Pediatrics Flashcards

1
Q

What is the average age at which the following milestone is achieved: social smile?

A

1-2 months

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2
Q

What is the average age at which the following milestone is achieved: cooing?

A

2-4 months

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3
Q

What is the average age at which the following milestone is achieved: while prone, lifts head up 90 degrees?

A

3-4 months

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4
Q

What is the average age at which the following milestone is achieved: rolls front to back?

A

4-5 months

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5
Q

What is the average age at which the following milestone is achieved: voluntary grasp (no release)?

A

5 months

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6
Q

What is the average age at which the following milestone is achieved: stranger anxiety?

A

6-9 months

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7
Q

What is the average age at which the following milestone is achieved: sits with no support?

A

7 months

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8
Q

What is the average age at which the following milestone is achieved: pulls to stand?

A

9 months

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9
Q

What is the average age at which the following milestone is achieved: waves “bye-bye”?

A

10 months

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10
Q

What is the average age at which the following milestone is achieved: voluntary grasp with voluntary release?

A

10 months

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11
Q

What is the average age at which the following milestone is achieved: plays pat-a-cake?

A

9-10 months

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12
Q

What is the average age at which the following milestone is achieved: first words?

A

9-12 months

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13
Q

What is the average age at which the following milestone is achieved: imitates others’ sounds?

A

9-12 months

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14
Q

What is the average age at which the following milestone is achieved: separation anxiety?

A

12-15 months

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15
Q

What is the average age at which the following milestone is achieved: walks without help?

A

13 months

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16
Q

What is the average age at which the following milestone is achieved: can build tower of 2 cubes?

A

13-15 months

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17
Q

What is the average age at which the following milestone is achieved: understands 1-step commands (no gesture)?

A

15 months

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18
Q

What is the average age at which the following milestone is achieved: good use of cup and spoon

A

15-18 months

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19
Q

What is the average age at which the following milestone is achieved: can build tower of 6 cubes?

A

2 years

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20
Q

What is the average age at which the following milestone is achieved: runs well?

A

2 years

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21
Q

What is the average age at which the following milestone is achieved: ties shoelaces?

A

5 years

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22
Q

How do you assess developmental milestones for premature infants?

A

Reduce their age in the first 2 years when assessing. For example, for children born at 6 months gestation, subtract 3 months from their chronological age (expected to perform only at the 6-month-old level when they are 9 months old).

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23
Q

True or false: The overall pattern of development is more important than the age at which individual milestones are reached.

A

True. The exact age is not as important as the overall pattern in looking for dysfunctional development. When in doubt, use a formal developmental test.

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24
Q

What screening and preventative are measures should be done at every pediatric visit?

A

Height, weight, BP, developmental/behavioral assessment, and anticipatory guidance (counseling/discussion about age-appropriate concerns)

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25
Q

True or false: Screening and preventative care are important mainly during a well check-up.

A

False. They are an important part of every encounter with a patient (adult or child). Example: Mother complains that her 4 y/o child sleeps 11 hours per night. This is normal behavior. The answer to the question, “What should you do next?” may be to give an objective hearing exam, which is routine in a 4 y/o child.

26
Q

What are the commonly performed screening tests for metabolic and congenital disorders?

A

States very widely in their policies. All states screen for hypothyroidism and phenylketonuria at birth; must be done within first month or life. Most states screen for galactosemia and hemoglobinopathies (e.g. sickle cell). Some include screening for homocystinuria, maple syrup urine disease, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, cystic fibrosis, biotinidase deficiency, tyrosinemia, and toxoplasmosis. If any of these are positive, first step is to order a confirmatory test.

27
Q

What are the frequently tested items under the umbrella of primary prevention using “anticipatory guidance”?

A

Tell parents the following: keep water heater under 110-120 F, use car restraints, put the infant to sleep on his or her side or back to help prevent SIDS (most common cause of death in children aged 1-12 months), do not use infant walkers because they cause injuries, watch out for small objects (aspiration risk), do not give cow’s milk before 1 year of age, introduce solid foods gradually starting at 6 months, supervise children in bathtubs and swimming pools

28
Q

How often should height, weight, and head circumference be measured? What do they signify?

A

Head circumference should be measured at every visit in the first 2 years; height and weight should be measured routinely until adulthood. All three are markers of general well-being.

29
Q

What if a child has low height, weight, or head circumference compared with peers?

A

The pattern of growth along plotted growth curves over times tells you more than a single measurement. If a child has always been low or high compared with peers, generally the pattern is benign. A patients who goes from a normal to an abnormal curve is more worrisome.

30
Q

Define failure to thrive. What causes it?

A

Commonly used definitions include a head circumference, height, or weight less than the 5th percentile for age; weight less than 80% of ideal weight for age; or a weight loss that causes a decrease in 2 or more major percentage lines on the growth curve. Most commonly due to psychosocial or functional problems. Watch for signs of neglect and child abuse.

31
Q

What conditions are suggested by obesity in children?

A

Usually due to overeating and too little activity (more than 95% of cases). Less than 5% of cases are due to organic causes (e.g. Cushing syndrome, Prader-Willi syndrome).

32
Q

What conditions should you consider in a child with an abnormal head circumference?

A

Increase in head circumference may mean hydrocephalus or tumor, whereas decreased head circumference may mean microcephaly (e.g. congenital TORCH infection).

33
Q

How are hearing and vision screened?

A

Measured objectively at least once by 4 years of age. After the initial screen, measure every few years until adulthood or more often if necessary.

34
Q

In what situations should you worry about hearing loss?

A
  • After a bout of meningitis (hearing loss it he most common neurologic complication)
  • With congenital TORCH (toxoplasmosis, other [e.g. syphilis, HIV], rubella, CMV, HSV) infections
  • With measles or mumps
  • With chronic middle ear effusions or chronic or recurrent otitis media
  • With the use of ototoxic drugs (e.g. aminoglycosides)
35
Q

What is the red reflex? What should an abnormal reflex suggest?

A

When penlight is shined at pupil, usually see red because of underlying funds. If a cataract (or tumor) is present in the eye, the reflex disappears and you see black (with a cataract) or white (known as leukocoria and classically 2/2 retinoblastoma).

36
Q

True or false: Before a certain age, intermittent strabismus is normal.

A

True. It is normal for infants to have occasional ocular misalignment (strabismus) until 3 months of age. After 3 months (or with constant eye deviation), strabismus should be evaluated and managed by an ophthalmologist to prevent possible blindness in the affected eye.

37
Q

How is screening for anemia done?

A

Hemoglobin or hematocrit measurement is recommended at 12 months of age. Recommendations during adolescence vary, but should typically be done at least once. Any risk factors for iron deficiency (e.g. prematurity, low birth weight, ingestion of cow’s milk before 1 year of age, low dietary intake, low socioeconomic status) warrant a screen.

38
Q

True or false: All children should be given prophylactic iron supplements.

A

False. Exclusively breast-fed infants do not require supplementation. All other children should receive supplementation. Start iron-supplements in full-term infants at 4-6 months of age and in preterm infants at 2 months of age. Most infant formulas and cereals contain iron, thus separate supplements are usually not required.

39
Q

How and when do you screen for lead exposure?

A

Routine screening is no longer recommended. However, all Medicaid-eligible children must be screened. Consider screening high-risk children (live in old buildings, have sibling or playmate with lead toxicity, eat paint chips, live near battery recycling plant). Screen by doing serum lead level. If abnormally high, first best step is to stop the exposure.

40
Q

True or false: Most children need fluoride supplementation.

A

False. Because most water is fluorinated, supplementation is not needed. If, however, a child lives in an area where the water is inadequately fluoridated (rare) or the child is fed exclusively from premixed, ready-to-eat formulas (which use nonfluoridated water), fluoride supplements should be given.

41
Q

True or false: Breast-fed infants are more likely to require vitamin D supplements than formula-fed infants.

A

True. The American Academy of Pediatricians recommends that exclusively and partially breastfed infants receive vitamin D supplements shortly after birth and continue until they are weaned and consume formula or whole milk. Formula-fed infants do not require supplements in the US because all formulas contain them.

42
Q

Wen should children be screened for TB?

A

Universal screening is not recommended. There is no need to screen children who have no risk factors. Risk assessment should occur regularly until 2 years of age, then annually. Test those are high risk (family member with TB or positive TB test, born in high-risk country, traveled to high-risk country, consumed unpasteurized milk or cheese).

43
Q

True or false: Screening children for renal disease with a urinalysis is not recommended.

A

True. However, you should screen for congenital/anatomic abnormalities (e.g. vesicoureteral reflux) after a UTI in children 2 months to 2 years of age by getting an ultrasound and either voiding cystourethrogram or radionuclide cystogram.

44
Q

True or false: Sexually active teenaged girls need screening for chlamydial infection and gonorrhea.

A

True.

45
Q

When should you recommend that a child see a dentist for the first time?

A

Around 2 to 3 years of age.

46
Q

What are the Tanner stages? When do they occur?

A

Measure the stages of puberty. Stage 1 is preadolescent, stage 5 is adult. Average age of puberty is 10.5 years in girls and 11.5 years in boys. The classic first events of puberty are testicular enlargement in boys and breast development in girls.

47
Q

Define delayed puberty. What is the most common cause?

A

Defined by lack of testicular enlargement in boys by age 14 years or a lack of breast development or pubic hair in girls by age 12 years. The most common cause is constitutional delay, a normal variant. Watch for parents with a similar history of being “late bloomers.” The children’s growth curve consistently lags behind that of peers, but is parallel to the normal growth curve. Treatment is reassurance only.

48
Q

What are other causes of delayed puberty?

A

Rarely, may be due to primary testicular failure (Klinefelter syndrome, cryptorchidism, history of chemotherapy, gonadal dysgenesis) or ovarian failure (Turner syndrome, gonadal dysgenesis). Even more rarely, is it due to a hypothalamic/pituitary defect (Kallman syndrome or tumor).

49
Q

What causes precocious puberty?

A

Usually idiopathic but may be due to McCune-Albright syndrome (in girls), ovarian tumors (granulosa, theca-cell, or gonadoblastoma), testicular tumors (Leydig-cell tumors), CNS disease or trauma, adrenal neoplasm, or congenital adgrenal hyperplasia (causes precocious puberty only in boys usually 2/2 21-hydroxylase deficiency).

50
Q

True or false: If the underlying cause for precocious puberty is uncorrectable or idiopathic after diagnostic work-up, patients should receive treatment.

A

True. Most patients are given long-acting gonadotropin-releasing hormone agonists to suppress the progression of puberty. This helps prevent premature epiphyseal closure with short statue.

51
Q

How are cavernous hemangiomas treated?

A

Benign vascular tumors often first noticed a few days after birth. They tend to increase in size after birth and gradually resolve within the first 2 years of life. The best treatment is to do nothing but observe and follow.

52
Q

Distinguish between caput succedaneum and cephalohematoma. How are these conditions treated?

A

Both are noted in newborns after vaginal delivery. Caput succedaneum defines diffuse swelling or edema of the scalp that crosses the midline, is benign, and requires no further investigation or treatment. Cephalohematomas are subperiosteal hemorrhages that are sharply limited by suture and do not cross the midline. They are usually benign and self-resolving, but in rare cases may indicate an underlying skull fracture. Order a radiograph or CT to rule out fracture.

53
Q

When does the anterior fontanelle usually close? What disorder should you suspect if it fails to close?

A

Usually is closed by 18 months of age. Delayed closure or an unusually large anterior fontanelle may indicate hypothyroidism, hydrocephalus, rickets, or intrauterine growth retardation.

54
Q

How many vessels does a normal umbilical cord have? What disorder should you suspect if one of the vessels is absent?

A

Three normal vessels: two arteries and one vein. If only one artery is present, consider the possibility of congenital renal malformations.

55
Q

True or false: Milky-white and possibly blood-tinged vaginal discharge is usually abnormal in the first week of life for a female newborn.

A

False. This discharge is usually physiologic and due to maternal hormone withdrawal.

56
Q

What findings should make you suspect child abuse?

A

Failure to thrive, multiple fractures/bruises/injuries in different stages of healing, metaphyseal “bucket handle” or “corner” fractures, shaken baby syndrome (retinal hemorrhages or subdural hematomas with no external signs of trauma), behavioral/emotional/interactional problems, sexually transmitted diseases, multiple personality disorder (classically due to sexual abuse), whenever a parent’s story does not fit the child’s injury

57
Q

True or false: You do not need proof to report child abuse.

A

True. In fact, reporting any suspicious of child abuse is mandatory. You do not need proof and cannot be sued for reporting your suspicion.

58
Q

True or false: Children have the same range of normal vital signs as adults.

A

False. Children have lower BP and higher HR and RR than adults.

59
Q

What is an APGAR score? When is it measured?

A

General measure of well-being in newborns. Commonly assessed at 1 and 5 minutes after birth if values are normal. If the score is 100), Grimace (reflex irritability), Activity (muscle tone), and Respiration (breathing).

60
Q

True or false: The APGAR score is important because it is the first assessment of how a child is doing.

A

False. Do not wait until the 1-minute mark to evaluate the infant. You may have to suction or intubate the infant seconds after delivery.

61
Q

What should you always remember when a question mentions that a child was given aspirin?

A

Reye syndrome, which causes encephalopathy and/or liver failure. It usually occurs after aspirin is given for influenza or varicella infection. Use acetaminophen in children to avoid this rare condition.

62
Q

When should the Moro and palmar grasp reflex disappear?

A

By 6 months of age.