220-1201 Exam Objectives Flashcards
(183 cards)
1
Q
What are common replaceable hardware components in mobile devices?
A
Battery, keyboard/keys, RAM, HDD/SSD, wireless cards, physical privacy/security components, Wi-Fi antenna, camera/webcam, microphone.
2
Q
What are some examples of physical privacy and security components?
A
Biometrics and near-field scanner features.
3
Q
Name 5 common connection methods for mobile devices.
A
USB/USB-C/microUSB/miniUSB, Lightning, NFC, Bluetooth, Tethering/hotspot.
4
Q
What are common device accessories?
A
Stylus, headsets, speakers, webcam.
5
Q
What’s the purpose of a docking station and a port replicator?
A
Both expand connectivity; docking stations offer more features, while port replicators mainly replicate existing ports.
6
Q
What are input devices often used with mobile devices?
A
Trackpad, drawing pad, track points.
7
Q
What wireless technologies should be enabled or disabled for mobile connectivity?
A
3G/4G/5G, hotspot, Wi-Fi, SIM/eSIM
8
Q
How do you connect a mobile device via Bluetooth?
A
Enable Bluetooth -> Enable pairing -> Find device -> Enter PIN -> Test connection
9
Q
What services use GPS and cellular location?
A
Location services
10
Q
What does Mobile Device Management (MDM) involve?
A
Device configurations (corporate/BYOD), policy enforcement, corporate apps.
11
Q
What are examples of mobile device synchronization?
A
Calendar, contacts, mail, business apps, cloud storage, data cap recognition.
12
Q
What is the function of DNS?
A
DNS (Domain Name System) resolves domain names to IP addresses.
13
Q
What do the following DNS record types represent?
- A:
- AAAA:
- CNAME:
- MX:
- TXT:
A
- A: Maps a domain to an IPv4 address
- AAAA: Maps a domain to an IPv6 address
- CNAME: Alias of one domain to another (canonical name)
- MX: Mail exchanger for email delivery
- TXT: Holds text info; used for spam/security (SPF, DKIM, DMARC)
14
Q
What are SPF, DKIM, and DMARC used for in DNS TXT records?
A
Spam management and email authentication to prevent spoofing.
15
Q
What is a DHCP lease?
A
A time-based agreement for assigning an IP address to a device.
16
Q
What is a DHCP reservation?
A
A permanent IP address assigned to a specific MAC address.
17
Q
What is a DHCP scope and exclusion?
A
- Scope: Range of IPs available for lease.
- Exclusion: IPs in the range that are reserved and won’t be assigned.
18
Q
What is a VLAN?
A
A Virtual LAN segments networks logically without requiring physical separation.
19
Q
What is a VPN?
A
A Virtual Private Network creates a secure, encrypted tunnel over the internet.
20
Q
What’s the difference between a router and a switch?
A
Routers connect different networks; switches connect devices within a single network.
21
Q
What’s the difference between managed and unmanaged switches?
A
Managed switches offer control/configuration; unmanaged do not.
22
Q
What is an access point?
A
A device that allows wireless devices to connect to a wired network.
23
Q
What is a patch panel?
A
A hardware assembly with ports to manage incoming/outgoing LAN cables.
24
Q
What is a firewall used for?
A
To block unauthorized access and allow permitted communications.
25
What is Power over Ethernet (PoE)?
Technology that delivers power and data through the same Ethernet cable.
26
What are PoE injectors and switches?
Devices that provide power through Ethernet cables -- injectors add it; switches have it built in.
27
What are common PoE standards?
IEEE 802.af (PoE) and 802.3at (PoE+)
28
What does a cable modem do?
Provides internet access via a coaxial cable.
29
What does a DSL stand for and do?
Digital Subscriber Line; provides internet over telephone lines.
30
What is an Optical Network Terminal (ONT)?
A device used with fiber-optic internet to convert fiber signals to usable internet.
31
What is a NIC and MAC address?
Network Interface Card allows network access; MAC address is the unique hardware ID.
32
What are private vs. public IPv4 addresses?
Private addresses are for local use (e.g., 192.168.x.x); public are routable on the internet.
33
What is APIPA?
Automatic Private IP Addressing (169.254.x.x) used when DHCP fails.
34
What's the difference between static and dynamic IPs?
Static: manually assigned and fixed
Dynamic: assigned by DHCP
35
What is a subnet mask used for?
It defines the network and host portions of an IP address.
36
What is a default gateway?
A router that a device uses to send traffic outside its local network.
37
What are the pros and cons of satellite internet?
Pros: Available in rural areas
Cons: High latency, weather interference
38
What are the benefits of fiber internet?
Very high speed and low latency; great for high-bandwidth needs.
39
How does cable internet work?
Uses coaxial cable; faster than DSL but shared bandwidth can reduce speed.
40
What is DSL and how does it compare to cable?
Uses telephone lines; typically slower than cable and fiber.
41
How is cellular internet used?
Mobile data via 3G/4G/5G networks -- flexible but dependent on signal strength.
42
What is a Wireless Internet Service Provider (WISP)?
Delivers internet via radio signals -- often used in rural areas.
43
What is a LAN?
Local Area Network -- covers a small area like a home or office.
44
What is a WAN?
Wide Area Network -- spans a large area, like the internet.
45
What is a PAN?
Personal Area Network -- short-range network, e.g, Bluetooth devices.
46
What is a MAN?
Metropolitan Area Network -- covers a city or campus area.
47
What is a SAN?
Storage Area Network -- used to access and manage large data storage.
48
What is a WLAN?
Wireless Local Area Network -- wireless version of a LAN, often using Wi-Fi.
49
What is a crimper used for?
Attaches connectors to cables (e.g., RJ45).
50
What does a cable stripper do?
Removes insulation from cables without damaging the wires.
51
What is a Wi-Fi analyzer used for?
Detects wireless networks and analyzes signal strength/interference.
52
What does a toner probe do?
Locates cables in walls or bundles using a tone generator and probe.
53
What is a punchdown tool?
Secures wires into patch panels or keystone jacks.
54
What is a cable tester used for?
Tests cable connectivity and pinouts.
55
What is a loopback plug used for?
Tests ports by sending data back to itself -- great for diagnostics.
56
What is a network tap?
Captures and monitors network traffic without interrupting the flow.
57
What are the common types of LCD panels?
IPS - In-Plane Switching (best color/viewing), TN - Twisted Nematic (fastest response), VA - Vertical Alignment (best contrast)
58
How does OLED differ from LCD?
OLED has no backlight -- better contrast, thinner displays
59
What's Mini-LED?
Smaller LEDs for improved backlighting -- better brightness/contrast control
60
What is a digitizer?
Converts touch input into digital signals -- used in touchscreens
61
What's an inverter used for in displays?
Converts DC to AC for older LCD backlights
62
Key display attributes?
Pixel density, refresh rate, resolution, color gamut
63
What's the difference between STP and UTP cables?
STP has shielding for EMI; UTP is cheaper and unshielded
64
What are the T568A and T568B standards?
Wiring standards for Ethernet cable pinouts
65
Difference between single-mode and multimode fiber?
Single-mode: long distance, laser light
Multimode: short distance, LED
66
Plenum-rated cable?
Fire-resistant -- used in ventilation spaces
67
Examples of peripheral cables?
USB 2.0/3.0, Thunderbolt, Serial
68
Examples of video cables?
HDMI, DisplayPort, VGA, DVI, USB-C
69
Examples of hard drive cables?
SATA, eSATA
70
Connector types to know?
RJ11 (phones), RJ45 (Ethernet), F-type (coaxial), ST/SC/LC (fiber), DB9 (serial), USB variants, Lightning, Molex, punchdown block
71
SODIMM vs DIMM?
SODIMM = laptops
DIMM = desktops
72
What is ECC RAM?
Error-correcting -- used in servers for stability
73
RAM channel configurations?
Single, dual, triple, quad-channel for performance
74
DDR generations?
DDR -> DDR2 -> DDR3 -> DDR4 -> DDR5 (faster and more efficient each time)
75
Spindle speeds of HDDs?
Common: 5400, 7200, 10,000 RPM
76
HDD form factors?
2.5" (laptops), 3.5" (desktops)
77
SSD interfaces?
SATA , NVMe, PCIe, SAS
78
SSD form factors?
M.2, mSATA
79
What is RAID 0?
Striping for performance (no redundancy)
80
RAID 1?
Mirroring (redundancy), fault tolerance - data is copied on more than one disk
81
RAID 5?
Striping with parity (balanced performance + redundancy)
82
RAID 6 and RAID 10?
6 = dual parity
10 = stripe of mirrors
83
Types of removable storage?
USB drives, SD/memory cards, optical drives (CD/DVD/Blu-ray) - ODDs
84
Motherboard sizes?
ATX (Advanced Technology Extended), microATX, ITX (Information Technology Extended)
85
Common motherboard connectors?
PCI, PCIe, SATA, M.2, headers, power connectors
86
What are CPU socket types?
AMD (AM4, TR4), Intel (LGA 1200, LGA 1700, etc.)
87
BIOS/UEFI settings to know?
Boot order, USB permissions, TPM, Secure Boot, fan control
88
What is TPM?
Trusted Platform Module -- stores encryption keys
89
CPU architectures?
x86 (32-bit), x64 (64-bit), ARM (mobile/efficient)
90
What are add-on cards (expansion cards/boards)?
Sound card, video card, NIC, capture card -- enhance functionality
91
Cooling methods?
Fans, heat sinks, thermal paste/pads, liquid cooling
92
Voltage input options?
110-120V (US), 220-240V (international)
93
Common power output voltages?
3.3V, 5V, 12V
94
What is a modular power supply?
Detachable cables - improves airflow
95
What's a 20+4 pin connector for?
Main power for motherboards
96
Redundant power supply?
Backup PSU -- used in servers
97
Printer types and maintenance tasks?
- Laser: Replace toner, maintenance kit, clean/calibrate
- InkJet: Replace cartridges, clean hands, clear jams
- Thermal: Replace paper, clean heat element
- Impact: Replace ribbon and printhead
98
Common printer connection types?
USB, Ethernet, wireless
99
Printer settings to configure?
Duplex, orientation, tray settings, quality
100
Printer security features?
User authentication, audit logs, secure print
101
Network scan services?
Programs that check which devices are connected to a network, what ports are open, and what services or systems are running. Used to keep networks organized, secure, and running smoothly.
102
What's ADF vs flatbed scanner?
ADF auto-feeds pages; flatbed requires manual placement
103
What is a virtual machine (VM)?
A software-emulated computer system that runs its own OS and apps like a physical computer.
104
What are common uses of VMs?
- Sandbox: Isolated testing environment
- Test/development: Safe dev/testing without affecting production
- Application virtualization: Run apps without installing them on host OS
- Legacy software: Use older apps/OS on modern systems
- Cross-platform: Run one OS on top of another (e.g., Windows on macOS)
105
Key virtualization requirements?
- Security: Isolation and access control
- Network: Bridged, NAT, or host-only networking
- Storage: Sufficient disk I/O and capacity
106
What is desktop virtualization?
When a computer's desktop (the screen, apps, files, etc.) runs on a remote server instead of your physical computer. You see and use it on your device, but it's actually happening somewhere else.
107
What is VDI (Virtual Desktop Infrastructure)?
A centralized server setup where users access full desktop environments remotely
108
What are containers?
Lightweight virtualized environments that share the host OS kernel but run apps in isolated spaces
109
What's a Type 1 Hypervisor?
"Bare-metal" hypervisor that runs directly on hardware (e.g., VMware ESXi)
110
What's a Type 2 Hypervisor?
Runs on top of an existing OS (e.g., VirtaulBox, VMware Workstation)
111
What is a private cloud?
Cloud infrastructure used by one organization -- more control and security
112
What is a public cloud?
Services offered over the internet to multiple users (e.g., AWS, Azure)
113
What is a hybrid cloud?
Combines public and private clouds for flexibility
114
What is a community cloud?
Shared infrastructure for organizations with common concerns (e.g., healthcare, education)
115
What is Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)?
Provides virtualized hardware (servers, storage) -- you install/manage OS and apps (e.g., AWS EC2)
116
What is Software as a Service (SaaS)?
Fully managed app delivered over the internet (e.g., Gmail, Microsoft 365)
117
What is Platform as a Service (PaaS)?
Dev environment + tools provided -- users build apps without managing infrastructure (e.g., Google App Engine)
118
What is shared vs dedicated resources?
- Shared: Multiple users share resources (cost-effective)
- Dedicated: Reserved for one user or org (better performance/control)
119
What does metered utilization mean?
You pay based on your usage (CPU, bandwidth, etc.)
120
What is ingress/egress?
- Ingress: Data entering the cloud
- Egress: Data leaving the cloud
121
What is elasticity in cloud computing?
Ability to scale resources up or down automatically
122
What does availability refer to?
Cloud services are accessible when needed (often measured as uptime %)
123
What is file synchronization?
Keeping files updated and accessible across multiple devices (e.g., OneDrive, Dropbox)
124
What is multitenancy?
Multiple users share the same infrastructure while keeping data isolated
125
What do POST beeps indicate?
Hardware initialization issues -- beep codes vary by manufacturer.
126
What is a proprietary crash screen?
A branded system error display (e.g., BSOD for Windows).
127
What can cause a blank screen on boot?
Faulty GPU, loose cable, bad RAM, or no power to display.
128
What causes "no power" symptoms?
Dead PSU, bad power cable, tripped surge protector, faulty outlet.
129
What causes sluggish performance?
Overheating, insufficient RAM, background tasks, malware.
130
What can cause overheating?
Failing fans, dust buildup, poor thermal paste application.
131
What does a burning smell typically indicate?
Electrical failure -- immediately power down and inspect.
132
Common causes of random shutdowns?
Overheating, faulty PSU, bad RAM, or CPU issues.
133
What causes app crashes?
Incompatible drivers, bad RAM, corrupt software.
134
What can unusual noises (clicks, whines) indicate?
Failing fans, HDD issues, PSU failure.
135
What is capacitor swelling?
Bulging or leaking capacitors -- common on failing motherboards.
136
What causes the system date/time to reset?
Dead CMOS battery.
137
What does a red or amber LED on a drive usually indicate?
Drive failure or warning state.
138
What causes grinding or clicking noises in a drive (HDD)?
Mechanical failure -- back up immediately!
139
What does "boot device not found" mean?
No OS detected -- bad drive or incorrect boot order.
140
What can cause data loss/corruption?
Power loss, bad sectors, malware, or RAID failure.
141
What does a RAID failure mean?
One or more drives in the array have failed or are degraded.
142
What is S.M.A.R.T. failure?
Predictive failure notice -- drive should be replaced soon.
143
What causes extended read/write times or low IOPS?
Drive is old, fragmented (HDD), or failing.
144
What does "missing drive in OS" mean?
Unrecognized drive -- check cable, BIOS, or drivers.
145
What does an audible RAID alarm mean?
Hardware issue -- check RAID management utility.
146
Why might a display show no signal?
Wrong input source or loose cable.
147
What causes a fuzzy image?
Low resolution or poor connection.
148
What is display burn-in?
A phenomenon where persistent ghost images appear on a screen, particularly on OLED displays, due to prolonged exposure to static images.
149
What causes dead pixels?
This can happen due to the pixel failing to receive power or an improper operation of the transistor responsible for activating it.
150
What causes screen flashing or flickering?
Refresh rate mismatch or loose connector.
151
Why might colors display incorrectly?
Cable issues or incorrect color profile settings.
152
What causes audio issues on HDMI?
Incorrect audio output setting or bad HDMI cable.
153
What causes a dim image on a projector?
Burnt-out bulb or brightness setting too low.
154
Why does a projector shut off intermittently?
Overheating, dirty filter, or failing power supply.
155
What is poor battery health?
Battery doesn't hold charge well -- needs replacement.
156
What does a swollen battery mean?
Dangerous condition -- stop using the device immediately.
157
What is a digitizer issue?
Touch input not registering properly.
158
Why won't a mobile device charge?
Faulty cable/port or damaged battery.
159
What causes poor/no connectivity?
SIM issue, no service area, airplane mode enabled.
160
What does overheating on a mobile device indicate?
App or hardware stress, possibly a failing battery.
161
What causes cursor drift or touch calibration issues?
Damaged digitizer or screen.
162
What can prevent app installations?
Low storage, unsupported OS version, or restrictions.
163
What causes intermittent wireless connectivity?
Signal interference, weak signal, or failing NIC.
164
Why is the network slow?
High bandwidth usage, outdated equipment, or interference.
165
What does "limited connectivity" mean?
Device is connected but has no internet access -- DHCP or IP issue.
166
What is jitter?
Irregular latency -- common in poor VoIP performance.
167
What causes poor VoIP quality?
High jitter, latency, or packet loss.
168
What is port flapping?
Network port rapidly connects/disconnects -- cable or switch issue.
169
What causes high latency?
Distant servers, network congestion, or bad routing.
170
What is external interference?
EMI/RFI disrupting signal -- especially on wireless networks.
171
What causes authentication failures?
Wrong password, expired credentials, or misconfigured settings.
172
What causes lines down printed pages?
Dirty rollers or failing drum.
173
What is a garbled printout?
Incorrect or corrupt printer drivers.
174
Common cause of paper jams?
Misaligned paper or worn feed rollers.
175
What causes faded prints?
Low toner/ink or wrong paper type.
176
Why might a printer print multiple pages incorrectly?
Incorrect page setup or software issue.
177
What causes speckling on pages?
Dirty drum or loose toner inside.
178
What causes double/echo images?
Bad fuser or image drum.
179
What causes grinding noises?
Mechanical failure or jammed gears.
180
What's a finishing issue in printers?
Stapler or hole-punch malfunction.
181
What causes incorrect orientation?
Wrong settings in print dialog or driver.
182
What causes tray not recognized errors?
Sensor failure or misaligned tray.
183
What causes a frozen print queue?
Print spooler crash -- restart the service.
