Final: Cell Physiology Flashcards

1
Q

A 62-year-old woman eats a high-carbohydrate meal. Her plasma glucose concentration rises, and this results in increased insulin secretion from the pancreatic islet cells. The insulin response is an example of

A

negative feedback

The increase in plasma insulin lowers the plasma glucose concentration back to normal and is an example of negative feedback. Negative feedback opposes change and results in stability. Positive feedback would produce a further increase in plasma glucose concentration. Chemical equilibrium indicates a condition in which the rates of reactions in forward and backward directions are equal. End-product inhibition occurs when the products of a chemical reaction slow the reaction (e.g., by inhibiting an enzyme) that produces them. Feed-forward control involves a command signal and does not directly sense the regulated variable (plasma glucose concentration).

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2
Q

If a region or compartment is in a steady state with respect to a particular substance, then

A

the amount of the substance in the compartment does not change with respect to time.

In a steady state, the amount or concentration of a substance in a compartment does not change with respect to time. Although, there may be considerable movements into and out of the compartment, there is no net gain or loss. Steady states in the body often do not represent an equilibrium condition, but they are displaced from equilibrium by the constant expenditure of metabolic energy.

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3
Q

The metabolic rate of a person is normally expressed in terms of the rate of heat liberation that results from the chemical reactions of the body. Metabolic rate can be estimated with reasonable accuracy from the oxygen consumption of a person. Which of the following factors tends to increase or decrease the metabolic rate of a person?

A

Growth hormone & Fever increase and Sleep and Malnutrition Decrease

Growth hormone can increase the metabolic rate 15% to 20% as a result of direct stimulation of cellular metabolism. Fever, regardless of its cause, increases the chemical reactions of the body by an average of about 120% for every 10°C rise in temperature. The metabolic rate decreases 10% to 15% below normal during sleep. Prolonged malnutrition can decrease the metabolic rate 20% to 30%, presumably due to the paucity of food substances in the cells.

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4
Q

Which of the following accounts for the largest component of daily energy expenditure in a sedentary individual?

A

Basal Metabolic Rate
Basal metabolic rate counts for about 50% to 70% of the daily energy expenditure in most sedentary individuals. Non-exercise activity, such as fidgeting or maintaining posture, accounts for approximately 7% of the daily energy expenditure, and the thermic effect of food accounts for about 8%. Nonshivering thermogenesis can occur in response to cold stress, but the maximal response in adults is less than 15% of the total metabolic rate.

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5
Q

A 54-year-old man is admitted to the emergency department after being found lying in his yard near a running lawnmower on a hot summer day. His body temperature was 106°F, blood pressure is normal, and heart rate is 106 beats/min. Which of the following sets of changes is most likely to be present in this man?

A

Sweating, hyperventilation and vasodilation ALL YES

This patient is suffering from heatstroke. Patients with heatstroke commonly exhibit tachypnea and hyperventilation caused by direct central nervous system stimulation, acidosis, or hypoxia. The blood vessels in the skin are vasodilated, and the skin is warm. Sweating ceases in patients with true heatstroke, most likely because the high temperature itself causes damage to anterior hypothalamic-preoptic area. The nerve impulses from this area are transmitted in the autonomic pathways to the spinal cord and then through sympathetic outflow to the skin to cause sweating.

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6
Q

A manual laborer moves in March from Canada to a hot, tropical country and becomes acclimatized by working outdoors for a month.

Compared with his responses on the first few days in the tropical country, for the same activity level after acclimatization, one would expect higher

A

SWEATING RATE

The classic changes observed in heat acclimatization are lower heart rate during exercise; an increased sweating response; and a lower core temperature during exercise, which is due to both the increased sweating response and lower thermoregulatory set point. In addition, salt is conserved by a reduced salt concentration in sweat.

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7
Q

A young man was found after wandering the Arizona desert for several hours under a hot sun with no source of drinking water. Which of the following solutions given intravenously would best return the individual’s intracellular volume toward normal?

A

ISOTONIC SALINE

The loss of hypotonic fluid due to sweating would produce a hyperosmotic osmolarity and an extracellular and intracellular contraction, given that isotonic saline would lower the individual’s osmolarity and expand the intracellular space. Whole blood (choice C), and plasma (choice D), contain a solute (albumin) that does not penetrate a capillary membrane; thus, less fluid would enter the interstitial space. This is not the case with isotonic saline.

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8
Q

An excessive intake of tap water over a short period of time would be expected to produce which of the following

A

Extracellular volume- increase

Intracellular volume- increase

Extracellular sodium conc.- decrease

Intracellular osmolarity- decrease

Ingesting excessive amounts of tap water will increase the volume of the extracellular fluid. Since tap water contains few if any electrolytes, it will dilute the extracellular sodium and reduce extracellular osmolarity. The decreased extracellular osmolarity will cause a diffusion of water into cells, increasing intracellular volume but reducing intracellular osmolarity.

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9
Q

Both simple and facilitated diffusion have which characteristic?

A

Can work in the absence of adenosine triphosphate (ATP)
In contrast to primary and secondary transport, diffusion does not require the input of additional energy and, therefore, can work in the absence of ATP. Only facilitated diffusion displays saturation kinetics and involves a carrier protein. By definition, neither simple nor facilitated diffusion can move molecules from low to high concentration. The concept of specific inhibitors is not applicable to simple diffusion that occurs through a lipid bilayer without the aid of protein.

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10
Q

The membrane transporter directly responsible for maintenance of low intracellular sodium concentration is the:

A

basolateral Na+/K+ ATPase.

The basolateral Na+/K+ ATPase, or “sodium pump” uses primary active transport to pump three sodium ions out of the cell in exchange for two K+ ions. The low intracellular Na+ concentration facilitates apical sodium entry down its concentration gradient through several different secondary active transport symporters (e.g., Na+/Ca2+, Na+/H+)

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11
Q

Drinking isotonic saline solution will decrease:

A

none of the above

Drinking an isotonic saline solution will expand the ECF volume and neither increase nor decrease the ECF or ICF osmolarity or neither increase nor decrease ICF volume. The absorption and distribution of isotonic saline from the GI tract will expand ECF volume, but will have no effect on ECF osmolarity and, therefore, will have no effect to increase or decrease the concentration of water in the ECF. Accordingly, the driving force for movement of water to and from the ECF and the ICF will be equivalent on both sides of the cell membrane and net water movement across the membrane (osmosis) will be absent.

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12
Q

Identify the fluid compartment that contains approximately two-thirds of the total body water.

A

INTRACELLULAR

Body water is approximately distributed as 2/3 intracellular fluid and 1/3 extracellular fluid

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13
Q

Solute movement by active transport can be distinguished from solute transport by equilibrating carrier-medicated transport because active transport

A

moves the solute against its electrochemical gradient.

Active transport always moves solute against its electrochemical gradient. All of the other options are shared by both active transport and equilibrating carrier-mediated transport systems.

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14
Q

Which of the following mechanisms causes heat loss from a normal person when the environmental temperature is 106°F and the relative humidity is less than 10%?

A

EVAPORATION

Evaporation is the mechanism of heat loss when the air temperature is greater than the body temperature. Each gram of water that evaporates from the surface of the body causes 0.58 kilocalorie of heat to be lost from the body. Even when a person is not sweating, water still evaporates insensibly from the skin and lungs at a rate of 450 to 600 mL/day, which amounts to about 12 to 16 kilocalories of heat loss per hour.

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15
Q

The diagram below shows the effects of changing the set-point of the hypothalamic temperature controller. The red line indicates the body temperature, and the blue line represents the hypothalamic set-point temperature.

A

shivering, sweating, vasoconstriction, vasodilation
-ALL “NO”

When the hypothalamic set-point temperature is equal to the body temperature, the body exhibits neither heat loss nor heat conservation mechanisms, even when the body temperature is far above normal. Therefore, the person does not feel hot even when the body temperature is 104°F.

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16
Q

Two compartments (X and Y) of water are separated by a semipermeable membrane. The concentrations of the impermeant solute at time zero are shown in the following drawing:

A

The “X” side has the lower solute concentration and thus the higher water concentration. Water diffuses from X to Y, thus the level of side X decreases and the level of side Y increases.

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17
Q

Serum electrolytes levels are ordered on a 12-year-old boy with a gastrointestinal infection, which induced prolonged and severe vomiting episodes. Plasma K+ concentrations were found to be abnormally low (2 mmol/L). Which of the following might be expected to result from mild hypokalemia?

A

K+ equilibrium potential would shift negative. (hyperpolarized)

Hypokalemia, or reduced extracellular K+ concentrations, enhances the electrochemical gradient favoring K+ efflux from cells and causes the K+equilibrium potential to shift negative. Because membrane potential is determined largely by the transmembrane K+ gradient, resting membrane potential (Vm) would shift negative also. A negative shift in Vm means that a stronger depolarization would be necessary to take Vm to the threshold for voltage-gated Na+ channel activation, but, once reached, an action potential would be initiated. K+ -channel activation always causes K+ efflux, except in rare instances

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18
Q

Select the mechanism most responsible for the production of the resting transmembrane potential in an axon.

A

A membrane that is more permeable to K+ than to Na+.

The Na+/K+ pump and differential permeability of the plasma membrane are both responsible for the resting transmembrane potential. Consistent with the pump hypothesis is the generally accepted conclusion that an active transport system extrudes 3 Na+ from the cell for every 2 K+ carried into the cell. Consistent with the permeability hypothesis is the conclusion that the plasma membrane during its resting potential is more permeable to K+ than to Na+. If a cell had an Na+/K+ pump that carried approximately equal quantities of Na+ out of and K+ into the cell, the cell would lose more positively charged particles through diffusion than it would gain. It would, therefore, tend to develop a negative transmembrane potential if there were no compensating movement of other charged particles. The Na+/K+ pump potential is only a small part of the resting potential

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19
Q

The resting membrane potential of a cell is measured to be -70 mV in a solution with ion concentrations resembling extracellular fluid. Which of the following manipulations would result in a hyperpolarization of the cell

A

Reduction in the membrane permeability to sodium ion.

Reduction in the permeability of the sodium ion will result in hyperpolarization of the cell. Ordinarily, sodium leakage into the cell contributes to the actual resting membrane potential, making it less negative than would be predicted on the basis of potassium concentration and permeability. Reduction in potassium ion permeability, on the other hand would cause depolarization of the cell, as would influx of calcium ion to increased extracellular concentration of sodium or potassium ion.

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20
Q

From the diagrams above, choose the letter closest to the equilibrium potential for Na+.

A

B

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21
Q

q.17 Which of the following statements is true for an uncharged solute (S) that enters a cell by facilitated diffusion?

A

At equilibrium, the extracellular [S] will be equal to the intracellular [S]

Facilitated diffusion is a passive process that requires a membrane carrier protein. Entry of S into the cell will dissipate the concentration gradient and drive the process toward equilibrium (no net flux of S). Since S is not charged, the chemical concentrations of S inside and outside the cell will be equal at the equilibrium. Option A is incorrect A is incorrect because the carrier will become saturated as extracellular [S] is progressively increased. Membrane potential will have no effect on the flux of an uncharged solute, so option B is incorrect. Option C is incorrect because these gases cross cell membrane by simple diffusion through the bilayer. Option E is increased because facilitated diffusion of S is not dependent of gradients of Na+ or K+ ions.

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22
Q

A 35-year old man carries an epilepsy gene. The gene mutation affects the neuronal voltage-dependent Na+ channel, causing it to inactivate more slowly (~50%). How might expression of this epilepsy gene affect nerve function?

A

Action potentials would be prolonged

The voltage-dependent Na+ channel is opened by membrane depolarization to yield the upstroke of neuronal action potential. An inactivation gate closes shortly after activation, blocking passage of Na+ and allowing membrane potential to return to resting levels. If inactivation were slowed, membrane recovery would be delayed, and the action potential would be prolonged. Resting potential should not be affected by an activation defect unless it prevented the channel from closing, causing a sustained Na+ influx. Activation and inactivation are separate processes, and, therefore, the rate at which the action potential rises should be normal

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23
Q

In excitable cells, repolarization is most closely associated with which of the following events?

A

K efflux

The most prominent event during repolarization is potassium efflux. It is the efflux pf potassium that causes repolarization. There is still some sodium influx in the initial stage of repolarization but this quickly ceases. In repolarization the cell is moving through the relative refractory period back toward the resting phase. Thus, during this phase the cell is regaining its excitability.

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24
Q

In the myelinated regions of an axon:

A

membrane capacitance is reduced

Myelination of an axon results in decreased capacitance and increased membrane resistance. As a result, current travels through the interior of the axon but not through the membrane. Myelination produces a large increase in conduction velocity.

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25
Q

The molecular basis of an axonal action potential includes:

A

increased sodium conductance followed by increased potassium conductance.

The depolarization phase is associated with an increased sodium conductance, resulting in a sodium influx, and repolarization, by an increased potassium conductance, resulting in an accelerated potassium efflux. There are no changes in calcium conductance during the axonal action potential.

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26
Q

The rapid depolarization during phase 0 upstroke of the action potential in neurons is caused by opening of:

A

Voltage-gated Na+ channels.

Neuronal action potentials result when the threshold potential is reached voltage-gated sodium channels open. Although action potentials are evoked in some excitable cells by opening of Ca2+ channels, opening of voltage-gated Na+ channels is responsible for the phase 0 upstroke of the neuronal action potential.

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27
Q

The speed at which a myelinated axon conducts an action potential is directly related to

A

the diameter of the axon

The fastest conducting unmyelinated neurons have the largest diameter. Myelinated neurons conduct more rapidly than unmyelinated neurons with a similar axon diameter.

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28
Q

Which of the following characteristics of a neuron is not associated with increased conduction velocity?

A

Decreased fiber size

Conduction velocity is directly related to axon diameter and the amount of myelin. Myelination increases membrane resistance. Small-diameter fibers will be slow-conducting fibers.

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29
Q

Which of the following is a consequence of myelination in large nerve fibers?

A

Generation of action potentials only at the nodes of Ranvier

Myelination of the axons of large nerve fibers have several consequences. it provides insulation to the axon membrane, decreasing membrane capacitance and thereby decreasing the “leakage” of ions across the cell membrane. Action potentials in myelinated axons occur only at the periodic breaks in the myelin sheath, called nodes of Ranvier. Voltage-gated Na+ channels are concentrated at these nodes. This arrangement both increases the velocity of the nerve impulses along the axon and minimizes the number of charges that cross the membrane during an impulse, thereby minimizing the energy required by Na+ , K+ -ATPase to re-establish the relative concentration gradients for Na+ and K+.

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30
Q

The axon hillock of a neuron is the site of action potential initiation because of the high concentration of which of the following types of channels in the axon hillock?

A

Voltage-gated sodium channels

The axon hillock is the site of action potential generation due to the presence of voltage-gated sodium channels at that site. Inward rectifier-type potassium channels set the resting membrane, whereas delayed rectifier-type potassium channels, which are a type of voltage-gated potassium channel, help restore the membrane potential back to the resting value at the end of an action potential. Ligand-gated channels are not involved in propagation of the action potential along the axon.

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31
Q

Tetanus toxin and botulinum toxin exert their effects by disrupting the function of SNARES, inhibiting

A

The docking and binding of synaptic vesicles to the presynaptic membrane.

32
Q

Postsynaptic potentials generated in a neuron’s dendrites and cell body propagate to the axon hillock by which of the mechanisms shown below?

A

Passive/electrotonic conduction

Postsynaptic potentials propagate through the dendrites and cell body by passive/electrotonic means. Action potentials are not generated in these structures. Voltage- and ligand-gated channels are not involved in propagating postsynaptic potentials. Saltatory conduction is the method by which action potentials propagate along myelinated axons from one node of Ranvier to the next.

33
Q

Electrical and chemical synapses differ in that

A

chemical synapses can amplify a signal while electrical synapses cannot

Electrical synapses provide speed and synchrony, by allowing direct passive flow of electrotonic current through gap junctions. They are common in heart and smooth muscle. Chemical synapses provide directionality, amplification, and plasticity. They are slower because neurotransmitter must cross the synaptic cleft and activate post-synaptic receptors.

34
Q

An inhibitory postsynaptic potential in response to GABA action on GABAA receptor

A

hyperpolarizes the postsynaptic membrane by opening Cl- channels

35
Q

A 45-year-old woman complains of pain in her fingertips and toes during cold exposure or emotional stress. This “Raynaud phenomenon” is caused by exaggerated sympathetic vasoconstriction in the extremities, producing ischemic pain. Which of the following statements best applies to her condition?

A

The patient may gain relief from an α-adrenergic inhibitor.

Vasoconstriction is mediated by norepinephrine release from sympathetic nerve terminals. Norepinephrine binds to α-adrenergic receptors on vascular smooth muscle cells, so the patient’s vasospasm may be relieved by an α-adrenergic inhibitor. Vascular neuromuscular signaling does not involve nicotinic acetylcholine receptors. Sympathetic ganglia are located close to the vertebral column, not peripherally, and postganglionic neurons are unmyelinated. Synaptic transmission within sympathetic ganglia is cholinergic, and, thus, an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor would augment sympathetic efferent activity thereby worsening the symptoms.

36
Q

During vigorous exercise, skeletal muscle blood flow increases tremendously. The circulatory adjustment most responsible for this change is

A

local vasodilation in skeletal muscle

37
Q

Local control of the circulation predominates over neural control in which of the following organs?

A

BRAIN

38
Q

Sympathetic stimulation of the heart

A

Releases norepinephrine at the sympathetic endings

Increased sympathetic stimulation of the heart increases heart rate, atrial contractility, and ventricular contractility and also increases norepinephrine release at the ventricular sympathetic nerve endings. It does not release acetylcholine. It does cause an increased sodium permeability of the A-V node, which increases the rate of upward drift of the membrane potential to the threshold level for self-excitation, thus increasing heart rate.

39
Q

When propranolol is administered, blockade of which receptor is responsible for the decrease in cardiac output that occurs?

A

BETA-1 receptors

40
Q

Which autonomic receptor is activated by low concentrations of epinephrine released from the adrenal medulla and causes vasodilation?

A

adrenergic beta 2 receptors

41
Q

Which autonomic receptor is blocked by hexamethonium at the ganglia, but not at the neuromuscular junction?

Selected Answer:

A

Cholinergic nicotinic receptors (N2)

Hexamethonium is a nicotinic blocker, but it acts only at ganglionic N2-type (not neuromuscular junction N1-type) nicotinic receptors. This pharmacologic distinction emphasizes that nicotinic receptors at these two locations, although similar, are not identical.

42
Q

Which autonomic receptor mediates secretion of epinephrine by the adrenal medulla?

A

Cholinergic nicotinic receptors

Preganglionic sympathetic fibers synapse on the chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla at a nicotinic receptor. Epinephrine and, to a lesser extent, norepinephrine are released into the circulation.

43
Q

Which of the following agents or changes has a negative inotropic effect on the heart?

A

Acetylcholine

A negative inotropic effect is one that decreases myocardial contractility. Contractility is the ability to develop tension at a fixed muscle length. Factors that decrease contractility are those that decrease the intracellular [Ca2+]. Increasing heart rate increases intracellular [Ca2+] because more Ca2+ ions enter the cell during the plateau of each action potential. Sympathetic stimulation and norepinephrine increase intracellular [Ca2+] by increasing entry during the plateau and increasing the storage of Ca2+ by the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) [for later release]. Cardiac glycosides increase intracellular [Ca2+] by inhibiting the Na+-K+ pump, thereby inhibiting Na+-Ca2+ exchange (a mechanism that pumps Ca2+ out of the cell). Acetylcholine (ACh) has a negative inotropic effect on the atria.

44
Q

Which of the following circulations will respond to the stimulation of its adrenergic sympathetic neurons with the most intense decrease (i.e., in terms of percent of control in its blood flow?

A

cutaneous

The cutaneous and renal vessels have a more pronounced vasoconstrictor response to the stimulation of adrenergic neurons than do the vessels of skeletal muscle and the lungs. The cerebral and coronary circulatory systems are among the least sensitive systems in the body to the constrictor actions of norepinephrine.

45
Q

Which one of the following is most likely to occur in a healthy subject in response to running?

A

a decreased cardiac parasympathetic tone

An increased heart rate during exercise is attributable to a decreased cardiac parasympathetic tone and an increased cardiac sympathetic tone. During exercise, there is an increased cardiac adrenergic tone to the heart. During light exercise, a 300-400% increase in skeletal muscle blood flow and no change in renal blood flow may occur. In response to more strenuous exercise, the increased skeletal muscle flow is more marked. In other words, during exercise, at the same time that skeletal and cardiac muscle vessels are dilating, many other vessels are constricting. There is an increased velocity of flow in the pulmonary capillaries.

46
Q

Which receptor mediates constriction of arteriolar smooth muscle?

A

alpha-1 Receptors

47
Q

A skeletal muscle was stimulated to produce an isotonic contraction. Significant muscle shortening was observed. Which part of the sarcomere would retain a constant length during this type of muscle contraction?

A

A-band

48
Q

Can analysis of a tissue section of skeletal muscle with a polarized light microscope determine whether the sample came from a fully contracted muscle?

A

Yes, the I-band will be absent

49
Q

During an isometric contraction, a muscle develops 5 grams of total tension. What additional value would you need to know to calculate the active tension the muscle develops?

A

The passive tension prior to contraction.

Active tension = total tension – passive tension.

50
Q

During the crossbridge cycle ATP hydrolysis first causes:

A

The myosin head to cock into an open position.

While binding of ATP causes the head to detach, the actual hydrolysis of ATP to ADP and Pi causes the myosin head to cock into the open position in preparation for attachment to the thin filament and movement of the thin filament.

51
Q

Satellite cells are thought to contribute to muscle fiber growth and repair by:

A

directly fusing with the myofiber

52
Q

Slow twitch muscle is characterized by:

A

oxidative metabolism, high myoglobin content and low glycogen content.

53
Q

The functions of tropomyosin in skeletal muscle include

A

acting as a “relaxing protein” at rest by covering up the sites where myosin binds to actin

54
Q

The pharmaceutical industry has some interest in myostatin as a drug target for muscle wasting diseases like muscular dystrophy because:

A

Low myostatin levels promote satellite activation and fusion with the muscle fiber.

55
Q

A 25 year old man suffered muscle paralysis due to poisoning with ω-conotoxin. This molluscan peptide toxin is known to interfere with voltage-sensitive calcium channels at the neuromuscular junction. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for muscle paralysis in this patient?

A

Failure of acetylcholine release from the motor nerve terminal (bouton).

56
Q

A 37 year old woman with worsening muscle weakness was diagnosed with myasthenia gravis. She was treated with the acetylcholinesterase inhibitor neostigmine and reported improved muscle strength within 1 day of starting treatment. Which of the following is most likely the reason for improved muscle performance in response to neostigmine treatment?

A

Decreased acetylcholine breakdown at the neuromuscular junction.

57
Q

Amyetropic Lateral Sclerosis is characterized by the progressive loss of functional motor units from skeletal muscle. As ALS progresses, which of the following statements is correct?

A

The number of contracting myofibers declines and the peak tension that the entire muscle can generate also declines.

A motor unit is composed of a motor neuron and all the myofibers (muscle cells) that it innervates. Progressive loss of motor units would cause a decrease in the number of myofibers that can contract during skeletal muscle contraction. This would lead to a parallel loss in the peak tension that the entire muscle can generate.

58
Q

Repeated stimulation of a skeletal muscle fiber causes a sustained contraction (tetanus). Accumulation of which solute in intracellular fluid is responsible for the tetanus?

A

calcium

During repeated stimulation of a muscle fiber, Ca2+ is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) more quickly than it can be reaccumulated; therefore, the intracellular Ca2+ does not return to resting levels as it would after a single twitch. The increased Ca2+ allows more cross-bridges to form and, therefore, produces increased tension (tetanus). Intracellular Na+ and K+ concentrations do not change during the action potential. Very few Na+ or K+ ions move into or, out of the muscle cell, so bulk concentrations are unaffected. Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) levels would, if anything, decrease during tetanus.

59
Q

Voluntary control of the force of skeletal muscle contraction primarily occurs through:

A

recruitment and summation

60
Q

Which of the following statements about muscle contraction is true for skeletal muscle?

A

The strength of contraction is increased by recruiting more motor units.

61
Q

The smooth muscle latch state is characterized by:

A

tension with low ATP consumption.

62
Q

To coordinate the fight or flight response epinephrine causes

A

Bronchiolar smooth muscle to relax via the β2 receptor

Sympathetic release of epinephrine causes arteriolar smooth muscle in skin to contract and bronchiolar smooth muscle in the airway to relax. Relaxation is mediated by the epinephrine binding to the β2 receptor.

63
Q

What type of smooth muscle Ca2+ channels localize to plasma membrane caveolae and are gated primarily by membrane potential change?

A

L-type Ca2+ channels

64
Q

Which of the following best describes an attribute of visceral smooth muscle not shared by skeletal muscle?

A

Contracts in response to stretch

65
Q

Which of the following statements about smooth muscle contraction is correct

A

Depolarization of the muscle fiber is not essential for smooth muscle contraction.

66
Q

Which of the following statements about smooth muscle is true?

A

Phosphorylation of myosin light chains is required for contraction.

67
Q

IMAGE: q65. If the muscle is set to an initial length of 25 mm, how high will it be able to lift a 10 g weight?

A

5mm

Starting at 25 mm the muscle will contract isometrically until it develops 10 g of tension, at which point the 10g weight will begin to rise and the muscle will contract isotonically until it reaches 20 mm of length. 20mm is the maximum shortening the muscle can achieve if it is loaded with a 10g weight according to the length tension curve. Thus the muscle will have shortened from 25mm to 20mm during the isotonic contraction and this means that the weight will lift a total of 5mm.

68
Q

IMAGE q.67: How many seconds is positive work being generated:

A

2.5sec

69
Q

If the muscle is set to an initial length of 20mm, how far will it lift a 20g weight?

A

0mm

70
Q

If the muscle is stimulated to generate an isometric twitch at 25 mm initial length, how much tension will it generate?

A

19grams

71
Q

The weight of the object lifted is:

A

4 grams

72
Q

During a skeletal muscle twitch the duration of the contraction is much longer than the duration of the action potential in the sarcolemma that triggered the contraction. This is because:

A

The calcium elevation has a long duration reflecting the release and then uptake into the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

73
Q

Why is the tension development maximal between points B and C?

A

There is optimal overlap between the actin and myosin filaments

74
Q

The force produced by a single skeletal muscle fiber can be increased by which of the following?

A

Increasing the frequency of stimulation of the fiber

75
Q

The rate at which Ca2+ is sequestered by the sarcoplasmic reticulum of skeletal muscle during a twitch is directly related to:

A

the rate of relaxation