B.) 30 degrees
C.) 60 degrees
D.) 45 degrees

A.) 15 degrees

What should be the minimum load capacity of all elevating platforms when the aerial device is fully extended, at any elevation within its normal range of motion, and with no water in the piping system?
p. 50

A.) 850 pounds (385 kg)
B.) 650 pounds (294 kg)
C.) 750 pounds (340 kg)
D.) 950 pounds (430 kg)

C.) 750 pounds (340 kg)

What is the height range of the standard articulating
aerial platform?
p. 54

A.) 65 to 95 feet (20 m to 29 m)
B.) 45 to 75 feet (14 m to 23 m)
C.) 75 to 105 feet (23 m to 32 m)
D.) 55 to 85 feet (17 m to 26 m)

D.) 55 to 85 feet (17 m to 26 m)

Which category does the telescoping aerial platform fit into?
p. 46

A.) Water tower
B.) Elevating platform apparatus
C.) Aerial platform apparatus
D.) Aerial ladder apparatus

B.) Elevating platform apparatus

What is considered to be normal hydraulic pressure?
p. 63

A.) 950 to 3,500 psi (6 650 kPa to 24 500 kPa)
B.) 750 to 2,000 psi (5 250 kPa to 14 000 kPa)
C.) 650 to 1,500 psi (4 550 kPa to 10 500 kPa)
D.) 850 to 3,000 psi (5 950 kPa to 21 000 kPa)

D.) 850 to 3,000 psi (5 950 kPa to 21 000 kPa)

What is generally the minimum internal diameter of the telescoping waterway’s piping system?
p. 69-70

A.) 4 inches (100 mm)
B.) 7 inches (200 mm)
C.) 5 inches (125 mm)
D.) 6 inches (150 mm)

A.) 4 inches (100 mm)

Which NFPA standard contains minimum and maximum dimensions for the aerial ladder?
p. 60

A.) 1301
B.) 1601
C.) 1901
D.) 1101

C.) 1901

What is different about a tillered apparatus?
p. 48

A.) Chassis is shorter
B.) Rear wheels are steered
C.) Front wheels are lower
D.) Ladder is longer

B.) Rear wheels are steered

What position relative to the ground must the platform be at all times?
p. 48

A.) Vertical
B.) Slanted
C.) There is no standard
D.) Horizontal

D.) Horizontal

How long should an auxiliary pump be operated before a rest period to prevent overheating?
p. 63

A.) Four minutes
B.) One minute
C.) Two minutes
D.) Three minutes

B.) One minute

Up to what flow are most telescoping water systems capable of flowing?
p. 70

A.) 1,000 gpm (4 000 L/min)
B.) 2,500 gpm (10 000 L/min)
C.) 1,500 gpm (6 000 L/min)
D.) 2,000 gpm (8 000 L/min)

A.) 1,000 gpm (4 000 L/min)

Up to what water flow is possible from an elevated
platform?
p. 72

A.) 2,000 gpm (8 000 L/min)
B.) 3,000 gpm (12 000 L/min)
C.) 5,000 gpm (20 000 L/min)
D.) 4,000 gpm (16 000 L/min)

A.) 2,000 gpm (8 000 L/min)

Where should the ladder be placed for optimal stream penetration and the safest service with a detachable ladder pipe system?
p. 71

A.) 60 to 70 degrees
B.) 70 to 80 degrees
C.) 90 to 100 degrees
D.) 80 to 90 degrees

B.) 70 to 80 degrees

What is the main function of fixed lights?
p. 77

A.) Provide specific area lighting
B.) Prevent criminals from escaping the scene
C.) Provide overall lighting for the scene
D.) Eliminate shadows in low lying areas

C.) Provide overall lighting for the scene

What is the minimum jackknife angle that manufacturers are building in the tillered truck?
p. 48

A.) 30 degree
B.) 60 degree
C.) 45 degree
D.) 90 degree

A.) 30 degree

At what hydraulic hose distance will the tool operation
begin to diminish?
p. 79

A.) 100 feet (30 m)
B.) 200 feet (60 m)
C.) 150 feet (45 m)
D.) 250 feet (75 m)

A.) 100 feet (30 m)

Which standard should be consulted when designing an aerial apparatus?
p. 45

A.) NFPA 1501
B.) NFPA 1901
C.) NFPA 1301
D.) NFPA 1701

B.) NFPA 1901

How many times greater than normal operating pressure must hydraulic hoselines be rated to withstand as a minimum?
p. 61

A.) Three times
B.) Four times
C.) Five times
D.) Six times

B.) Four times

What is the maximum allowed opening under the railing on an elevated platform?
p. 48

A.) 12 inches (305 mm)
B.) 48 inches (1 220 mm)
C.) 36 inches (915 mm)
D.) 24 inches (610 mm)

D.) 24 inches (610 mm)

How many transmitter/receivers are on an aerial device?
p. 73

A.) Two
B.) Five
C.) Three
D.) Four

A.) Two

What is the most common size electrical power cord used with portable equipment?
p. 78

A.) 16-gauge, 3-wire
B.) 12-gauge, 3-wire
C.) 14-gauge, 3-wire
D.) 18-gauge, 3-wire

B.) 12-gauge, 3-wire

How many scoop shovels must be carried under NFPA 1901 to assist with salvage and overhaul operations?
p. 83

A.) Five
B.) Four
C.) Two
D.) Three

C.) Two

How far from the railroad tracks do most railroad
companies advise that vehicles be kept as a minimum?
p. 212

A.) 25 feet (8 m)
B.) 55 feet (17 m)
C.) 35 feet (11 m)
D.) 45 feet (14 m)

A.) 25 feet (8 m)

What is a good indicator of an underground void?
p. 196

A.) Electric station
B.) Multiple lanes
C.) Manhole cover
D.) Poles over 20 feet (6 m)

C.) Manhole cover

Which zone has been contaminated by the released hazardous material?
p. 211

A.) Hot
B.) Cold
C.) Cool
D.) Warm

A.) Hot

Which statement about aerial apparatus placement when being used in high wind is NOT correct?
p. 199

A.) Position the apparatus so the device will be operated over the front of the apparatus
B.) Be aware of certain buildings where wind gusting occurs
C.) It is preferred that the apparatus be placed parallel to
the wind
D.) Spot the apparatus so the device is used at the maximum extension needed

D.) Spot the apparatus so the device is used at the maximum extension needed

What is the minimum distance above the rails that the
aerial device should be kept when it must be operated
across the tracks with a halt confirmation?
p. 212

A.) 35 feet (11 m)
B.) 25 feet (8 m)
C.) 15 feet (5 m)
D.) 45 feet (14 m)

B.) 25 feet (8 m)

Which of the following is NOT correct regarding a response to an incident on a highway or turnpike?
p. 208

A.) Place headlights in the high-beam setting, without flashing
B.) Do not travel against the normal flow of traffic unless
absolutely necessary
C.) Aerial devices may be needed when the incident occurs on a bridge or overpass
D.) Use a minimum number of warning lights at the scene during nighttime operations

A.) Place headlights in the high-beam setting, without flashing

In which of the following would the elevated master stream NOT be commonly used?
p. 194

A.) Building protection
B.) Exposure protection
C.) Defensive attack
D.) Blitz attack

A.) Building protection

Which of the following is NOT a correct statement when operating an aerial device from a bridge’s surface?
p. 216

A.) Use caution when raising the device if overhead power lines are present
B.) Remember that bridges freeze last during inclement weather
C.) Be sure the road surface to be used is in good condition
D.) Be sure the bridge has a sufficient load capacity

B.) Remember that bridges freeze last during inclement weather

Which of the following is NOT correct when responding to a hazardous materials incident?
p. 210

A.) Park and approach from the uphill and upwind side if
possible
B.) Always stop well short of the incident scene until the
nature of the hazard is understood
C.) Obtain information on the wind speed and direction after arriving on the scene
D.) Do not park over manholes or storm drains

C.) Obtain information on the wind speed and direction after arriving on the scene

Where is the degree of angle measured from on the aerial device?
p. 190

A.) Truck’s frontal line of axis
B.) Truck’s vertical line of axis
C.) Truck’s center line of axis
D.) Truck’s horizontal line of axis

C.) Truck’s center line of axis

Which location of the aerial apparatus will allow
retreating firefighters to use it for escape?
p. 192

A.) Side of the building opposite the fire
B.) Side of the building on the windward side
C.) Side of the building with the fire
D.) Side of the building on the leeward side

A.) Side of the building opposite the fire

How should the wheels of the shielding apparatus at the highway incident be placed?
p. 209

A.) Away from working firefighters
B.) Parallel to the apparatus axis
C.) Toward working firefighters
D.) Perpendicular to the apparatus axis

A.) Away from working firefighters

Who is generally assigned to the position of the staging area manager?
p. 206

A.) Incident commander
B.) First arriving company officer
C.) First arriving sector chief
D.) Chief officer

B.) First arriving company officer

At what degree from in-line is the tillered apparatus the most stable when parked for aerial operations?
p. 200

A.) 60 degrees
B.) 45 degrees
C.) 90 degrees
D.) 30 degrees

A.) 60 degrees

Which of the following is NOT a main tactical use for any aerial device (excluding water towers)?
p. . 191

A.) Ventilation
B.) Access to lower levels
C.) Fire suppression
D.) Rescue

B.) Access to lower levels

In which zone will the apparatus an driver/operator be
positioned at the hazardous materials incident?
p. 211

A.) Warm
B.) Cold
C.) Cool
D.) Hot

B.) Cold

Which principles should be followed when using the aerial device to provide access over a wing?
p. 214

A.) Accessing a window in a building
B.) Accessing a parapet on a building
C.) Accessing a roof on a building
D.) Accessing a wall of a building

C.) Accessing a roof on a building

Up to what height building should the aerial apparatus
park on the outside and the engine companies on the side of the street closest to the building?
p. 189

A.) Five stories
B.) Seven stories
C.) Six stories
D.) Four stories

D.) Four stories

Where within the target fire area is it recommended the master stream be directed to maximize steam conversion?
p. 195

A.) Floor
B.) Front wall
C.) Rear wall
D.) Ceiling

D.) Ceiling

Where should the apparatus never be spotted when operating at storage tank fires?
p. 216

A.) Outside the dike
B.) Inside the grounds fence
C.) Outside the grounds fence
D.) Inside the dike

D.) Inside the dike

Where is the best rescue approach made from?
p. 191

A.) Upwind
B.) No recommendation
C.) Downwind
D.) Upwind or downwind

A.) Upwind

Between what positions does the maximum loading for any unsupported aerial device occur?
p. 203

A.) 50 and 60 degrees from horizontal
B.) 60 and 70 degrees from horizontal
C.) 80 and 90 degrees from horizontal
D.) 70 and 80 degrees from horizontal

D.) 70 and 80 degrees from horizontal

What is the minimum number of lanes that should be closed down next to the highway incident?
p. 209

A.) Four
B.) Two
C.) Three
D.) One

D.) One

On which type of apparatus can one side of the apparatus be lifted higher than the other to level the truck?
p. 202

A.) Single
B.) Double
C.) Triple
D.) Quadruple

A.) Single

Which part of the building is ideal for apparatus
placement in the event of a building collapse?
p. 191

A.) The rear
B.) The front
C.) A corner
D.) A side

C.) A corner

How should the turntable be spotted when the apparatus must be operated off an incline?
p. 201

A.) Downwind from the point of operation
B.) Uphill from the point of operation
C.) Downhill from the point of operation
D.) Upwind from the point of operation

C.) Downhill from the point of operation

Which type of surface should be used to spot the apparatus as a last resort?
p. 196

A.) Dry
B.) Hard
C.) Cold
D.) Soft

D.) Soft

Where would the aerial apparatus need to be placed when serving a supportive role at a technical rescue incident?
p. 218

A.) Out of the way of other apparatus
B.) On the debris pile
C.) Close to the rescue
D.) Far from the incident

A.) Out of the way of other apparatus

How far behind the shielding apparatus should an
additional apparatus be parked to provide additional
protection during a highway incident?
p. 209

A.) 150 to 200 feet (45 m to 60 m)
B.) 100 to 150 feet (30 m to 45 m)
C.) 250 to 300 feet (75 m to 90 m)
D.) 200 to 250 feet (60 m to 75 m)

A.) 150 to 200 feet (45 m to 60 m)

What is the minimum distance away that additional units should stage with Level I staging operations?
p. 206

A.) Two blocks
B.) Three blocks
C.) Four blocks
D.) One block

D.) One block

Which type of calls constitute a majority of emergency
calls for firefighters?
p. 212

A.) Medical
B.) Wildland
C.) Terrorist
D.) Collision

A.) Medical

Where must the apparatus be positioned when fighting a fire at a processing facility?
p. 217

A.) Outside
B.) Downwind
C.) Upwind
D.) Inside

C.) Upwind

What is the reason that additional caution must be used when using ladders and booms when ice is present?
p. 197

A.) Speed
B.) Angle
C.) Location
D.) Weight

D.) Weight

Which causes the greatest amount of stress on the aerial device?
p. 190

A.) Short extensions at high angles
B.) Long extensions at low angles
C.) Short extensions at low angles
D.) Long extensions at high angles

B.) Long extensions at low angles

What is the goal to keep in mind when spotting an aerial apparatus near overhead power lines?
p. 199

A.) 25 feet (8 m)
B.) 15 feet (5 m)
C.) 20 feet (6 m)
D.) 10 feet (3 m)

D.) 10 feet (3 m)

What is the primary spotting consideration associated with hot weather?
p. 198

A.) Distance to the target
B.) Weakening of joining structures on the device
C.) Heat exhaustion of the firefighters
D.) Weakening of marginal paved surfaces

D.) Weakening of marginal paved surfaces

Which is the preferred procedure to push the heat or fire away from the aerial while the rescue operation is in
progress?
p. 192

A.) Wide-angle fog stream
B.) Narrow-angle fog stream
C.) Solid stream
D.) Straight stream

A.) Wide-angle fog stream

What is most ideal if the apparatus must be positioned in a dead-end access?
p. 205

A.) Back it into place
B.) Use a good driver
C.) Do not use stabilizers
D.) Put it elsewhere

A.) Back it into place

Who must initiate Level II staging?
p. 206

A.) Dispatch operator
B.) Staging officer
C.) Fire Marshal
D.) Incident commander

D.) Incident commander

Which is the least stable position for the deployment of the aerial device?
p. 200

A.) Perpendicular to the device
B.) Parallel to the device
C.) Front end of the device
D.) Rear end of the device

A.) Perpendicular to the device

In which operations are elevated streams most commonly used?
p. 195

A.) Interior
B.) Aggressive
C.) Defensive
D.) Offensive

C.) Defensive

In which situation(s) is the stress on the aerial device?
p. 190

A.) Aerial device is in motion
B.) Stress does not affect the device
C.) Aerial device in motion or still
D.) Aerial device is still

A.) Aerial device is in motion

Which is the best location to park the apparatus at a
medical incident?
p. 212

A.) Off the street
B.) In the street
C.) In the grass
D.) As a shield

A.) Off the street

Where in the window is the ideal placement of the nozzle of the elevated master stream when performing the blitz attack?
p. 194

A.) Lower portion
B.) Outer portion
C.) Upper portion
D.) Center portion

A.) Lower portion

Where should the aerial apparatus be positioned when providing access for venting a flat roof?
p. 193

A.) Unburned side as far from the area being vented as possible
B.) Burned side as close to the area being vented as possible
C.) Unburned side as close to the area being vented as possible
D.) Burned side as far from the area being vented as possible

C.) Unburned side as close to the area being vented as possible

What needs to be done if ice or snow melts once the
stabilizers have been set?
p. 197

A.) Move the apparatus
B.) Put on the emergency brake
C.) Raise the stabilizer
D.) Lower the stabilizer

D.) Lower the stabilizer

Which of the following is NOT an indication that an
exterior collapse may occur?
p. 204

A.) Interior collapse
B.) Bulging roofs
C.) Falling bricks, blocks or mortar
D.) Large cracks in the exterior

B.) Bulging roofs

What is a device that transfers the center of gravity of
an apparatus as the aerial device is extended?
p. 196

A.) Gravtitator
B.) Eliminator
C.) Stabilizer
D.) Transferor

C.) Stabilizer

Where is the decontamination corridor located at the
hazardous materials incident?
p. 211

A.) Cold zone
B.) Hot zone
C.) Cool zone
D.) Warm zone

D.) Warm zone

Which is the most common reason that an aerial apparatus may be required to position on and operate from a bridge or overpass?
p. 215

A.) Large fire occurs on the bridge
B.) Large fire occurs under the bridge
C.) Large fire occurs remote from the bridge
D.) Large fire occurs next to the bridge

D.) Large fire occurs next to the bridge

What should the aerial apparatus be positioned away from when positioned in the general area where the emergency aircraft comes to a stop?
p. 214

A.) Aircraft emergency slides
B.) Front direction of travel
C.) Tail rudder slides
D.) Cockpit of the plane

A.) Aircraft emergency slides

Between what positions does the maximum loading for any unsupported aerial device occur?
p. 203

A.) 50 and 60 degrees from horizontal
B.) 60 and 70 degrees from horizontal
C.) 80 and 90 degrees from horizontal
D.) 70 and 80 degrees from horizontal

D.) 70 and 80 degrees from horizontal

Where should the aerial device be operated to ensure the greatest stability of the aerial apparatus?
p. 200

A.) Left side or front
B.) Right side of rear
C.) Front or rear
D.) Left or right side

C.) Front or rear

What should the collapse zone be equal to as a minimum?
p. 204

A.) Two times the height of the building
B.) Two and one-half times the height of the building
C.) One and one-half times the height of the building
D.) One times the height of the building

C.) One and one-half times the height of the building

Where should the apparatus be staged at an aircraft
emergency landing?
p. 215

A.) At the expected stopping location
B.) At the expected rescue location
C.) At the expected fire location
D.) At the expected touchdown location

D.) At the expected touchdown location

Where is the degree of angle measured from on the aerial device?
p. 190

A.) Truck’s frontal line of axis
B.) Truck’s vertical line of axis
C.) Truck’s center line of axis
D.) Truck’s horizontal line of axis

C.) Truck’s center line of axis

What is generally the primary use of the aerial apparatus at an aircraft incident resulting from an accident?
p. 213

A.) Apply large amounts of extinguishing agents
B.) Transport firefighters to upper levels
C.) Removing victims from the incident scene
D.) Ferry equipment to off road locations

B.) Transport firefighters to upper levels

Up to what height building should the aerial apparatus
park on the outside and the engine companies on the side of the street closest to the building?
p. 189

A.) Five stories
B.) Seven stories
C.) Six stories
D.) Four stories

D.) Four stories

How should personnel exit an apparatus that is in contact with electric lines?
p. 199

A.) Climb the ladder
B.) Slide down
C.) Jump clear
D.) Remain on the vehicle

C.) Jump clear

How should the turntable be spotted when the apparatus must be operated off an incline?
p. 201

A.) Downwind from the point of operation
B.) Uphill from the point of operation
C.) Downhill from the point of operation
D.) Upwind from the point of operation

C.) Downhill from the point of operation

What should be done when possible to reduce the risk of personnel injury when performing ventilation operations
from an aerial apparatus?
p. 193

A.) Apply the stabilizer padding
B.) Incorporate adequate training time
C.) Tether firefighters to the aerial device
D.) Maintain a safe angle of operations

C.) Tether firefighters to the aerial device

What is the most common spotting consideration that faces driver/operators in cold weather conditions?
p. 197

A.) Wind
B.) Rain
C.) Temperature
D.) Snow

D.) Snow

What is the method of deicing the aerial device called
that involves slowly extending and retracting the device?
p. 198

A.) Ice blocking
B.) Ice shrugging
C.) Ice smoothing
D.) Ice blowing

B.) Ice shrugging

Which aerial apparatus do SOP’s generally apply to?
p. 188

A.) First arriving
B.) Second arriving
C.) Staged apparatus
D.) Final apparatus

A.) First arriving

Which zone has been contaminated by the released hazardous material?
p. 211

A.) Hot
B.) Cold
C.) Cool
D.) Warm

A.) Hot

1) The type of aerial apparatus a department chooses is based on which of the following criteria?

A) Maneuverability and length of reach needed.
B) Most common tasks required of the aerial apparatus.
C) The amount of equipment that the apparatus will need to carry.
D) All the above.

D) All the above.

2) NFPA 1901 classifies aerial devices into three basic categories. Which of the following would not be considered one of those categories?

A) Telescoping aerial ladders.
B) Elevating platforms.
C) Water towers.
D) Aerial ladders

A) Telescoping aerial ladders.

3) The most common type of aerial fire apparatus operated in North America is -

A) Aerial ladder apparatus.
B) Aerial ladder platforms.
C) Telescoping aerial platforms
D) Water towers

A) Aerial ladder apparatus.

4) Typically North American-made aerial ladders range from -

A) 25 - 100 ft.
B) 35 - 110 ft.
C) 50 - 135 ft.
D) 50 - 150 ft.

C) 50 - 135 ft.

5) The working height of an aerial ladder is measured from the -

A) Ground to the highest rung in the ladder at its maximum elevation and extension.

17) Aerial ladder platforms commonly range in size from -

A) 50 feet to 65 feet.
B) 65 feet to 75 feet.
C) 75 feet to 100 feet.
D) 85 feet to 110 feet.

D) 85 feet to 110 feet.

19) What is the primary difference between telescoping aerial platforms and aerial ladder platforms?

C) Aerial ladders are designed with a larger ladder that allows firefighters and victims to climb either direction of the ladder.

20) Common sizes of telescoping aerial platforms used in North America range from -

A) 50 to 65 feet.
B) 60 to 75 feet.
C) 70 to 95 feet.
D) 75 to 100 feet.

D) 75 to 100 feet.

21) What is the additional benefit found in articulating aerial platforms that is not found in other aerial apparatus?

B) The platform is able to go up and over into areas where regular aerial apparatus cannot go.

22) According to IFSTA, the NFPA classification of aerial platform apparatus can be broken down into all of the following types except for -

A) Aerial ladder platforms.
B) Telescoping aerial platforms.
C) Articulating aerial platforms.
D) Articulating telescoping platforms.

D) Articulating telescoping platforms.

23) The required minimum area on an aerial platform is -

A) 10 square feet.
B) 12 square feet.
C) 14 square feet.
D) 16 square feet.

C) 14 square feet.

33) The water delivery system of an aerial platform should be capable of delivering at least _____ in any position.

A) 500 gpm.
B) 750 gpm.
C) 900 gpm.
D) 1000 gpm.

D) 1000 gpm.

39) Standard articulating aerial platforms range in height from -

A) 30 to 55 feet.
B) 45 to 75 feet.
C) 55 to 85 feet.
D) 75 to 110 feet.

C) 55 to 85 feet.

41) According to NFPA 1901, in order to be considered a Quint, an apparatus must have a fire pump capacity of -

A) At least 500 gpm.
B) At least 850 gpm.
C) Less than 1000 gpm.
D) In excess of 1000 gpm.

D) In excess of 1000 gpm.

42) To be considered a Quint, the tank capacity of the apparatus must hold at least -

A) 300 gallons.
B) 500 gallons.
C) 750 gallons.
D) 1000 gallons.

A) 300 gallons.

51) The three-way valve that directs fluid to either the stabilizer control valves or the aerial device control valves is called the -

A) Actuator valve.
B) Stack valve.
C) Monitor valve.
D) Selector valve.

D) Selector valve.

56) Water towers have a maximum flow rate of -

A) 500 gpm.
B) 1000 gpm.
C) 3000 gpm.
D) 5000 gpm.

D) 5000 gpm.

57) Aerial apparatus turntable decking is constructed of -

A) Cast iron.
B) Stainless steel.
C) Rigid metal plates.
D) Rolled nickel-silver.

C) Rigid metal plates.

62) Telescoping ladder pipe systems consist of three or four sections that reduce in size. Normally, the minimum internal diameter of the pipe is -

A) 3 inches.
B) 3 1/2 inches.
C) 4 inches.
D) 4 1/2 inches.

C) 4 inches.

63) Most telescoping water pipe systems are capable of flows up to -

A) 250 gpm.
B) 500 gpm.
C) 750 gpm.
D) 1000 gpm.

D) 1000 gpm.

65) Detachable water pipe systems are capable of flows up to -

A) 250 gpm.
B) 500 gpm.
C) 750 gpm.
D) 1000 gpm.

C) 750 gpm.

67) Elevating platform waterway systems are capable of flows up to -

A) 750 gpm.
B) 1000 gpm.
C) 1500 gpm.
D) 2000 gpm.

D) 2000 gpm.

68) Most elevating platform waterway systems are equipped with at least one ______ discharge in the platform.

A) 1 1/2 inch
B) 1 3/4 inch
C) 2 1/2 inch.
D) 3 inch.

C) 2 1/2 inch.

69) Which of the following statements regarding aerial apparatus systems is NOT true?

B) NFPA 1901 requires that all aerial devices be equipped with a breathing air system.

77) Approximately how much electrical power can be supplied by the largest portable generator?

A) 2500 watts.
B) 3000 watts.
C) 5000 watts.
D) 10,000 watts.

D) 10,000 watts.

76) Typically how much electrical power can be supplied by an inverter?

A) 1500 watts.
B) 1800 watts.
C) 2500 watts.
D) 5000 watts.

D) 5000 watts.

78) Vehicle mounted generators are powered by which of the following?

(1) Gasoline
(2) Diesel
(3) Propane engines
(4) Hydraulic systems
(5) Power take-off systems.

A) 1, 2.
B) 1, 2, 3.
C) 2, 3, 5
D) All the above

D) All the above

79) Vehicle mounted generators on pumpers and aerial devices normally have a capacity of up to -

A) 5000 watts.
B) 10,000 watts.
C) 12,000 watts.
D) 50,000 watts.

C) 12,000 watts.

80) Vehicle mounted generators on rescue trucks can have a capacity of up to -

A) 5000 watts.
B) 10,000 watts.
C) 12,000 watts.
D) 50,000 watts.

D) 50,000 watts.

89) Normally pole ladders are ___ or longer.

A) 25 feet.
B) 35 feet
C) 40 feet.
D) 50 feet.

C) 40 feet.

94) The type of multidirectional valve used in an aerial device hydraulic system is called a -

A) Double-acting valve.
B) Stack valve.
C) Actuator valve.
D) Monitor valve.

B) Stack valve.

95) A multidirectional valve used to control the flow of hydraulic oil through a hydraulic system is called a -

A) Monitor valve.
B) Double-acting valve.
C) Relief valve.
D) Check valve.

A) Monitor valve.

97) In a hydraulic cylinder, the pivoting end of the piston rod that is connected to the anchor ear by the heel pin is called the -

A) Heel pin cylinder.
B) Articulating ring.
C) Trunnion.
D) Ear plate.

C) Trunnion.

98) Which of the following sections of an aerial device are NOT extended by a system of cables and pulleys?

A) The second section.
B) The third section.
C) The fourth section.
D) The fifth section.

A) The second section.

101) Ladder pipes are usually equipped with what size hose line?

A) 2 inch.
B) 2 1/2 inch.
C) 3 to 3 1/2 inch.
D) 4 inch.

C) 3 to 3 1/2 inch.

103) Which NFPA standard establishes requirements for the quality of the air in breathing air systems?

A) NFPA 1901.
B) NFPA 1902.
C) NFPA 1990.
D) NFPA 1989.

D) NFPA 1989.

104) Portable lights generally range from -

A) 300 to 1000 watts.
B) 400 to 1200 watts.
C) 500 to 1500 watts.
D) 1000 to 3000 watts.

A) 300 to 1000 watts.

105) A bank of lights will usually have a capacity of __ per light.

A) 300 to 1000 watts.
B) 400 to 1200 watts.
C) 500 to 1500 watts.
D) 1000 to 3000 watts.

C) 500 to 1500 watts.

5) For any given situation, the proper distance between the objective and the aerial apparatus includes all of the following except -

A) The distance that affords maximum stability.
B) The distance that allows for optimum climbing angle. C) The distance that is closest to the objective.
D) The distance that allows for adequate extension.

C) The distance that is closest to the objective.

13) Aerial devices are often positioned on the unburned side of the building for the purpose of deploying attack teams who will be fighting the fire. When these devices are used for such purposes, repositioning of such apparatus should be at the discretion of which of the following?

A) The incident commander.
B) The truck company officer.
C) The firefighters who were deployed from the device.
D) All the above.

C) The firefighters who were deployed from the device.

14) When an aerial device is used for ventilation purposes, where should the apparatus be positioned?

A) On the unburned side, close to the area being ventilated.
B) On the burned side, at least 50 feet away from the area being ventilated.
C) On the unburned side, at least 50 feet from the area being ventilated.
D) On the unburned side, at least 75 feet from the area being ventilated.

A) On the unburned side, close to the area being ventilated.

15) When deploying firefighters to the roof of a building for ventilation purposes, the tip of the device should be positioned -

A) Approximately 1 foot below the edge of the roof.
B) Even with the edge of the roof.
C) So it extends above the roof level.
D) All the above positions are acceptable.

C) So it extends above the roof level.

16) When deploying firefighters to the roof of a building, aerial ladders should extend at least __ above the roof level.

A) 3 feet.
B) 4 feet.
C) 5 feet.
D) 6 feet.

D) 6 feet.

17) When deploying firefighters to the roof of a building, aerial platforms should be positioned so that the -

A) Top of the bucket is even with the edge of the roof.
B) Floor of the bucket is at roof level.
C) Top of the bucket is 1 foot below the edge of the roof. D) Floor of the bucket is 1 foot above roof level.

B) Floor of the bucket is at roof level.

18) The ultimate position for the tip of an aerial device used for ventilation purposes is -

A) Upwind of the ventilation point and slightly higher than the opening.
B) Downwind of the ventilation point and slightly higher than the opening. C) Upwind of the ventilation point and slightly lower than the opening.
D) Downwind of the ventilation point and slightly lower than the opening.

A) Upwind of the ventilation point and slightly higher than the opening.

19) Who is responsible for coordinating ventilation operations at the scene of a fire?

A) The truck company officer.
B) The members of the truck company.
C) The chief of the department.
D) The incident commander.

D) The incident commander.

23) The most common spotting consideration that faces a driver/operator in adverse weather conditions is -

A) Cold
B) Heat
C) The presence of snow or ice on the parking surface.
D) Wind

C) The presence of snow or ice on the parking surface.

28) Which of the following represents the least stable position of an aerial apparatus.

A) Longitudinal axis with the device coming off the front of the vehicle.
B) Longitudinal axis with the device coming off the rear of the vehicle.
C) Perpendicular axis.
D) A and B only.

C) Perpendicular axis.

29) How would you position and aerial apparatus with a rear-mounted aerial device?

A) Nosing the vehicle in the position of deployment.
B) Backing the vehicle up in the position of deployment.
C) Pull the vehicle in sideways to the position of deployment.
D) Any of the above.

B) Backing the vehicle up in the position of deployment.

30) Tillered aerial apparatus may be positioned to increased stability by Jackknifing so that the tractor is set at an angle in relation to the trailer. Which of the following offers the greatest stability?

A) The angle is approximately 60 degrees from in-line and the aerial device is extended away from the angle.
B) The angle is approximately 60 degrees from the in-line and the aerial device is extended towards the angle.
C) The angle is approximately 90 degrees from the in-line and the aerial device is extended away from the angle.
D) The angle is approximately 90 degrees from the in-line and the aerial device is extended towards the angle.

A) The angle is approximately 60 degrees from in-line and the aerial device is extended away from the angle.

31) You are responding to a structure fire in which the building is situated on a hill. How should you position the aerial apparatus?

A) If you approach from the uphill side, you should stop just before reaching the building and deploy the aerial device from the front of the apparatus.
B) If you approach from the downhill side, you should pull just past the building and deploy the aerial device from the back of the apparatus.
C) If you approach from the uphill side, you should pull just past the building and deploy the aerial device from the back of the apparatus.
D) It does not matter if you approach from the uphill side or the downhill side, you should pull even with the building and deploy the device off the side of the apparatus.

C) If you approach from the uphill side, you should pull just past the building and deploy the aerial device from the back of the apparatus.

32) The maximum loading for any unsupported aerial device occurs when the device is operated at angles between __ from horizontal.

A) 60 to 70 degrees.
B) 70 to 80 degrees.
C) 80 to 90 degrees.
D) 90 to 100 degrees.

B) 70 to 80 degrees.

43) You and your crew have been assigned to a motor vehicle crash on a four lane interstate highway. Two cars are blocking the extreme right hand lane. Which lane(s) should be closed in order to allow firefighters to safely work at the scene?

A) The lane immediately next to the incident.
B) The two adjacent lanes next to the incident.
C) No lanes need to be shut down. Firefighters should work on the shoulder side of the incident.
D) All lanes should be shut down to ensure the safety of the firefighters.

A) The lane immediately next to the incident.

45) Additional apparatus arriving to a scene on an interstate highway should park -

A) Immediately behind of the shielding apparatus.
B) Immediately in front of the shielding apparatus.
C) 150 to 200 feet behind the shielding apparatus.
D) 300 to 500 feet from the shielding apparatus.

C) 150 to 200 feet behind the shielding apparatus.

46) The immediate area surrounding a hazardous materials incident is called the -

A) Hot zone.
B) Exclusion zone.
C) Red zone.
D) All the above.

D) All the above.

49) At a hazardous materials incident triage and treatment areas should be established in the -

A) Hot zone.
B) Warm Zone.
C) Limited access zone.
D) Cold zone.

D) Cold zone.

57) Why should the driver/operator pay special attention not to park the apparatus too close to an aircraft which has made an emergency landing?

A) Difficulty deploying the aerial device.
B) Danger of fire.
C) Not too interfere with the deployment of emergency slides. D) Interfering with positioning of pumping apparatus.

C) Not too interfere with the deployment of emergency slides.

64) Where should aerial apparatus stage when operating at fuel tank fires?

A) At least 25 feet from the tank.
B) At least 50 feet from the tank.
C) Just inside the dike wall.
D) On the outside of the dike wall.

D) On the outside of the dike wall.

65) The act of preparing to handle an incident at a particular location or particular type of incident before an incident occurs is referred to as -
A) Incident action plan.
B) Preincident planning.
C) Preplanning.
D) Emergency operations plan.

B) Preincident planning.

66) An aggressive attack on a fire from the outside of the exterior with a large diameter fire stream is called a(an) -

A) Frontal attack.
B) Offensive attack.
C) Exterior fire attack.
D) Blitz attack.

D) Blitz attack.

67) Which type of fire attack emphasizes protecting exposures?

A) Interior fire attack.
B) Offensive fire attack.
C) Defensive fire attack.
D) Water curtain attack.

C) Defensive fire attack.

68) The term used for describing the act of positioning apparatus in a location that provides the utmost efficiency for operating on the fireground is referred to as -

A) Mapping.
B) Staging.
C) Placing.
D) Spotting.

D) Spotting.

69) What do utility chases, drainage culverts, basements that extend under sidewalks and underground transportation systems all have in common?

A) The are areas of hidden fire that should be thoroughly checked during overhaul.
B) They can supply oxygen to a fire, thus increasing the fire’s intensity.
C) They all can create vaulted surfaces.
D) They are all unsafe to drive over with aerial apparatus.

C) They all can create vaulted surfaces.

70) A device that transfers the center of gravity of an apparatus and prevents it from tipping as the aerial device is being deployed is called a -

A) Stabilizer.
B) Outrigger.
C) Staypole.
D) Footer.

A) Stabilizer.

74) What is meant by the term, ‘supported aerial tip?’

A) The tip of the aerial device is being supported by the structure of the device itself.
B) The tip of the aerial device is resting against the target location.
C) The tip of the aerial device is tied off by rope or webbing to prevent it from moving under high winds.
D) The tip of the aerial device is equipped with harnesses that help protect firefighters from falling.

B) The tip of the aerial device is resting against the target location.

75) The company officer of the first-arriving company at the staging, who takes command of the area and is responsible for communicating available resources and resource needs to the Operations Section Chief is called the -

A) Staging Area Manager.
B) Staging Officer.
C) Operations Sectional Deputy Chief.
D) Initiating Commander.

A) Staging Area Manager.

4) Where is the center of gravity in an aerial apparatus?

A) Somewhere along the longitudinal midline of the chassis.
B) Under the motor.
C) In the center of the apparatus.
D) Between the tires and the undeployed stabilizers.

A) Somewhere along the longitudinal midline of the chassis.

5) The theoretical safety zone that surrounds the center of gravity on an aerial apparatus is known as the -

A) Circle of safety.
B) Gravity zone.
C) Working area.
D) Gravity circle.

D) Gravity circle.

6) Under which of the following circumstances would the “gravity circle” of a stabilized apparatus shift off of the longitudinal centerline of the apparatus?

A) When the aerial ladder is rotated to a perpendicular position.
B) When the aerial apparatus is short-jacked.
C) When the aerial ladder is extended over the front of the vehicle.
D) A and B.

D) A and B.

7) What is “Short Jacking”?

A) Setting the stabilizers on one side of the vehicle shorter than stabilizers on the other side of the vehicle.
B) The deployment of outriggers on only one side of the vehicle.
C) Portable hydraulic jacks used in conjunction with outriggers to provide additional stability to the apparatus.
D) The use of portable jacks on the front or rear of the apparatus when the vehicle is set up facing down a steep gradient.

A) Setting the stabilizers on one side of the vehicle shorter than stabilizers on the other side of the vehicle.

8) PTO activation switches are -

A) Pneumatic.
B) Electric.
C) Hydraulic.
D) Any of the above or a combination of these three.

D) Any of the above or a combination of these three.

9) Stabilizers that extend down and away from the chassis at an angle are called -

A) A-frame stabilizers.
B) Angle jacks.
C) L-style stabilizers.
D) Box stabilizers.

A) A-frame stabilizers.

10) Stabilizers that extend straight away from the vehicle and have jacks that extend straight down to the ground are called -

A) Scissor stabilizers.
B) Straight jacks.
C) L-style stabilizers.
D) Box stabilizers.

D) Box stabilizers.

11) Jacks that extend down from the chassis are called -

A) Straight jacks.
B) Box jacks.
C) T-style stabilizers.
D) A and C

A) Straight jacks.

12) Modern aerial apparatus and aerial ladders/platforms are powered by which of the following?

A) Reducing gear systems.
B) Spring systems and hydraulic systems.
C) Hydraulic systems only.
D) Hydraulic systems and reducing gear systems.

C) Hydraulic systems only.

13) Pneumatic systems require __ of air pressure for the PTO to be operated.

A) 20 to 85 psi.
B) 35 to 100 psi.
C) 50 to 140 psi.
D) 75 to 200 psi.

C) 50 to 140 psi.

15) Which is the correct sequence of actions when engaging the PTO for the hydraulic system in an aerial apparatus equipped with an automatic transmission, but no on-board fire pump?

A) 1) Set the parking brake and turn on the Jacobs engine brake; 2) Place transmission selector in the drive gear recommended by the manufacturer;
3) Activate the PTO selector switch.

B) 1) Set the parking brake and turn on the Jacobs engine brake; 2) Place transmission selector in neutral; 3) Activate the PTO selector switch;
4) Place transmission selector in the drive gear recommended by the manufacturer.

C) 1) Set the parking brake and turn off the Jacobs engine brake; 2) Place transmission selector in the drive gear recommended by the manufacturer;
3) Activate the PTO selector switch; 4) Place transmission selector in neutral.

D) 1) Set the parking brake and turn off the Jacobs engine brake; 2) Place transmission selector in the drive gear recommended by the manufacturer;
3) Activate the PTO selector switch; 4) Place transmission selector in neutral; 5) Increase engine idle speed to 1500 rpm.

17) You are the driver/operator of an aerial apparatus with an automatic transmission and an on-board fire pump. In addition to insuring that the transmission is in neutral, what other procedure must you perform before operating the pump shift control?

A) Ensure that adequate hydraulic pressure is available to operate the aerial device, stabilizers, and other hydraulic systems.
B) Ensure that the transmission selector has been shifted into the appropriate gear as recommended by the apparatus manufacturer.
C) Check to be sure that the pump control light is on and operational.
D) Depress the clutch .

A) Ensure that adequate hydraulic pressure is available to operate the aerial device, stabilizers, and other hydraulic systems.

19) In some cases, even apparatus with box stabilizers that completely lift the apparatus, are chocked before deployment of the outriggers. In some cases the front wheels, rear wheels, or both are chocked. Ultimately, what authority should the driver/operator defer to when determining how to chock the aerial apparatus?

A) The apparatus manufacturer.
B) The Fire Chief.
C) IFSTA.
D) NFPA.

A) The apparatus manufacturer.

20) What should the driver/operator of the aerial apparatus make sure is completed before dismounting the vehicle cab?

A) The outriggers are deployed and stable.
B) Ensuring that the PTO light is on and the system is engaged.
C) That the ground that the apparatus is resting on is stable and free of all obstructions and hazards.
D) The chocks are ready to be deployed.

B) Ensuring that the PTO light is on and the system is engaged.

22) Which surface can be made stable for a stabilizer pad by the use of cribbing?

A) Water gate valve cover.
B) Ice.
C) Rock pile.
D) Frozen ground.

B) Ice.

Page 235 - “ Aerial Apparatus Driver/Operator Handbook”; IFSTA, 2nd edition.

Utility covers have unpredictable bearing strength, ice prevents contact of even cribbing with the ground, and loose rock piles should just be avoided in general.

23) Where is the stabilizer selector valve located on the aerial apparatus?

A) Dashboard.
B) Midship position of the apparatus.
C) On the aerial device.
D) Midship on the driver’s side or at the rear step of the vehicle.

D) Midship on the driver’s side or at the rear step of the vehicle.

24) Shifting the stabilizer selector valve into position will result in what action?

A) Provides hydraulic power to the stabilizer system.
B) Releases the aerial device bed locks.
C) Deploys the outriggers from stowed position.
D) B and C

A) Provides hydraulic power to the stabilizer system.

27) When extending the stabilizer jacks , how can the Driver/Operator be sure that the stabilizers are resting properly on the ground and are prepared to bear the weight of the apparatus?

A) The tires are lifted off the ground.
B) The sound of the hydraulic pump increases.
C) The bulge disappears from the bottom of the tires.
D) The stabilizer arms begin to visually flex.

C) The bulge disappears from the bottom of the tires.

29) When the slope of ground is perpendicular to the long axis of the vehicle the grade is referred to as -

A) Crown Grade
B) Lateral Grade.
C) Longitudinal Grade.
D) Cross-slope.

B) Lateral Grade.

30) When the slope of the ground is parallel to the long axis of the apparatus, it is referred to as -

A) Crown grade.
B) Lateral Grade.
C) Longitudinal Grade.
D) Rise over Run.

C) Longitudinal Grade.

31) When stabilizing an aerial apparatus on uneven terrain, correction for lateral unevenness can be achieved on grades up to -
A) 2%.
B) 5 - 6%. 
C) 10%. 
D) 15%.

B) 5 - 6%.

32) If the road is 25 feet (7.6m) wide and the curb on one side is 2 feet (0.6m) lower than the curb on the other side, can the operator of an aerial apparatus level the vehicle in this location?

A) Yes, the gradient is less than 1%.
B) Yes, the gradient is 1.2%.
C) No, the gradient is 8%
D) No, the gradient is 12%.

C) No, the gradient is 8%

34) Articulating aerial devices should be operated off -

A) The front of the apparatus whenever possible.
B) The rear of the apparatus whenever possible.
C) Off the driver’s side of the apparatus whenever possible.
D) Off the officer’s side of the apparatus whenever possible.

B) The rear of the apparatus whenever possible.

35) When parked on a longitudinal grade, do not extend or retract the aerial device off -

A) The end of the vehicle.
B) The front of the vehicle
C) The side of the vehicle.
D) Any sides of the vehicle.

C) The side of the vehicle.

36) What is the appropriate procedure for leveling a vehicle when you cannot avoid deploying outriggers on curbs, manhole covers, or other sidewalk elements that prevent direct contact of the stabilizers with the ground ?

A) Set up the apparatus using the same procedures and guidelines used in setting up on a lateral incline.
B) Reposition the apparatus so that these elevational problems are avoided.
C) Remove the curb, parking blocks, or similar obstruction before setting up so as to minimize the destabilizing impacts.
D) All of the above.

B) Reposition the apparatus so that these elevational problems are avoided.

37) The device that prevents the flow of hydraulic fluid into or out of the stabilization system is called the -

A) Hydraulic check valve.
B) Interlock.
C) Mandrel.
D) Eductor.

B) Interlock.

38) The “holding valves” prevent the movement of fluid in the hydraulic stabilization system. How are these holding valves actuated?

A) The operator throws the “holding valve” switch on the stabilizer control panel.
B) The valves are automatically tripped by the system when the leveling gauge achieves a “level” status.
C) The valves are tripped when the operator moves the hydraulic selector switch to the “aerial position.”
D) When the interlock indicator light is activated.

C) The valves are tripped when the operator moves the hydraulic selector switch to the “aerial position.”

40) What safety precautions should the Driver/Operator take into account before raising or retracting the stabilizers?

A) Ensure that the chocks are moved away from the tires.
B) On lateral grade , the uphill stabilizer must be raised first.
C) Since the vehicle drops abruptly, all personnel should be clear of the apparatus before raising the stabilizers or jacks.
D) A and C

D) A and C

42) What type of apparatus is most likely to be equipped with manual stabilizers?

A) Older midship and tractor-trailer apparatus.
B) Rear-mounted aerial apparatus.
C) Newer model mid-ship aerial apparatus.
D) Any apparatus built prior to 1995.

A) Older midship and tractor-trailer apparatus.

43) How do manual stabilizers differ from hydraulic stabilizers?

A) The extension arm is swung into place by the Driver/Operator and then the jack is lowered by the hydraulic system.
B) The extension arm is swung into place by the hydraulic system, and then the Driver/Operator lowers the jack by a manual screw.
C) The extension arm and the screw jack are deployed manually by the Driver/Operator , and the hydraulic system lifts the vehicle off the ground and stabilizes the aerial device.
D) The entire system is deployed manually by the Driver/Operator and the vehicle is not lifted off its tires.

D) The entire system is deployed manually by the Driver/Operator and the vehicle is not lifted off its tires.

45) What device holds the extension arm in place on a tiller apparatus equipped with a manual stabilizer?

A) Removable bayonet pins.
B) Removable cotter pins.
C) The screw jack.
D) Spring-loaded support brace or bracket.

A) Removable bayonet pins.

46) If the manual stabilizer lifts off the pad during the operation of the aerial device, it is prudent for the Driver/Operator to -

A) Readjust the stabilizers so that it resumes contact with the ground.
B) Adjust the stabilizer on the opposite side of the apparatus until the lifted stabilizer resumes contact with the ground.
C) Raise or rotate the aerial device into a position where the stabilizer resumes contact with the ground.
D) Don’t worry about it, such minor lifting is normal load shifting.

D) Don’t worry about it, such minor lifting is normal load shifting.

47) Where is the manual jack usually located on tractor-trailer apparatus?

A) On the cab and the rear of the tiller.
B) At the rear and front of the tiller near the gooseneck or Fifth Wheel.
C) In a recessed portion beneath the goose neck portion of the trailer.
D) At the midships point of the tiller.

C) In a recessed portion beneath the goose neck portion of the trailer.

48) How are tractor-trailer aerial apparatus best stabilized?

A) Use of the on-board manual stabilizers and parking the apparatus on relatively level ground.
B) Angling the apparatus so that the inside angle of the cab and the trailer are at 60 degrees.
C) Angling the apparatus so that the inside angle between the cab and the trailer are between a 61 and 90 degrees..
D) Angling the apparatus so that the outside angle of the cab and the trailer are at 60 degrees.

B) Angling the apparatus so that the inside angle of the cab and the trailer are at 60 degrees.

49) What operating position provides the greatest stability to the aerial device on a tractor trailer apparatus?

A) Operating the aerial device over the outside angle of the jackknifed cab and tiller.
B) Operating the aerial device over the inside angle of the jackknifed cab and tiller.
C) Operating the aerial device over the longitudinal axis of the cab in a jackknifed position.
D) Position of the aerial device is unimportant in a jackknife setup of a cab and tiller.

A) Operating the aerial device over the outside angle of the jackknifed cab and tiller.

50) A rotating shaft that transfers power from the engine to auxiliary equipment is call -

A) Power Take-Off System.

Notes) Page 230 - “ Aerial Apparatus Driver/Operator Handbook”; IFSTA, 2nd edition. Also known as PTO.

51) A device that mounts on, or within, the engine overhead, that is used to alter a diesel engine’s compression in order to slow the vehicle is called the -

C) Jacobs Engine Brake.

53) A stabilizing device that extends at an angle down and away from the chassis of an aerial apparatus is known as a -

A) Fulcrum-type stabilizer.

Notes) Page 236 - “ Aerial Apparatus Driver/Operator Handbook”; IFSTA, 2nd edition. Also known as a A-Frame stabilizer.

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