Immunosuppressant drugs Flashcards

1
Q

Induction, maintenance and rejection therapy

A

Induction therapy –> initial therapy used at the beginning of a transplant

  • results in the rapid onset of relatively intense immunosuppression
  • typically accomplished with a combo of corticosteroids and antibody-based drugs

Maintenance immunosuppression –> medications taken on a chronic basis to prevent acute rejection
- commonly involves a combo of drugs which have different mechanisms of action

Rejection therapy –> treatment of an episode of acute rejection
- typically involves lymphocyte depleting antibody based drugs or high dose corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Non-lymphocyte depleting antibody drugs

A

Antibodies which block lymphocyte function but do not result in removal of lymphocytes from the circulation

Basiliximab –> anti-CD 25 antibody (CD-25 = IL2 receptor)

  • induction therapy
  • chimeric antibody
  • minimal acute toxicities and is given IV in 2 doses for induction
  • results in blockade of immune activation and lymphocyte responses
  • long half life
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Lymphocyte depleting antibody drugs

A

Result in the removal of lymphocytes from the circulation
- used for induction or therapy of acute rejection

Thymoglobulin –> rabbit polyclonal AB against human thymus tissue

  • results in removal of T lymphocytes from the circulation by the reticuloendothelial system
  • contains a variety of AB specificities and cross reacts with platelets and other leukocytes resulting in thrombocytopenia and leucopenia
  • infusion related side effects - tachycardia, hypotension, flushing, pulm edema
  • infection risks require antimicrobial + antiviral prophylaxis

Alemtuzumab –> humanized monoclonal AB directed at CD-52 = expressed on lymphocytes and monocytes, unknown function

  • FDA approved for hematologic malignancies but is used as an induction agent in solid organ transplant
  • peripheral and central lymphocyte depletion following a dose is very prolonged
  • minimal side effects during infusion
  • used for induction
  • infection risks require prophylaxis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Calcineurin inhibitors

A

Tacrolimus + cycosporine –> used for maintenance of immunosuppression

  • bind to cyclophyllins = ubiquitous cytosolic proteins –> drug-cyclophyllin complex interacts with calcineurin = a phosphatase that dephosphorylates NFAT
  • NFAT translocates to the cell nucleus and controls the production of IL2
  • inhibition of this pathway by these drugs interferes with T cell activation
  • widely used and the cornerstone of immunosuppression drug regimens
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Calcineurin inhibitor side effects

A

Common to both

  • neprhotoxicity
  • type 4 RTA
  • hyperkalemia
  • hypomg
  • hypophosphatemia
  • thrombotic microangiopathy

Cyclosporin

  • hirsutism
  • hyperlipidemia
  • hyperuricemia/gout
  • gingival hyperplasia

Tacrolimus

  • neurotoxic
  • tremor
  • hyperglycemia/new onset DB
  • alopecia
  • diarrhea

Narrow therapeutic window - blood level must be carefully monitored

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

mTOR inhibitors

A

Sirolimus/everolimus –> used for maintenance of immunosuppression

  • targets down stream metabolic pathways that control responses to growth factors and interleukins
  • also binds to a cyclophyllin –> complex inhibits mTOR = a central enzyme that regulates cell responses to a wide variety of growth factors
  • regulates the balance between cell survival signaling and apoptosis signaling –> controls cell cycle progression
  • inhibition of mTOR affects lymphocyte responses to immunologic stimulation –> interferes with protein + DNA synthesis, and prevents entry of the cell into the cell cycle
  • may result in lymphocyte apoptosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Sirolimus side effects

A
  • proteinuria
  • delayed recovery from ATN
  • hyperlipidemia
  • delayed wound healing
  • lymphoceles
  • thrombocytopenia
  • pneumonitis
  • oral ulcers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Antimetabolites

A

Azathioprine –> prodrug which is converted to active 6 mercaptopurine

  • depletes purine nucleotides + is incorporated into replicating DNA which interferes with DNA synthesis and the proliferative response of lymphocytes to immmunologic stimulation
  • now largely replaced by mycophenolate mofetil –> prodrug converted to active form = mycophenolic acid

Mycophenolic acid –> used as a maintenace immunosuppressive drug

  • inhibitor of the de novo pathway of purine biosynthesis by inhibiting enzyme inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase
  • prevents the generation of purine nucleotides and interferes with DNA synthesis
  • lymphocytes are dependent on the de novo pathway of purine synthesis –> most other cell types can also utilize the salvage pathway of purine synthesis, so lymphocytes are uniquely sensitive to the inhibitory effects
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Side effects of azathioprine + mycophenolic acid

A

Azathioprine / 6MP

  • myelotoxic - especially leukopenia, thrombocytopenia
  • sensitizes to UV radiation
  • malignancy risk - esp skin cancer
  • important reaction with allopurinol

Mycophenolic acid - Commonly limit dosing

  • leucopenia
  • anemia
  • GI toxicity –> nausea, vomiting, diarrhea
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Corticosteroids

A

Prednisone

  • used for induction, maintenance and treatment of acute rejection
  • liphophylic and tranverse the cell membrane where they combine with receptors in the cytoplasm –> in combo with the cytoplasmic receptor corticosteroids enter the nucleus where they bind to the promoter regions of various transcription factors
  • affect protein synthesis and metabolic functions which control many aspects of the inflammatory response
  • block recruitment of inflammatory cells and down regulate adhesion molecules

High, dose related side effect profile

  • hyperglycemia
  • hypertension
  • avascular necrosis of bone
  • cataract formation
  • weight gain
  • adrenal suppression
  • cushings
  • acne
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Belatacept

A

Newer biologic developed for maintenance of immunosuppression

  • recombinant immunoglobulin fusion protein –> combines a modified extracellular portion of CD-152 (CTLA4) with a constant region (Fc) fragment of human IgG
  • has affinity for the surface co-stimulatory ligands B7 on APCs –> blocks the B7 interaction with CD28 on T cells = a major pathway of costimulation required for t cell activation

No drug interactions and has a half life of about 8 days

  • given as a monthly IV infusion
  • not nephrotoxic but has a higher incidence of cellular rejection and post transplant lymphoma compared to cyclosporine or tacrolimus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Special circumstances = rejection

A

Intense immunosuppression - solumdedrol/prednisone taper, thymoglobulin, IVIg
- reintensify maintenance regimen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Special circumstances - infection

A
  • Life threatening - reduce or cease immunosuppression
  • CMV - stop anti-proliferative agent
  • polyoma virus - reduce immunosuppression monitoring urine cytology and BK/JC viral load

Prevention is key

  • prophylactic ABs
  • vaccinations
  • early tx
  • monitoring for polyoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Special circumstances - malignancy

A
  • PTLD, hematologic malignancies, malignant melanoma, cervical cancer –> dramatically reduce IS
  • solid tumors - reduce IS at least modestly
  • skin cancers - azathioprine may be esp. problematic
  • sirolimus - antiproliferative/antitumor properties

Prevention

  • age appropriate screening
  • PAPs
  • sun protection
  • antivirals/serial EBV viral load monitoring if EBV +
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Special circumstances - pregnancy

A

cyclosporine/tacrolimus, azathioprine and prednisone are generally favored

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly