GO 510.03 - 580.14 Weeks 3-4 Flashcards by R V

(GO 510.03) The _________________ shall contact the Supervising Dispatcher or Dispatcher III to initiate a cancellation or termination of a Reverse 9-1-1 emergency message if necessary.

a) Division or Watch Commander
b) Sector Sergeant
c) Primary Patrol Unit
d) Either a or b

a) Division or Watch Commander

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

(GO 510.08)AT&T Language Line services cannot be used for:

a) initial contacts
b) victim interviews
c) suspect interviews
d) court testimony

d) court testimony

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

(GO 510.10) Hazard Files shall be reviewed by the _____________ to determine if they are still necessary.

a) Dispatch Supervisor
b) Initiating officer
c) Initiating officer’s Supervisor
d) CAD Team

d) CAD Team

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

(GO 510.11) At the discretion of the investigating officer, CSI shall be dispatched to misdemeanor crimes where items of evidence need to be photographed in place before collection.

a) True
b) False

a) True

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

(GO 510.09) MDCs shall be the primary means of communication between dispatchers, field officers, and supervisors.

a) True
b) False

a) True

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

(GO 510.12) Point-to-point (“to”) messages should be used to make location changes, status changes, or supplement calls.

a) True
b) False

b) False

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

(GO 523.04) The ______________ shall enter voided, duplicate, missing, and lost citation number information into Versadex.

a) Records Section
b) Patrol Supervisor
c) Watch commander
d) Officer

a) Records Section

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

(GO 524.04) Field supervisors shall inform the station commander of all bias motivated crimes and incidents.

a) True
b) False

a) True

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

(GO 525.01) When it is imperative for evidence to be processed for fingerprints immediately, employees will notify their immediate supervisor, who will contact the county crime lab to make arrangements for the item to be processed.

a) True
b) False

b) False, immediate supervisor, who will contact the on-call Forensic Manager to make arrangements for the item to be processed.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

(GO 525.04) All digital photographs shall be taken using the highest quality compression in the following format/setting:

a) RAW
b) TIFF
c) JPEG
d) All of the above.

c) JPEG

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

(GO 525.01)Found contraband shall be disposed of at the earliest opportunity by the Evidence and Property Section.

a) True
b) False

a) True

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

(GO 525.03) Supervisors will have the ability to view all recorded ICC video utilizing the ICC Back End Client.

a) True
b) False

a) True

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

GO 527.05) Silent burglary alarms received by alarm companies shall be considered a burglary in progress and dispatched as a Priority ____ call.

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

b) 2

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

(GO 532.02) Which is NOT an example of an “unusual event” requiring supervisor notification:

a) gang related homicide
b) major drug arrest or seizure
c) officer-involved shooting
d) none of the above

d) none of the above

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

(GO 532.03) The District Sergeant shall respond to the scene of a bomb call as practical when:

a) A suspicious package is located
b) The threat involved a police facility
c) A search is necessary
d) All of the above

d) All of the above

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

(GO 532.06) The Sacramento County Environmental Health Division shall be notified by telephone of a clandestine lab no later than:

a) the end of shift
b) the end of the shift of the next working day
c) within three (3) working days
d) within 48 hours

b) the end of the shift of the next working day

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

(GO 532.13) The IC in charge of any major operation/incident shall prepare an After Action Report. Which of the following attachments shall be submitted to the affected office chief at the beginning of the office chief’s fifth working day, unless extenuating circumstances prevail.

a) all appropriate crime/incident reports.
b) an After Action Command Post Report (SPD 476).
c) copies of outside agency diagrams/documentation depicting the incident.
d) all of the above
e) A and B only

e) A and B only

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

(GO 532.14) If a subject dies while in a Department holding or detention facility, the Homicide Lieutenant shall forward a copy of the SPD 920 to the California Board of Corrections within _____ days of the incident.

a) Five (5)
b) Ten (10)
c) Thirty (30)
d) None of the above

b) Ten (10)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

(GO 533.07) The ______________ shall be notified of all incidents involving kidnapping, kidnapping for ransom and extortion.

a) Watch Commander
b) Sector Sargent
c) Area Command
d) All Management

a) Watch Commander

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

(GO 532.11) The Manual of Crowd and Riot Control shall be issued to all officers:

a) True
b) False

a) True

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The district Sergeant shall confirm that the (_________) is notified of all bank robberies which occur from Monday through Friday, between 0700 - 1700 hours.
(523.10 Bank Robbery)

A) Neighborhood Crimes Unit (NCU)
B) FBI
C) IRS
D) CSI

A) Neighborhood Crimes Unit (NCU)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In regards to Loss Prevention, release criteria are subject to change and are determined by the (523.12 Loss Prevention)

A) Captain, Office of Field Services
B) Deputy Chief, Office of Investigations
C) Deputy Chief, Office of Field Services
D) COP

C) Deputy Chief, Office of Field Services

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Sergeants shall be responsible for all except: (510.15 Cover Unit)

A) monitoring the use of the CU during priority 1 calls and critical incidents.
B) addressing any misuse of CU outside of department policy.
C) use CU to respond to any officer request for assistance.
D) encouraging officers to use this function during self initiated activity

D) encouraging officers to use this function during self initiated activity

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

For inter-agency involvement in a non-emergency joint field operation, a field supervisor from both agencies shall determine which radio net and which channel(s) will be utilized (GO 510.13 Inter Agency Radio Communications)

A) T
B) F

A) T

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Pursuant to Government Code 12525, the Homicide (______) shall complete and forward a Death in Custody form (SPD 920), with a summary of how the subject died, to the Attorney General’s Office within (___) days of the incident.
(532.14 Death in Custody)

A) Captain, 5 days
B) Captain, 10 days
C) Lieutenant , 5 days
D) Lieutenant, 10 days

D) Lieutenant, 10 days

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Who shall see that a replacement for the equipment is issued after an officer involved shooting, as soon as the situation dictates. (532.14 Death In Custody)

A) Homicide Sergeant
B) Captain of Investigations
C) The Supervisor of the officer involved
D) Internal Affairs

C) The Supervisor of the officer involved

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

When communicating with the hearing impaired, employees should not use family members, neighbors, friends, volunteers, bystanders or children to interpret for a LEP person unless exigent circumstances exist that affects the safety of the officers, the public, or would delay the apprehension of a suspect or preservation of evidence. (510.08 Limited English Proficient Persons)

A) T
B) F

A) T

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A qualified interpreter may be used for complex criminal investigations or custodial
interrogations, with the approval of the (______), Office of Investigations or designee. (510.08 Limited English Proficient Persons)

A) Deputy Chief
B) Captain
C) Lieutenant
D) Sergeant

A) Deputy Chief

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A minimum of (___) hours of “To Messages” shall be audited every other month?
(510.12 POINT-TO-POINT MESSAGES) Could be same as messages on MDC.

A) 12
B) 24
C) 36
D) 48

B) 24

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Unless otherwise approved by the Watch Commander all Priority “E” (Emergency), 1, 2, and 3 calls shall be dispatched by both MDC and voice.
(510.09 MOBILE DATA COMPUTERS (MDC)

A) T
B) F

A) true

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Officers shall request an ambulance to transport mentally ill persons when: (522.01 Mental Health)

A) person is violent and requires restraint in a reclining position.
B) the person is injured or physically ill and in need of immediate medical attention.
C) the person refuses to go to the hospital
D) A and B
E) None

D) A and B

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

If a situation exists where the use of personal camera or non-Departmental
equipment is deemed necessary, employees shall notify (_________)? (525.04 Use of Digital Cameras)

A) Forensic Identification Manager
B) Their Supervisor
C) Their Division Manager
D) Document in report

B) Their Supervisor

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

When private property is damaged during the course of police activity, when the officer cannot locate the responsible he/she shall advise their supervisor. The supervisor shall: (527.05 SECURING OPEN/DAMAGED STRUCTURES)

A) Contact the on-call city safety crew
B) Advise the watch commander who will contact Communications Division contact the appropriate entity to respond and secure the building or eliminate the hazard.
C) have Communications Division contact the appropriate entity to respond and secure the building or eliminate the hazard.
D) Contact John Banks to cook some hotlinks

C) have Communications Division contact the appropriate entity to respond and secure the building or eliminate the hazard.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Regarding requests for Detectives to respond to major incidents, (_________) shall contact the appropriate unit supervisor within the Office of Investigations (OOI) to request assistance. (532.12 Requesting Detectives)

A) Section Watch Commander
B) Field supervisors
C) Division Captain
D) The officer

B) Field supervisors

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The fingerprints obtained on mobile identification devices are permanently stored on the mobile device or any related database (525.05 Mobile ID)

A) True
B) False

B) False

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The mobile identification devices may only be used: Which does not apply
(525.06 Mobile ID)

A) when the subject is under arrest.
B) if the subject gives their consent
C) when there is enough probable cause to search the person for identification
D) when the person is unconscious
E) to identify a deceased subject after permission has been obtained from the coroner’s office.

D) when the person is unconscious

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Officers who arrest and book, or detain for more than (_) hours, a foreign national, shall document whether or not the Consulate was notified and the reasons why or why not in the appropriate report. (523.07 Foreign Nationals)

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4

B) 2

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Law enforcement does not have the authority to order anyone to stop performing CPR (Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation) or to interfere with a Paramedic/EMT. Once CPR has been started on a person, it may be legally discontinued only when: Which does not apply? (522.02 Emergency Care In Custody)

A) Everyone working on a patient is too exhausted to continue.
B) A medical doctor orders everyone to stop.
C) the person starts breathing.
D) The person has no pulse

D) The person has no pulse

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

WSIN Watch Center War Room will:
(532.01 Critical Narcotic Events)

A) cancel critical event notification automatically after 12 hours, unless extended by the submitting agency
B) cancel critical event notification automatically after 24 hours, unless extended by the submitting agency
C) cancel critical event notification automatically after 36 hours, unless extended by the submitting agency
D) cancel critical event notification automatically after 48 hours, unless extended by the submitting agency

B) cancel critical event notification automatically after 24 hours, unless extended by the submitting agency

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

WSIN Watch Center War Room will maintain a record of the critical event for (_) months, at which time the event document will be destroyed.(532.01 Critical Narcotic Events)

A) 3
B) 6
C) 9
D) 12

B) 6

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Officers Shall attempt to obtain a statement following an adult Felony arrest
(523.01 Adult Arrests)

A) T
B) F

A) T

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

During multiple arrest situations related to large demonstrations or disturbances, how many video cameras shall be utilized to record the event? (523.10 Multiple arrests)

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4

B) 2

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In regards to a misdemeanor offense by a juvenile, officers must utilize a private person’s arrest form if one of the parties insists on the arrest. (524.04 Misdemeanor Arrests)

A) True
B) False

B) False

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

When an ICP is established, the senior uniformed officer present shall be the IC until relieved by the (________) or his/her designee. (532.08 Incident Command)

A) Sector Sergeant
B) Watch Commander
C) Senior Officer on scene
D) SWAT first officer on scene

B) Watch Commander

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Any information released concerning a sex offender must be recorded and maintained for a minimum of (___)years to include the means and date of dissemination. This shall be done via an information report and the Supervised Release File Record. (533.10 Disclosure Sexual Offenders)

A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five

D) Five

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

If the victim refuses examination, the reason(s) shall be noted on the report. NOTE: (_________) , sexual assault examinations may be of little use due to the deterioration of evidence. (533.06 Felony Sexual Assault)

A) Up to three days after the incident
B) Up to five days after the incident
C) Up to seven days after the incident
D) Up to ten days after the incident

C) Up to seven days after the incident

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Original digital recordings produced by the ICC system must be maintained for a period of (___) months from the date they were created.(525.03 ICC)

A) 10 months
B) 12 months
C) 16 months
D) 18 months

D) 18 months

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

THE FOLLOWING SHALL, HAVE DISCRETION UPON REVIEWING A CALL TO UPGRADE TO PROXIMITY DISPATCH OR LOWER TO REGULAR DISPATCH DEPENDING ON CIRCUMSTANCES, EXCEPT: (GO 510.04)

A. RADIO COORDINATORS
B. SERGEANTS
C. WATCH COMMANDERS
D. AREA DISPATCHER

D. AREA DISPATCHER

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A D0 UNIT SHALL BE DISPATCHED ON CALLS ONLY WITH THE PERMISSION OF THE (GO 510.04)

A. SECTOR SERGEANT
B. WATCH COMMANDER
C. RADIO COORDINATOR
D. SPECIALTY UNIT SERGEANT

B. WATCH COMMANDER

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

INITIALLY, WHO IS IN CONTROL OF THE SCENE DURING THE EXTRICATION OF A DECEASED PERSON FROM A VEHICLE (GO 510.06)

A. FIRE DEPARTMENT
B. POLICE DEPARTMENT
C. CORONER
D. HIGHEST RANKING MEMBER OF RESPONDING FIRE AND POLICE UNITS COOPERATIVELY

B. POLICE DEPARTMENT

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

ALL IS TRUE REGARDING MDC SECURITY EXCEPT (510.09)

A. MDC TRANSMISSIONS SHALL BE LIMITED TO OFFICIAL BUSINESS
B. OFFICERS CAN REQUEST DEPT OF JUSTICE RAP SHEETS BE ROUTED TO THEIR MDC
C. MDC INFORMATION SHALL BE CONSIDERED CONFIDENTIAL AND NOT BE RELEASED TO THE PUBLIC
D. OFFICERS SHALL SECURE THE VEHICLE AND MDC TO PRECLUDE UNAUTHORIZED USE OR TAMPERING
E. UNOFFICIAL MDC TRANSMISSIONS MAY RESULT IN DISCIPLINARY ACTIONS

B. OFFICERS CAN REQUEST DEPT OF JUSTICE RAP SHEETS BE ROUTED TO THEIR MDC

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

ALL ARE EXTENUATING CIRCUMSTANCES THAT COULD ALTER THE DISPATCH PRIORITY OF CSI CALLS EXCEPT (GO 510.11)

A. IF THE VICTIM IS AN EMPOYEE OF THE DEPARTMENT OR OTHER LAW ENFORCEMENT AGENCY
B. IF EVIDENCE WILL BE DESTROYED OR UNAVAILABLE OF THE CSI RESPONSE TIME IS LENGTHY
C. IF THE CRIME SCENE IS DISRUPTING A BUSINESS AND THE OWNER WANTS TO REOPEN
D. IF POLICE UNITS ARE STANDING BY FOR CSI TO PROCESS THE SCENE
E. IF THE VICTIM IS LEAVING THE CITY LIMITS TO A LOCATION A SIGNIFICANT DISTANCE AWAY

A. IF THE VICTIM IS AN EMPOYEE OF THE DEPARTMENT OR OTHER LAW ENFORCEMENT AGENCY

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

CSI SHALL NOT BE DISPATCHED TO RECOVERY OF STOLEN VEHICLES, WINDOW SMASHES, CAR CLOUTS, OR POTENTIAL EXPLOSIVE DEVICES UNLESS REQUESTED BY THE (GO 510.11)

A. SERGEANT OR HIGHER RANKING SUPERVISOR
B. RADIO COORDINATOR
C. VICTIM
D. INVESTIGATING OFFICER

A. SERGEANT OR HIGHER RANKING SUPERVISOR

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

PHOTOS OF MISDEMEANOR BATTERY VICTIMS SHALL BE TAKEN AT _________ AFTER THE VICTIM HAS SIGNED ___________ (GO 510.11)

A. CSI OFFICE; PHOTO ADMONISHMENT WAIVER (SPD 012)
B. HALL OF JUSTICE LATENT PRINT/PHOTO ID UNIT; PRIVATE PERSONS ARREST
C. PUBLIC SAFETY CENTER SECURITY DESK; PRIVATE PERSONS ARREST
D. JEFF HOUSE; JEFFS COMPUTERIZED DIGITAL VIRTUAL CYBER FORM

C. PUBLIC SAFETY CENTER SECURITY DESK; PRIVATE PERSONS ARREST

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

INTER-AGENCY RADIO TRAFFIC DURING EMERGENCY AND TACTICAL SITUATIONS SHALL BE (GO 510.13)

A. ON THE CHANNEL OF THE DEPARTMENT AND JURISDICTION WHERE THE INCIDENT IS TAKING PLACE
B. ON A PATCHED CHANNEL AT THE DIRECTION OF THE ORIGINATING AGENCY’S WATCH COMMANDER
C. ON THE CHANNEL OF THE DEPARTMENT THAT ORIGINATED THE REQUEST
D. ON A CHANNEL DETERMINED BY FIELD SUPERVISORS FROM BOTH AGENCIES

C. ON THE CHANNEL OF THE DEPARTMENT THAT ORIGINATED THE REQUEST

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A CODE 3 RESPONSE IS JUSTIFIED IN A PURSUIT BY A UNIT OTHER THAN THE INITIATING OR SECONDARY UNIT ONLY WHEN AUTHORIZED BY A SUPERVISOR (GO 521.01)

TRUE / FALSE

True

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

ONCE A PURSUIT HAS BEEN TERMINATED, THE DECISION TO RESUME THE PURSUIT (GO 521.01)

A. CAN BE MADE BY ANY OFFICER WHO OBSERVES THE SUSPECT GRAVELY ENDANGERING THE PUBLIC
B. CAN ONLY BE MADE BY THE SUPERVISOR WHO INITIALLY TERMINATED IT OR A HIGHER AUTHORITY
C. CAN BE MADE BY ANY SGT SUPERVISING AN AREA WHERE THE SUSPECT HAS TRAVELED INTO OR A HIGHER AUTHORITY
D. CAN ONLY BE MADE BY A WATCH COMMANDER OR HIGHER AUTHORITY

B. CAN ONLY BE MADE BY THE SUPERVISOR WHO INITIALLY TERMINATED IT OR A HIGHER AUTHORITY

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

USE OF THE PURSUIT IMMOBILIZATION TECHNIQUE (PIT) SHALL REQUIRE ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT (GO 521.01)

A. THE COMPLETION OF A DRIVERS REPORT OF AN ACCIDENT (BLUE BORDER FORM)
B. THE COMPLETION OF A MOTOR VEHICLE ACCIDENT REPORT (CHP 555)
C. PHOTOGRAPHS OF THE INVOLVED VEHICLES
D. OFFICERS AND SUPERVISORS NARRATIVES OF THE PIT ACTIONS TAKEN WITHIN THEIR REPORT

B. THE COMPLETION OF A MOTOR VEHICLE ACCIDENT REPORT (CHP 555)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

ALLIED AGENCIES ARE PROHIBITED FROM JOINING A PURSUIT UNLESS (GO 521.01)

A. SPECIFICALLY REQUESTED BY THE AGENCY WHOSE OFFICERS ARE IN PURSUIT
B. DIRECTLY ORDERED BY A PATROL SUPERVISOR
C. A SINGLE UNIT OF THE INITIATING AGENCY REQUIRES ASSISTANCE FOR OFFICER SAFETY
D. A AND C
E. ALL OF THE ABOVE

E. ALL OF THE ABOVE

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A VIOLENT MENTALLY ILL PERSON SHALL BE TRANSPORTED (GO 522.01)

A. IN AN AMBULANCE
B. IN THE POLICE WAGON
C. IN A CAGED POLICE SUV
D. WAGON

A. IN AN AMBULANCE

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

WHEN OFFICERS ENCOUNTER A PERSON WHO REFUSES TO ACCEPT MEDICAL ATTENTION, HOW SHALL OFFICERS DOCUMENT THE SITUATION (GO 522.02)

A. REMARKS ON THE CALL
B. STREET CHECK
C. INFORMATION REPORT
D. ADVISE IMMEDIATE SUPERVISOR

C. INFORMATION REPORT

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

AN OFFICER OF THE OPPOSITE SEX MAY ADMINISTER A URINE SPECIMINE IF AN OFFICER OF THE SAME SEX IS THERE TO WITNESS THE TEST (GO 522.03)

TRUE / FALSE

False

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

JUVENILES IN SECURE DETENTION SHALL BE CHECKED ON AT LEAST ONCE EVERY (GO 523.02)

A. 10 MINUTES
B. 15 MINUTES
C. 30 MINUTES
D. HOUR

C. 30 MINUTES

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

JUVENILES HELD IN NON-SECURE CUSTODY SHALL BE (GO 523.02)

A. UNDER CONSTANT VERBAL/AUDITORY ACCESS
B. UNDER CONSTANT VISUAL OBSERVATIONS
C. HELD NO LONGER THAN 6 HOURS
D. ABLE TO DO DOUG’S JOB

B. UNDER CONSTANT VISUAL OBSERVATIONS

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

WHEN DOES AN 849(B) FORM NOT NEED TO BE FILLED OUT BY AN SPD OFFICER

A. WHEN A PERSON HAS BEEN ARRESTED AND NOT FORMALLY BOOKED
B. WHEN A PERSON HAS BEEN ARRESTED, FORMALLY BOOKED, AND IS STILL IN CUSTODY AT THE MAIN JAIL
C. WHEN A PERSON HAS BEEN ARRESTED, FORMALLY BOOKED, IS NO LONGER IN CUSTODY AT THE MAIN JAIL AND THE ARREST PACKAGE HAS NOT BEEN SENT TO THE DA’S OFFICE
D. A PERSON HAS BEEN ARRESTED, FORMALLY BOOKED, IS NO LONGER IN CUSTODY AT THE MAIN JAIL, AND THE ARREST PACKAGE HAS BEEN SENT TO THE DA’S OFFICE

C. WHEN A PERSON HAS BEEN ARRESTED, FORMALLY BOOKED, IS NO LONGER IN CUSTODY AT THE MAIN JAIL AND THE ARREST PACKAGE HAS NOT BEEN SENT TO THE DA’S OFFICE

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

WHAT IS NOT ONE OF THE REASONS AN OFFICER WOULD COMPLETE A FIELD CONTACT AFTER AND INDIVIDUAL WAS DETAINED (GO 523.06)

A.	PHYSICAL RESTRAINT
B.	HANDCUFFED
C.	INVOLUNTARY PLACEMENT OF A PERSON IN A POLICE VEHICLE
D.	VERBAL REQUEST TO EXIT A VEHICLE
E.	INVOLUNTARY PLACEMENT IN ANY LOCATION

D. VERBAL REQUEST TO EXIT A VEHICLE

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A FIELD SUPERVISOR MUST RESPOND TO A BIAS RELATED CRIME (GO 524.04)

TRUE / FALSE

False-Must be notified

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A MONEY TALLY SHEET SHALL BE COMPLETED WHEN BOOKING CASH OR COINS IN EXCESS OF (GO 525.01)

A. 100
B. 200
C. 300
D. 400

B. 200

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

MONEY IN EXCESS OF _______ SHALL REQUIRE A SUPERVISOR TO DESIGNATE A MINIMUM OF ____ PEOPLE TO COUNT THE MONEY (GO 525.01)

A. 500 ; 2
B. 1000 ; 2
C. 1000 ; 3
D. 3000; 3

B. 1000 ; 2

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

AFTER A SAMPLE OF FLAMMABLE LIQUID HAS BEEN BOOKED, THE REMAINING LIQUID SHALL BE TAKEN TO ________ FOR DISPOSAL.

A. A FIRE STATION WITH A LEVEL II HAZMAT DISPOSAL FACILITY
B. THE SACRAMENTO CORP YARD
C. A POLICE GARAGE
D. RAY’S HOUSE, FOR USE IN HIS HOME BREWS RECIPES

C. A POLICE GARAGE

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

ALL OF THE FOLLOWING ARE EVENTS REQUIRING A SGT TO BURN AND BOOK A COPY OF THE ICC FOOTAGE EXCEPT (GO 525.03)

A. HOMICIDE INVESTIGATION
B. OFFICER INVOLVED SHOOTING INVESTIGATION
C. IN CUSTODY DEATH INVESTIGATION
D. PURSUIT
E. MAJOR OFFICER INVOLVED COLLISIONS
F. UPON THE DIRECTION OF A LIEUTENANT OR DESIGNEE

D. PURSUIT

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

OFFICERS WITH RIDE ALONGS MAY NOT BRING THEM INTO A PRIVATE RESIDENCE UNLESS PERMISSION IS OBTAINED FROM THE OCCUPANT OF THE RESIDENCE (GO 527.02)

TRUE / FALSE

True

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Who has the authority to authorize a reverse 911 activation? G.O. 510.03

a. Dispatcher III
b. Division, commander, watch commander and Chief
c. Comm Center captain
d. Sector Sgt.

b. Division, commander, watch commander and Chief

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Political messages and neighbor hood events are both appropriate examples of reverse 911 uses. G.O. 510.03

a. True
b. False

B, Protection of life and property, missing persons in imminent danger (Amber alert) community evacuations, other exigent circumstances.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

With exception to the radio and penal codes, personnel shall use clear speech for all radio transmissions. G.O. 510.05

a. T
b. F

a. T

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Who would be in command on a scene of a stabbing? G.O. 510.06

a. Fire
b. Police

b. Police

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Who would be in command on a scene of an overdose? G.O. 510.06

a. Fire
b. Police

b. Police

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Other then department personnel, who ‘s permission is needed for admittance into the communication center? G.O. 510.07

a. Sector Sgt
b. Officer
c. Communication supervisor or higher authority
d. Dispatcher II

c. Communication supervisor or higher authority

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

AT&T language line meets court certified interpreter requirements. G.O. 510.08

a. T
b. F

b. F

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Hazard files shall not exceed. G.O. 510.10

a. 365 days
b. 6 months
c. 2 years
d. None of the above

a. 365 days

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Who enters hazard files? G.O. 510.10

a. Watch commander
b. Dispatcher II
c. Dispatcher I
d. Dispatcher III or CAD team member

d. Dispatcher III or CAD team member

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is NOT required information for a CSI call? G.O. 510.11

a. Suspect in custody
b. Type of request (finger prints, photos etc…)
c. Number of officers on scene
d. Type of crime

c. Number of officers on scene

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which example would CSI be REQUIRED. G.O. 510.11

a. Burglary of a vacant house or business.
b. Attempted burglaries
c. Burglaries where the suspect is known and had previous permission to be inside the home
d. Domestic violence with visible injury

d. Domestic violence with visible injury

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

After a K-9 bite, if a CSI is unavailable, photographs could be taken by the sector Sgt, an officer, or K-9 Sgt. G.O. 510.11

a. T
b. F

a. T

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Unless requested by a Sgt or higher, CSI shall NOT be dispatched to which of the following? G.O. 510.11

a. Potential explosive deceives
b. Car clout
c. 503 recoveries
d. Window smash, 594, 664/459
e. All of the above

e. All of the above

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

When a misdemeanor battery has occurred and AFTER the victim has signed a private person’s arrest form, who takes photographs of their injuries? G.O. 510.11

a. CSI
b. Sector Sgt
c. Public Safety Center Security Desk
d. Victim takes their own photographs cause it’s a citizen’s arrest

c. Public Safety Center Security Desk

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Who audits MDT to Messages? G.O. 510.12

a. Each teams Sgt
b. Late shift LT
c. Area commander
d. IA

b. Late shift LT

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which two incidents is the CU command allowed? G.O. 510.15

a. Priority one calls
b. Priority Three calls
c. Traffic Stops
d. Pre-Planned game plans
e. A and D
f. B and C

e. A and D

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Who is responsible for monitoring the use of CU on priority one calls and CU miss-use? G.O. 510.15

a. Sgt
b. LT
c. Commander
d. Executive LT

a. Sgt

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

When a suspect displays intention of avoiding arrest by using a vehicle to flee, which is NOT a factor to be considered by the officer before initiating a pursuit? G.O. 521.01

a. Nature of offense
b. Posted speed
c. Weather
d. Sector Sgt
e. Traffic conditions

d. Sector Sgt

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which is NOT a requirement following a PIT incident? G.O. 521.01

a. Officer review of ICC prior to writing the report
b. Blue Border Form
c. Photographs (Damaged or not)
d. Officer and supervisors narratives of the PIT actions taken within their report

a. Officer review of ICC prior to writing the report

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

During Code3 driving, officers Shall activate their red lights and siren continuously. G.O. 521.02

a. T
b. F

F, siren as necessary in accordance with 21055 CVC

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A 72-hour 5150 form does not need to be completed if fire transports the subject. G.O. 522.01

a. T
b. F

F, still needs to be filled and forwarded to records

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Where arrestees requiring out-patient emergency medical care, who’s condition allows for passenger vehicle transportation, taken to? G.O. 522.02

a. UC Davis
b. Mercy General Hospital
c. Sutter
d. Any available hospital

b. Mercy General Hospital

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Where do you take an arrestees requiring medical treatment prior to being booked. G.O. 522.02

a. UC Davis
b. Mercy General
c. Sutter
d. Any available hospital

a. UC Davis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What are officers supposed to do with SPD 915 (prisoner watch log) after prisoner is booked into jail? G.O. 522.02

a. Throw away
b. Book into evidence
c. Turned in as report supplements by booking officer
d. Nothing, a log is not needed at the hospital

c. Turned in as report supplements by booking officer

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What do you do with department issued or personal property that is contaminated by bodily fluids? G.O. 522.05

a. Advise Sgt
b. Place items in a sealed bag and book into property
c. Place items in a sealed bag and deliver to property
d. None of the above

c. Place items in a sealed bag and deliver to property

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Who is notified when an arrestee PC declaration is inadequate? G.O. 523.01

a. The arresting Officer
b. Watch Commander
c. Sector Sgt
d. Dispatch

b. Watch Commander

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

When a school employee is arrested for DUI, the department required to notify the school district? G.O.
523.01

a. T
b. F

b. F

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following crimes are mandated to be reported to the employer/School of an arrested school employee? G.O. 523.01

a. 11350
b. 273.5
c. 289
d. None of the above
e. A and C

e. A and C

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Violent prisoners shall be taken directly to. G.O. 523.02

a. HOJ
b. County Jail
c. Juvenile Hall
d. Medical/mental facility if treatment needed
e. B, C, D

e. B, C, D

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which is NOT one of the exemptions to having Adult and Juvenile prisoners together. G.O. 523.02

a. Movement within a facility
b. Medical screening
c. Holding facility while waiting to be interviewed for homicide
d. When they are co-defendants in a crime (Supervisor approval needed)

c. Holding facility while waiting to be interviewed for homicide

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Detained Juvenile subjects who are intoxicated shall be checked one every_____. G.O. 523.02

a. 15 minutes
b. 30 minutes
c. 60 minutes
d. Constant visual observation

a. 15 minutes

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Detained juvenile subjects who appear to be suicidal shall be checked every _____. G.O. 523.02

a. 15 minutes
b. 30 minutes
c. 60 minutes
d. Constant visual observation

d. Constant visual observation

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

How long can a juvenile be held in department custody before they are booked or released? G.O. 523.02

a. 4 Hours
b. 5 Hours
c. 6 Hours
d. Till the investigation is completed

c. 6 Hours

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Male and female juveniles can never be detained in the same room. G.O. 523.02

a. T
b. F

F, can but constant supervision is mandated.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

To whom and how often are juvenile custody logs audited? G.O. 523.02

a. OOI commander and once a month
b. PSU and quarterly
c. Board of Corrections and twice a year
d. Board of Corrections and once a month

d. Board of Corrections and once a month

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Unused citations shall be forwarded to? G.O. 523.04

a. Officer Sgt
b. Property management Division
c. PSU
d. Jeff has great hair

B, Property management Division for destruction

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

All 849B releases must be approved by a sworn supervisor? G.O. 523.06

a. T
b. F

a. T

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Who prepares the notification letter (abatement notice) for property owners when narcotics arrests are done by patrol? G.O.

a. SID Sgt
b. Asset Seizure Unit
c. Area executive Lt
d. OOI

b. Asset Seizure Unit

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Under the Compassion act of 1996 (Marijuana) a qualified patient MUST have a Card. G.O. 523.11

a. T
b. F

b. F

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Who is responsible for forwarding bias related crimes (hate crimes) to ________ and how often? G.O. 524.04

a. OOI captain, DOJ, quarterly
b. OOI Lt, FBI, Monthly
c. Records division supervisor, DOJ, Monthly
d. Don smells like the inside of a prosthetic limb.

c. Records division supervisor, DOJ, Monthly

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Property collected for booking SHALL be booked no later then___. G.O. 525.01

a. No later than end of shift
b. Prior to clearing the call
c. When practical
d. None of the above

a. No later than end of shift

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Where is all homicide evidence book? G.O. 525.01

a. JERPF
b. HOJ
c. Kinney
d. Any station that’s available
e. 555 Sequoia

E, except for items that do not require immediate processing

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

How does an employee notify property that a mistake was made while booking property? G.O. 525.01

a. Email property supervisor
b. Advise sgt
c. V-mail property using the “Property follow-up needed” handle.
d. Write an i-rpt

c. V-mail property using the “Property follow-up needed” handle.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Police evidence seals shall only be used to seal narcotics, money, and lids of bottles containing liquid samples. G.O. 525.01

a. True
b. False

a. True

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

$_____ or more shall be booked at 555 Sequoia. G.O. 525.01

a. 1,000
b. 2,000
c. 3,000
d. 5,000

c. 3,000

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Flammable liquids shall be booked in a plastic container and secured. The remaining liquid shall be taken to a police garage for safe disposal. G.O. 525.01

a. T
b. F

F, can but constant supervision is mandated.

The ICC system (audio and video) shall be activated… G.O. 525.03

a. Only during traffic stops and when a subject is in the rear seat
b. Only during traffic stops, proactive stops, and subject in the rear seat
c. Only on traffic stops and dispatched calls for services
d. Any field contact for enforcement/investigative purposes whether self-initiated or response to a dispatch call.

d. Any field contact for enforcement/investigative purposes whether self-initiated or response to a dispatch call.

When is it ok to turn off the ICC? G.O. 525.03

a. Until the incident/contact has reasonably concluded
b. Once a subject is detained
c. Before a statement is made
d. Whenever the officer feels it necessary

a. Until the incident/contact has reasonably concluded

In the event an officer feels they have captured an incident that may have significant evidentiary value, officer shall. G.O. 525.03

a. Write an I rpt
b. Advise supervisor and if ordered drive the vehicle to the nearest station for video off-load.
c. Burn a copy of the footage at the end of watch
d. Do nothing, IA has 24/7 access anyway, let them get it.

b. Advise supervisor and if ordered drive the vehicle to the nearest station for video off-load.

(GO 580.14) Initial training for a peer support officer shall be a post certified ____-hour post-trauma debriefing course.

a) 20
b) 40
c) 60
d) 90

b) 40

(GO 580.02) Sergeants shall review all use of force incidents with the arresting officer(s).

a) True
b) False

a) True

(GO 580.05) All flexible body armor must be returned to the armorer when no longer in use.

a) True
b) False

a) True

(GO 540.05) If officers will not be questioning a juvenile offender, the officer does not have to ensure that the Miranda rights were understood, just that they were read to the suspect.

a) True
b) False

a) True

(GO 528.05) SFD arson investigators will assume the primary responsibility of all fire investigations, except those involving:

a) homicides
b) stolen vehicles.
c) destructive devices
d) all of the above

d) all of the above

(GO 550.05) All original crime bulletins shall be approved by a lieutenant or above.

a) True
b) False

b) False, supervisor

(GO 540.03) Any Police Department facilities are designated as safe-surrender sites.

a) True
b) False

b) False

(GO 580.01) Shotgun slings may be used at the officers’ discretion while on duty.

a) True
b) False

b) False

(GO 580.05) All non-sworn personnel working in the field shall wear flexible body armor when in uniform.

a) True
b) False

a) True

(GO 570.03) Supervisors shall ensure employees involved in a traumatic incident are transported home.

a) True
b) False

a) True

(GO 580.11) The _____________ of _______________, may make exceptions to the length of service requirement for a rifle team member.

a) Captain of OOC
b) Deputy Chief, Office of Operations
c) Lieutenant, IAD
d) Lieutenant, Training

b) Deputy Chief, Office of Operations

(GO 580.16) Diversionary devices shall not be used solely to prevent the destruction of evidence.

a) true
b) false

a) true

(GO 538.01) A unit shall be dispatched to investigate and animal complaint if there appears to be imminent danger. Imminent danger includes, but is not limited to:

a) possible injured owner
b) possible crime in progress
c) excessive barking from a normally quiet dog
d) all of the above
e) only a and b

d) all of the above

(GO 560.02) If an outside agency is conducting an operation within the city and the incident develops into a hostage or barricaded subject situation, the SPD on-scene supervisor shall Request that the outside agency relinquish command of the scene to the Sacramento Police Department.

a) True
b) false

a) True

(GO 580.02) If the UOF requires a BT entry the officer’s field supervisor shall

a) review the UOF incident with the area captain
b) refer the incident to internal affairs
c) notify the watch commander immediately
d) none of the above

c) notify the watch commander immediately

(GO 580.03) With regard to an officer involved shooting, in the event that there are no non-shooter officers, ALL supervisors responding to the scene should obtain a Public Safety Statement from at least one shooter officer.

a) True
b) False

b) False

(GO 580.12) The supervisor shall respond to the scene every time a less lethal weapon is deployed causing injury or property damage.

a) True
b) false

a) True

(GO 580.14) Which is NOT a consideration for a supervisor at the scene prior to the use of a department canine to search for or apprehend an individual?

a) the individual’s age or an estimate thereof
b) the nature of the suspected offense
c) the size of the perimeter to be searched
d) the degree of resistance, if any, the individual has shown

c) the size of the perimeter to be searched

(GO 580.14) Explosives detection cross trained canines may be used to clear a suspicious package.

a) True
b) False

b) False

Who initially evaluates a death threat as to its validity and seriousness to either have a unit investigate or refer to the Report Writing Unit? (538.03 Death Threats)

A) Officer who receives the call
B) Sector Sergeant
C) Watch Commander
D) Communications Division

D) Communications Division

All death threat reports shall be forwarded to the (________________) when completed, with a
priority report cover sheet attached. (538.03 Death Threats)

A) Records Supervisor
B) Area Captain
C) Homicide/Assaults Section
D) Area Lieutenant

C) Homicide/Assaults Section

When an individual is arrested as a fugitive based on an out-of-state warrant, What shall occur? (550.01 Fugitives)

A) the individual shall be charged with §1551.1 PC
B) An offense report be completed
C) Arrest for the automated warrant
D) A&B

D) A&B

Don and Jeff decide to not watch a movie, nor play video games one Monday and decide to attempt to make a warrant arrest just inside the County of Sacramento. What shall they do? (560.02 Assisting Outside Agencies Warrant)

A) Advise the County
B) Advise their supervisor
C) Advise SPD communications
D) A combination of the above

D) A&B

Jeff and Don are setting up to assist SSD arrest a guy for a warrant in the City limits. They ultimately arrest the subject. What are their responsibilities?
(560.02 Assisting Outside Agencies Warrant)

A) Advise their supervisor
B) Complete an I-Report
C) Relinquish responsibility of the suspect
D) Maintain responsibility of the suspect
E) A,B,C

E) A) Advise their supervisor
B) Complete an I-Report
C) Relinquish responsibility of the suspect

(___) Shall automatically be voided sixty (60) days after being issued. Probable cause shall be clearly stated on the (___). (550.05 Crime Bulletins)

A) Information Bulletin
B) Wanted Persons Bulletin
C) Arrest Bulletin
D) None of the above

B) Wanted Persons Bulletin

(___) are self-canceling after 30 days and are automatically routed to the Cancel Folder where they will be archived for retrieval at a later date. (550.05 Crime Bulletins)

A) Information Bulletin
B) Wanted Persons Bulletin
C) Arrest Bulletin
D) None of the above

A) Information Bulletin

Diversionary devices may be used solely to prevent the destruction of evidence.

A) True
B) False

B) False

Doug has never been trained in the use of the 40MM less lethal launcher. He does however feel that he needs it to keep Sood’s large chin from attacking his face. Is there an instance that Doug can use this weapon? (580.12 Less Lethal)

A) No, must be trained in the weapon
B) No, he would probably run away
C) Yes, no training is required if emergency situation
D) Yes, with the watch commander approval in emergency situation

D) Yes, with the watch commander approval in emergency situation

Per our current GO’s, consider the following: Sally is a lateral sworn officer from Dixon PD. She was with Dixon PD for 2 years. She has only been with SPD for one year. Is she eligible to become a rifle team member? (580.11 Use Of M-16 Rifle)

A) Yes* at least 12 months SPD and 2 years service as peace officer
B) No

A) Yes* at least 12 months SPD and 2 years service as peace officer

A school bus driver dropped off her last 3rd grader for the day. On her way back to the school bus parking facility, she is hit by another vehicle in the city. Who completes the collision report?
(537.04 Collision Reporting)

A) CHP
B) SPD
C) SSD
D) AAA

B) only if no pupils are on-board I-5

Is there a circumstance where an officer may issue a citation following a traffic collision to a driver, rather than attach it to you report? (537.04 Collision Reporting)

A) No, citations must be turned in with the report and marked “Collision” in the signature box
B) Yes, if the officer observed the violation
C) None of the above
D) Why does Doug love his partner?

B) Yes, if the officer observed the violation

Mr.Sood finds a gun on the street where he lost a guy in a foot pursuit. The gun is chambered and will not open to make the weapon safe. Can Mr. Sood transport that firearm? (560.06 Safe Handling Firearms)

A) No, must contact EOD
B) Yes, place it safely in trunk
C) No, must contact department armorer
D) Yes, just advise his Sergeant

D) Yes, just advise his Sergeant

In cases where a firearm has been discharged or the UOF results in death, whom generates a Blue Team Entry? (580.02 Use Of Force)

A) Park’s Sergeant
B) Park’s Lieutenant
C) Park’s Captain
D) IA/PSU

D) IA/PSU

How long is an SPD 117 waiver and release good for? (538.02 Trespassing)

A)	6 months
B)	1 year
C)	Change of ownership
D)	2 year
E)	C and F
F)	Doesn’t expire

E) C and F

Following an employee involved traumatic event, peer support shall ensure the employee is transported home. (570.03 Post-Trauma Response)

A) True
B) False

B * Supervisors

(____) shall contact Occupational Health and Safety (1-800-227-1060) to schedule a
mandatory appointment with a psychologist for the involved employee(s) within
(__) hours of the event and notify PSD that the appointment has been made.
(570.03 Post-Trauma Response)

A) Incident Commander / 48 hours
B) division/watch commander / 48 hours
C) Officers supervisor / 72 hours
D) Division/watch commander / 72 hours

D) Division/watch commander / 72 hours

Life partners Jeff and Don are interviewing a subject once again at Faces. During the interview, the subject advises that he committed the felony in question and violently takes a fighting stance towards the couple. Jeff sprays the guy in the face with some O.C. Spray, but it doesn’t affect him. Don has his CED readily available and made communication notifications and verbal warnings to the guy. Should he use it? (580.10 Use Of C.E.D.)

A) Yes
B) No

B-*presence of combustible vapors and liquids or other flammable substances including but not limited to, alcohol based Oleoresin Capsicum (O.C.) Spray.

Officers may obtain an ex parte emergency protective order (EPO), following the guidelines provided in General Order 533.04 for minors when they reasonably believe that a child is in immediate and present danger of: (540.01 Protective Custody)

A) abuse by a family member of a member of the household.
B) abduction by a parent or relative.
C) Both
D) None

C) Both

Off-duty officers shall not stop infraction violators on sight, unless the violation poses an
immediate threat of bodily injury. (570.02 Crimes Involving Officers/Families)

A) True
B) False

A) True

SPD will not act as a designated agent and issue a notice of trespass (SPD 114) unless (GO 538.02)

a. A notice of agency (SPD 116) has been signed by the owner designating SPD as the designated agent
b. And SPD employee is providing contracted police services (including supplemental off duty employment)
c. An SPD waiver and release (SPD 117) is on file at each district station authorizing SPD entry onto private property for enforcement purposes
d. None of the above, SPD will never act as a designated agent

b. And SPD employee is providing contracted police services (including supplemental off duty employment)

If a trespasser is arrested on additional charges, a separate trespass report shall still be completed (GO 538.02)

True / False

True

Suspected child abuse/neglect must be reported to CPS within ____ hrs (GO 540.02)

a. 12
b. 24
c. 36
d. 48

c. 36

Wanted persons bulletins shall automatically be voided after ____ days; Information bulletins are self-canceling after ____ days (GO 550.05)

a. 30 / 30
b. 60 / 30
c. 30 / 60
d. 90 / 90

b. 60 / 30

If an officer arrests an individual for an out of state warrant, along with fresh charges, the officer shall (GO 550.01)

a. Arrest the subject for the fresh charges and add the 1551.1 (fugitive from justice) as a secondary charge
b. Arrest the subject for the fresh charges only; the additional 1551.1 charge is not needed
c. Arrest the subject for the fresh charges only; do not add the 1551.1 charge, but insure that a separate information report is completed for the 1551.1 charge
d. Have Doug do a press release

a. Arrest the subject for the fresh charges and add the 1551.1 (fugitive from justice) as a secondary charge

In regards to arrests and investigations by allied agencies, an SPD supervisor shall be conferred (GO 560.01)

a. When an outside agency completes a traffic cite in SPD jurisdiction
b. When an outside agency completes a stolen vehicle report on an area of shared jurisdiction
c. When an SPD officer is asked to book a suspect by officers from an outside jurisdiction
d. When an officer from an outside agency has a use of force incident in a shared jurisdiction

c. When an SPD officer is asked to book a suspect by officers from an outside jurisdiction

If, during the service of a warrant by an outside agency, a hostage or barricaded subject situation arises, SPD officers shall only provide assistance with traffic control and evacuations (GO 560.02)

True / False

False

Of the following, what would be a situation where an on duty officer would take a report themselves (GO 570.02)

a. An officer has their posse box taken from a patrol car before roll call
b. An officer has his cell phone stolen after leaving it on a table during C7
c. An officer’s niece is a victim of a purse snatch downtown
d. An officer’s best friend is P-2 in a non injury accident at J and Alhambra

a. An officer has their posse box taken from a patrol car before roll call

Following a post traumatic incident, the supervisor shall (GO 570.03)

a. Notify a peer support member
b. Notify a chaplain
c. Ensure the employee is transported home
d. All of the above

d. All of the above

The early intervention program (EIP) may be applied to employees who have ___ or more separate sustained or open citizen complaints which are similar in nature within ___ months (GO 570.66)

a. 3 / 6
b. 3 / 12
c. 3 / 18
d. 3/ 24

b. 3 / 12

All of the following situations require a blue team entry except for (GO 580.02)

a. A twist lock control hold that causes the suspect to scream as if their arm was broken, but who does not need medical attention
b. A short burst of pepper spray that misses the suspect’s face and actually hits their shoulder
c. The accidental discharge of a firearm without injury that did not occur at the range
d. A camel clutch applied by Sood, breaking the suspect’s neck

a. A twist lock control hold that causes the suspect to scream as if their arm was broken, but who does not need medical attention

When an employee discharges or attempts to discharge a firearm while on or off duty, intentionally, or accidentally, the employee shall immediately notify (GO 580.03)

a. Their immediate supervisor
b. The on duty watch commander
c. The station commander (station lt)
d. The division commander (captain)

b. The on duty watch commander

Upon responding to an officer involved shooting, the district sergeant shall obtain a brief over view of the situation from (GO 580.03)

a. the primary officer on scene
b. the primary officer who fired the shot
c. any non shooting officer
d. the most senior officer on scene

c. any non shooting officer

What is not a question a supervisor can ask if they are obtaining a public safety statement from an officer who has just discharged their firearm (GO 580.03)

a. Outstanding suspect information
b. Number and direction of shots fired
c. Frame of mind during the shooting
d. Identity of any known witnesses

c. Frame of mind during the shooting

Which of the following shooing investigations can not be conducted at the watch level (GO 580.03)

a. Accidental discharge with injury
b. Accidental discharge with out injury
c. Shooting of an animal
d. Attempted discharge

a. Accidental discharge with injury

Of the following, when can a CED be used (GO 580.10)

a. On a pregnant woman
b. On a passive resistor
c. On a subject that has just been pepper sprayed
d. None of the above

d. None of the above

When an officer displays his CED and arcs it to avert a potentially dangerous or injurious situation, the officer shall complete (GO 580.10)

a. A blue team entry
b. A street check
c. A general offense
d. CED activation form (SPD 128)

c. A general offense

Officers who deploy their rifle shall complete (GO 580.11)

a. An m-16 after action notice (SPD 884)
b. A street check
c. A general order
d. Remarks on the call noting they deployed their rifle

a. An m-16 after action notice (SPD 884)

What less than lethal system can a trained officer use when authorized by a field supervisor (GO 580.12)

a. The shotgun x-rep round
b. The pepperball gun
c. The 40mm less lethal weapon systems
d. Both b and c

d. Both b and c

When an officer has an accidental discharge of a less lethal weapon system, who shall they notify immediately (GO 580.12)

a. Their immediate supervisor
b. The sergeant supervising the district in which the discharge occurred
c. The watch commander
d. Jeff’s girlfriend, because she knows how to handle an accidental discharge

b. The sergeant supervising the district in which the discharge occurred

What does not serve as good cause for a K9 deployment (GO 580.14)

A. Flight from a pursuing officer
B. The individual poses an immediate threat of violence
C. The individual is physically resisting arrest
D. The individual is believed to be concealed in an area where entry by other than the canine would pose a threat to the officer

A. Flight from a pursuing officer

When an officer completes a collision investigation involving a city vehicle, what shall they include from the report (GO 537.04) Except:

a. AOI (are of impact)
b. PCF (primary collision factor)
c. O’s and C’s (opinions and conclusions)
d. Blue border form

b. PCF (primary collision factor)

The special condition “550” on a vehicle collision report indicates (GO 537.04)

a. The number of calls Doug gets when you are trying to have a conversation with him
b. The number of people on Ray’s “raft” when he came to America
c. The number of Jihads Sameer as committed
d. The officer suspects the collision was staged

d. The officer suspects the collision was staged

When an officer must use the night depository for animal related services at the animal shelter, they shall notify (538.02)

a. The on call animal control officer
b. Immediate supervisor
c. City operator
d. Watch commander

c. City operator

SPD will not act as a designated agent and issue a notice of trespass (SPD 114) unless (GO 538.02)

b. And SPD employee is providing contracted police services (including supplemental off duty employment)

If a trespasser is arrested on additional charges, a separate trespass report shall still be completed (GO 538.02)

True / False

True

Suspected child abuse/neglect must be reported to CPS within ____ hrs (GO 540.02)

a. 12
b. 24
c. 36
d. 48

c. 36

Wanted persons bulletins shall automatically be voided after ____ days; Information bulletins are self-canceling after ____ days (GO 550.05)

a. 30 / 30
b. 60 / 30
c. 30 / 60
d. 90 / 90

b. 60 / 30

If an officer arrests an individual for an out of state warrant, along with fresh charges, the officer shall (GO 550.01)

a. Arrest the subject for the fresh charges and add the 1551.1 (fugitive from justice) as a secondary charge

In regards to arrests and investigations by allied agencies, an SPD supervisor shall be conferred (GO 560.01)

c. When an SPD officer is asked to book a suspect by officers from an outside jurisdiction

If, during the service of a warrant by an outside agency, a hostage or barricaded subject situation arises, SPD officers shall only provide assistance with traffic control and evacuations (GO 560.02)

True / False

False

Of the following, what would be a situation where an on duty officer would take a report themselves (GO 570.02)

a. An officer has their posse box taken from a patrol car before roll call

Following a post traumatic incident, the supervisor shall (GO 570.03)

a. Notify a peer support member
b. Notify a chaplain
c. Ensure the employee is transported home
d. All of the above

d. All of the above

The early intervention program (EIP) may be applied to employees who have ___ or more separate sustained or open citizen complaints which are similar in nature within ___ months (GO 570.66)

a. 3 / 6
b. 3 / 12
c. 3 / 18
d. 3/ 24

b. 3 / 12

All of the following situations require a blue team entry except for (GO 580.02)

a. A twist lock control hold that causes the suspect to scream as if their arm was broken, but who does not need medical attention

When an employee discharges or attempts to discharge a firearm while on or off duty, intentionally, or accidentally, the employee shall immediately notify (GO 580.03)

a. Their immediate supervisor
b. The on duty watch commander
c. The station commander (station lt)
d. The division commander (captain)

b. The on duty watch commander

Upon responding to an officer involved shooting, the district sergeant shall obtain a brief over view of the situation from (GO 580.03

a. the primary officer on scene
b. the primary officer who fired the shot
c. any non shooting officer
d. the most senior officer on scene

c. any non shooting officer

What is not a question a supervisor can ask if they are obtaining a public safety statement from an officer who has just discharged their firearm (GO 580.03)

a. Outstanding suspect information
b. Number and direction of shots fired
c. Frame of mind during the shooting
d. Identity of any known witnesses

c. Frame of mind during the shooting

Which of the following shooing investigations cannot be conducted at the watch level (GO 580.03)

a. Accidental discharge with injury
b. Accidental discharge with out injury
c. Shooting of an animal
d. Attempted discharge

a. Accidental discharge with injury

Before transporting a loaded seized firearm, employees shall inform a supervisor (GO 580.06)

True / False

True

Of the following, when can a CED be used (GO 580.10)

a. On a pregnant woman
b. On a passive resistor
c. On a subject that has just been pepper sprayed
d. None of the above

d. None of the above

When an officer displays his CED and arcs it to avert a potentially dangerous or injurious situation, the officer shall complete (GO 580.10)

a. A blue team entry
b. A street check
c. A general offense
d. CED activation form (SPD 128)

c. A general offense

Officers who deploy their rifle shall complete (GO 580.11)

a. An m-16 after action notice (SPD 884)
b. A street check
c. A general order
d. Remarks on the call noting they deployed their rifle

a. An m-16 after action notice (SPD 884)

What less than lethal system can a trained officer use when authorized by a field supervisor (GO 580.12)

a. The shotgun x-rep round
b. The pepperball gun
c. The 40mm less lethal weapon systems
d. Both b and c

d. Both b and c

When an officer has an accidental discharge of a less lethal weapon system, who shall they notify immediately (GO 580.12)

b. The sergeant supervising the district in which the discharge occurred

What does not serve as good cause for a K9 deployment (GO 580.14)

A. Flight from a pursuing officer

When an officer completes a collision investigation involving a city vehicle, what shall they include from the report (GO 537.04) Except:

a. AOI (are of impact)
b. PCF (primary collision factor)
c. O’s and C’s (opinions and conclusions)
d. Blue border form

b. PCF (primary collision factor)

c. O’s and C’s (opinions and conclusions)

The special condition “550” on a vehicle collision report indicates (GO 537.04)

d. The officer suspects the collision was staged

When an officer must use the night depository for animal related services at the animal shelter, they shall notify (538.02)

a. The on call animal control officer
b. Immediate supervisor
c. City operator
d. Watch commander

c. City operator

Children under ___ or in need of medical attention shall be taken to UCD med center for protective custody (GO 540.01)

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

b. 2

When a subject delivers a baby to a Safe-Surrender site, the officer shall do all of the following EXCEPT (GO 540.03)

a. Attempt to obtain voluntary identification from the surrendering person
b. Place the baby in protective custody
c. Conduct a thorough preliminary investigation to determine if there is any abuse issues
d. Prevent the parent or surrendering person from leaving the site until a CPS representative arrives

d. Prevent the parent or surrendering person from leaving the site until a CPS representative arrives

When booking a juvenile on an accelerated felony citation, officers shall (GO 540.05)

a. Consult with their immediate supervisor
b. Consult with juvenile hall intake and determine if they concur with the decision
c. Ensure the juvenile has fingerprints on file with the department
d. B and C
e. All of the above

e. All of the above

If officers are not going to question an arrested juvenile (GO 540.05

a. Miranda rights shall be given immediately upon arrest
b. Miranda rights are not required
c. Miranda rights shall be given as soon as practical
d. Miranda rights shall be given immediately upon arrest, ensure the juvenile understands them

c. Miranda rights shall be given as soon as practical

A violent or mentally disturbed juvenile shall not be brought to police facilities with the exception of (GO 540.05)

a. Any arrest for homicide
b. Any arrest for rape
c. Any arrest requiring a forced blood draw
d. All of the above

a. Any arrest for homicide

During the service of a felony warrant, a minimum of ___ officer(s) shall be assigned (GO 550.03)

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

b. 2

A warrant work sheet shall be returned to the warrant unit within ___ days (GO 550.06)

a. 10
b. 15
c. 20
d. 30

d. 30

An officer shall not arrest a person for fewer than ___ infraction traffic warrants (GO 550.06)

a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6

a. 3

Property damage only reports may be used in which of the following condition(s)? [GO 537.04]

a. No more than two involved parties
b. No injuries
c. All of the above
d. None of the above

c. All of the above

In the event an animal cannot be cared for when their owner is arrested, officers may deposit an animal in the night deposit. After completing all of the necessary paperwork at the deposit, who shall the officer notify? [GO 538.01]

a. District Sergeant
b. Watch Commander
c. City Operator
d. None of the above

c. City Operator

When issuing a hazard for a location to note of a served trespass notice of a subject, how many days shall the hazard expire? [GO 538.02]

a. 4
b. 5
c. 6
d. 7

d. 7

Upon receiving a report of a death threat, if the Communications Center feels the report is creditable, who is contacted? [GO 538.03]

a. District Sergeant
b. Homicide/Assault Sergeant
c. Watch Commander
d. None of the above, online report because a case number will protect you.

c. Watch Commander

The Sacramento Sheriff’s Department Jail policy will only accept AWOL/deserters as military prisoners with criminal charges and _____. [GO 538.04]

a. Email from Navy Absentee Collection Unit identifying deserters.
b. List compiled every 8 hours from NACU listing AWOL subjects
c. NCIC teletype verifying AWOL/deserter warrant(s).
d. All of the above.

c. NCIC teletype verifying AWOL/deserter warrant(s).

Even in cases when SFD is the primary investigator, SPD personnel will collect and book evidence and be responsible for any arrests. [GO 538.05]

a. True
b. False

B (SFD handles everything when designated primary, except: 187’s, 503’s, destructive devices or other serious crimes.)

If the responsible adult identified by an arrestee refuses to sign a Child Authorization Release Form (SPD 152), the minors shall be: [GO 540.01]

a. Taken to juvenile hall per 300 WI.
b. Transported to UCD Medical Center for an examination.
c. Placed in protective custody.
d. None of the above.

c. Placed in protective custody.

11166 PC, law enforcement officials are mandated reporters. When a mandated reporter reasonably suspects that a child is the victim of child abuse, they shall report the circumstances to the CPS within _____. [GO 540.02]

a. 24 hours
b. 36 hours
c. 48 hours
d. Immediately

b. 36 hours

The Safely Surrender Baby Law allows for a(n) _____ cooling off period, which begins _____. [GO 540.03]

a. 14-day / the day the child is checked into a hospital.
b. 14-day / 12-hours after being voluntarily surrendered.
c. 14-day / the day that the child is voluntarily surrendered.
d. 14-day / the first Wednesday after the child is voluntarily surrendered.

c. 14-day / the day that the child is voluntarily surrendered.

The SPD shall, when possible, inform parents when their child may be involved in gang-related activity or associating with known gang members so they will have the opportunity to take corrective action. [GO 540.04]

a. True
b. False

a. True

Officers shall book juveniles offenders, in lieu of the accelerated process, whose offense includes the following, except: [GO 540.05]

a. A sex crime, crime involving severe personal injury or threats of violence.
b. Substantial property damage or a crime pattern or series.
c. Prior criminal history for the same offense.
d. Wards of the court (601 and 602 WI)
e. All of the above are acceptable.

e. All of the above are acceptable.

Which of the following is the preferred destination for a truant, except: [GO 540.07]

a. Truancy Center
b. Appropriate school principal’s office
c. Grant Union High School SRO
d. Juvenile Hall

d. Juvenile Hall

Which Department unit shall be responsible for all fugitive investigations and extradition processes? [GO 550.01]

a. Warrants Unit
b. PRCS Team
c. SWAT
d. None, Sacramento Sheriff’s Department

a. Warrants Unit

Wanted person bulletins may be used in lieu of an arrest warrant, since cases do not have to be submitted to the Sacramento County DA’s office until 48 hours after an arrest. [GO 550.05]

a. True
b. False

B (WPB’s shall not take place of arrest warrants.)

Warrant worksheets shall be returned to the Warrant Unit within _____, along with notations regarding action taken or information received in the service or investigation of the warrant. [GO 550.06]

a. 15 days
b. 30 days
c. 45 days
d. 60 days

b. 30 days

In the Ramey procedure, officers document the probable cause to arrest in a Crime Report package and present it to the District Attorney, who presents a complaint to the magistrate. The magistrate signs the arrest warrant. [GO 550.07]

a. True
b. False

B (Ramey is when officers go to magistrate, bypassing DA.)

Sacramento Police Department officers planning to make an arrest outside the city limits shall notify _____ before taking any action in that jurisdiction. [GO 560.02]

a. Outside law enforcement agency
b. Supervisor
c. Watch Commander
d. Both A and B
e. All of the above

d. Both A and B

The only exceptions to the rule, “..[P]rimary investigating agency will be determined by the location of the shooting scene..” is NOT which of the following: [GO 560.01]

a. Sacramento County Court House
b. Sacramento County Jail
c. UCD Medical Center
d. SSD Administration Building

c. UCD Medical Center

The Sacramento Sheriff’s Department is the _____ for California’s Office of Emergency Services (OES) Law Enforcement Division. [GO 560.03]

a. Regional Transit Coordinator
b. Sacramento Operational Area Coordinator
c. Region IV Law Enforcement Mutual Aid Coordinator
d. Both A and B
e. Both B and C

b. Sacramento Operational Area Coordinator

Requests for mutual aid resulting in more than _____ officers shall immediately require the approval of Office Chief(s) or COP, until someone is reached. [GO 560.03]

a. 9
b. 10
c. 11
d. 12

c. 11

Employees may take a report while on-duty when: [GO 570.02]

a. The employee is a victim of a crime against property.
b. The employee, a family member, or a friend is a victim of a crime or a named suspect in the report.
c. The employee, family member, or a friend is involved in a vehicle accident.
d. None of the above.

d. None of the above.

In order to be eligible for the Early Intervention Program (EIP), you must have _____ or more separate sustained or open citizen complaints which are similar in nature with _____. [GO 570.06]

a. 2 / 10 months
b. 2 / 12 months
c. 3 / 10 months
d. 3 / 12 months

d. 3 / 12 months

Officers may not modify the shotgun or sling without approval from _____. [GO 580.01]

a. Immediate Supervisor
b. Watch Commander
c. Armorer
d. None of the above

c. Armorer

When force is applied upon a subject, an injury shall include the temporary pain associated with the proper application of control holds and/or restraints. [GO 580.02]

a. True
b. False

B (Injury does not include temporary pain.)

Which of the following in not considered a reportable use of force? [GO 580.02]

a. Discharge of a firearm
b. Canine bite
c. Failed attempted use of an impact weapon
d. Chemical agent
e. Failed use of carotid restraint
f. Both B and C
g. Both C and E

??? g. Both C and E

Officers may only use reasonable force upon a subject’s head or neck in an effort to prevent individuals from swallowing or attempting to swallow evidence. [GO 580.02]

a. True
b. False

B (Shall not use force to head or neck.)

An officer’s field supervisor shall initiate a Blue Team entry whenever the following reportable UOF event occurs, except: [GO 580.02]

a. Any UOF where suspect sustains Medical Clearance Injury.
b. Any UOF, regardless of sustained injury of suspect, involving discharge of firearm, canine bite, use of impact weapon, chemical agent, carotid restraint and/or CED.
c. Suspect’s wrists sustaining red marks from wear of handcuffs for an acceptable amount of time.
d. Any UOF, regardless of sustained injury of suspect, that deviates from techniques taught and equipment issued by the Department.

c. Suspect’s wrists sustaining red marks from wear of handcuffs for an acceptable amount of time.

An officer is attempting to place a suspect in handcuffs when the suspect draws a pistol and points it at the officer. The officer’s partner draws his pistol, points it at the suspect and pulls the trigger. The firearm does not discharge, however the suspect drops his pistol and surrenders. The officers do not have to have report the incident because the firearm did not discharge. [GO 580.03]

a. True
b. False
Bonus: Who shall the employee notify?

B (Bonus: Watch commander)

As a responding supervisor to an officer-involved shooting, if there are no non-shooters on scene, a _____ should be taken from at least one shooting officer. [GO 580.03]

a. Initial Onscene Statement
b. Safety Brief Statement
c. Public Safety Statement
d. None of the above

c. Public Safety Statement

The DA, or designee, shall be notified to respond to all officer-involved shootings (regardless of injury), permitted access to scene (to include disruption of the scene) and submit their findings (supplement) to PD’s report. [GO 580.03]

a. True
b. False

B (Only for injury sustained OIS, access to scene no disruption, DA submit their own findings).

Officers shall not be advised of their Miranda rights unless: [GO 580.03]

a. Under arrest.
b. Information available to the investigators causes them to believe the officer is criminally responsible.
c. The officer makes incriminating statements during an oral interview.
d. All of the above.

d. All of the above.

In the event than an officer involved in a shooting elects not to provide criminal investigators with a voluntary statement, the assigned IAD investigator shall conduct a(n) _____ to determine relevant information. [GO 580.03]

a. Miranda statement
b. Morsey statement
c. Administrative statement
d. None of the above

c. Administrative statement

All sworn personnel working in a police facility or administrative assignment shall have their flexible body armor readily available at all times. [GO 580.05]

a. True
b. False

a. True

Officers shall only utilize a CED in the drive stun mode: EXCEPT:[GO 580.10]

a. When authorized by lieutenant or higher
b. As a backup to complete circuit after ineffective probe deployment
c. When encountering passive resistors
d. In the immediate defense of an officer

c. When encountering passive resistors

Which of the following is not a consideration when officers deploy a CED device when attempting to apprehend a fleeing subject? [GO 580.10]

a. Severity of the offense
b. Subject’s threat level to others
c. Risk of serious injury to the subject
d. Effective range of other UOF options

d. Effective range of other UOF options

When an accidental CED discharge takes place on-duty, the officer’s _____ shall be notified immediately. If an accidental CED discharge takes place off-duty, the officer’s _____ shall be notified immediately. [GO 580.10]

a. Field Supervisor / Field Supervisor
b. Watch Commander / Watch Commander
c. Field Supervisor / Watch Commander
d. Watch Commander / Field Supervisor

c. Field Supervisor / Watch Commander

Officers who deploy their M-16 rifle shall complete an SPD 884 and route it to the _____ along with _____. [GO 580.11]

a. Watch Commander / Arrest Report
b. Lieutenant, PSU / CAD Call
c. Special Operations LT / GO
d. Special Operations LT / CAD Call

d. Special Operations LT / CAD Call

Cross trained canines may be used to search a person for narcotics and/or firearms. [GO 580.14]

a. True
b. False

b. False

All members of SWAT shall pass the SWAT physical agility test no less than _____ each calendar year. [GO 580.15]

a. Once
b. Twice
c. Thrice
d. None of the above

b. Twice

_____ PC allows officers to confiscate firearms encountered during domestic violence and book for safe keeping. G.O. 533.04

a. 12035 PC
b. 12028.5 PC
c. 12021 PC
d. No PC code, just allowed

b. 12028.5 PC

First aggressor during a domestic violence incident is always the primary aggressor. G.O. 533.04

a. True
b. False

B, False, Primary aggressor is MOST SIGNIFICANT, not always first

______ is the brochure that is furnished to victims of Domestic violence prior to leaving the scene and reports shall document that it was given. G.O. 533.04

a. SPD 117
b. SPD 332
c. SPD 957
d. None of the above

c. SPD 957

Office of investigations shall retrieve statistical data regarding domestic violence incidents (gun, knife, hands/feet etc..) and forward a report to _____ . G.O. 533.04

a. Bureau of Criminal Statistics
b. FBI
c. DOJ
d. County DA office

a. Bureau of Criminal Statistics

Where are victims of felony sexual assault transported to for evidence collection and treatment? G.O. 533.06

a. BEAR exam office @ Mercy
b. BEAR exam office @ Davis
c. BEAR exam office @Kiser
d. BEAR exam office @ Sutter

d. BEAR exam office @ Sutter

Which of the following is not cause for field supervisor to call SACA out? G.O. 533.06

a. Complicated scene
b. Forcible rape
c. Crime is part of a series
d. Victim is too emotional

b. Forcible rape

Rape kits are booked into property once completed by hospital staff. G.O. 533.06

a. True
b. False

False, handled by hospital staff and not booked into evidence

If a kidnapping is confirmed but the location of the victim/hostages is unknown who shall handle the investigation? G.O. 533.07

a. NCU
b. Felony Assaults
c. Homicide
d. Watch Commander

c. Homicide

What does Marsy’s Law pertain to? G.O. 533.08

a. Registered gang members in area
b. Victims of crimes
c. Missing persons
d. None of the above

b. Victims of crimes

Whose responsibility is it to notify ______ of all bank robberies? G.O. 532.10

a. District Sgt, NCU
b. District Sgt, Felony assaults
c. Watch Commander, NCU
d. Watch Commander, FBI

a. District Sgt, NCU

Which of the following is NOT considered an unusual event? G.O. 532.02

a. SWAT call out
b. Officer involved shooting
c. Homicide
d. Overnight hospitalization of department member for injuries sustained on duty

c. Homicide

The city manager is not notified of unusual events. G.O. 532.02

a. True
b. False

b. False

Which of the following is NOT considered a critical narcotic event that would require WSIN to be notified? G.O. 532.01

a. Buy/Bust operation
b. Sting Operation
c. Currency Laundering
d. Undercover meets
e. None of the above

e. None of the above

Who functions as the liaison with the LoJack Corporation concerning the maintenance, repair of SPD LoJack vehicles? G.O. 531.06

a. Fiscal
b. PSU
c. Deputy Chief of field services
d. Departments fleet manager

d. Departments fleet manager

Which of the following would a dispatcher alert a field supervisor? G.O. 531.05

a. Ringing alarm
b. Silent Burglary alarms
c. Silent Robbery alarms
d. Alarm complaints

c. Silent Robbery alarms

It is OK to tell a suspect that a RAM was utilized in their apprehension. G.O. 531.04

a. True
b. False

B. Also not allowed to discuss with media and not provide detailed information in the report.

Who’s install’s RAM tags in the field? G.O. 531.04

a. NCU Detectives
b. NCU Sgt
c. District Sgt
d. None of the above

a. NCU Detectives

Who maintains informant files? G.O. 533.09

a. Handling officer of the informant
b. Handling officers Sgt.
c. Handling officers LT
d. Captain of SID or Captain of office of the chief

d. Captain of SID or Captain of office of the chief

When meeting with an informant, officers must have at least ____ with them. G.O. 533.09

a. 1
b. 2
c. With their Sgt.
d. I love lamb.

a. 1

How long of inactivity before an informant’s file is placed in the inactive file? G.O. 533.09

a. 2 months
b. 4 months
c. One year
d. Never inactive, once a red file is maintained its always considered active

b. 4 months

Who is the only person/entity that can allow a Juvenile to be an informant, other than for STOP TOBACCO ACCESS TO KIDS ACT? G.O. 533.09

a. Handling Officers Lt
b. Chief of police
c. SID Captain
d. Court/judge

d. Court/judge

How long can an informant’s file be inactive before it is eligible to be purged and who makes that decision? G.O. 533.09

a. 5 years/Handling officer
b. 4 years/SID Captain
c. 5 years/SID Captain
d. 5 years/DA’s office

C, But also COP makes final approval for permanent destruction.

If a Use of force requires a Blue Team entry, the field supervisor shall. G.O. 580.02

a. Notify the watch commander immediately
b. Call SPOA prior to speaking with officer
c. Advise IA if force is outside department policy
d. Shit a brick.

a. Notify the watch commander immediately

Which of the following would NOT require a Blue Team entry? G.O. 580.02

a. Use of Force that requires subject to be medically cleared prior to booking
b. Use of Force (injured or not) that involved baton, CED, Firearm, K9, carotid hold, chemical agent
c. Use of Force that results in injury that is deviates from techniques taught by department
d. None of the above.

d. None of the above.

If the use of force was captured on ICC, the footage is ______ and forwarded to _____. G.O. 580.02

a. Viewed by supervisor and officer/ watch commander
b. Copied/Chief of police
c. Copied/ PSU
d. None of the above

c. Copied/ PSU

SPD collision documentation shall be in compliance with_____. G.O. 537.04

a. DOJ
b. CHP manual 110.5
c. FBI
d. SPD G.O.’s and collision manual

b. CHP manual 110.5

When SPD vehicle collides with another SPD vehicle a collision report is required. G.O. 537.04

a. True
b. False

False, if all of the following exist a blue boarder form is all you need:

No injury
Privately owned vehicles/property are not involved
Code 3 driving not involved
Moderate damage or less

A school bus with children aboard is involved in a collision but no children are injured. Who does investigation? G.O. 537.04

a. CHP
b. SPD
c. Whatever jurisdiction it happened at
d. None of the above, DOJ does it

A. If school bus is in collision but no children aboard SPD would do it if within the city.

Who signs collision report citation completed by CSO’s? G.O. 537.04

a. Any officer after review of the report
b. Traffic Sgt
c. Motor Sgt
d. Supervisor who reviews the report

d. Supervisor who reviews the report

Johnny is contacted at Providence Place Apts (formally Country Wood Village) by security. He acts like an ass so security wants to issue a trespass on him. Officer arrives on scene and serves Johnny with a SPD 114 form. The outstanding patrol officer then gives the signed trespass form to his awesome new Sgt who then enters a hazard file on the subject to the location. How long is the hazard file kept before it expires? G.O. 538.02

a. 1 month
b. Forever
c. 7 days
d. 1 year.

c. 7 days

Johnny didn’t learn. Two days later he is contacted at the same apartment complex by officers and is arrested. What charge is he booked under? Note: Complex is posted no trespassing. G.O. 538.02

a. 9.16.140 SCC only
b. 602 Only
c. 148PC since it’s the officer that contacted Johnny, not security
d. Both A and B

D, if it wasn’t posted it would just be 9.16.140 SCC

Which of the following officer involved shootings is not investigated at the watch level? G.O. 580.03

a. Shooting of an animal
b. Shooting of a suspect but not life threatening
c. Accidental discharge with no injury
d. Attempted discharge (weapon malfunction)

b. Shooting of a suspect but not life threatening

Which of the following officer involved shootings is investigated by homicide? G.O. 580.03

a. Intentional Discharge at a person
b. Discharge resulting in death
c. Accidental discharge from a penis
d. A and B

d. A and B

Fleeing alone is justification for using a CED. G.O. 580.10

a. True
b. False

b. False

Which of the following should officer NOT use CED on? G.O. 580.10

a. Pregnant women, elderly person, young children, frail persons
b. Subject known to be around combustible vapors and liquids or other flammable substances
c. Subjects who’s use of a CED may cause further injury such as falling from height, drowning, operating a vehicle.
d. All of the above

d. All of the above

Officer Shit for brains is at a UFC fight night with his friends. He’s a phase 4 and thinks he’s the best cop ever. While showing off his CED to some hot chicks he has accidental discharge. His CED also is accidentally discharged. Who does he notify. G.O. 580.10

a. His Sgt
b. Any on duty sector Sgt
c. On duty watch commander
d. His division captain.

c. On duty watch commander

Which of the following is NOT a reason for a Sgt to call a board up crew? G.O. 527.05

a. Following a family 242
b. Damage caused by criminal action, traffic accident, or forces of nature
c. Serious safety hazard is discovered by officer or complaint
d. Officer causes damage during course of official duty

a. Following a family 242

Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

GO 510.03 - 580.14 Weeks 3-4 Flashcards

Brainscape's Knowledge Genome^TM