A & P Final Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 orders in the Reptilia class?

A

Crocodylia, Squamata, Chelonia, Rhynocephalia

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2
Q

Alligators, caimans, and crocodiles are in which order?

A

Crocodylia

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3
Q

Snakes and lizards are in which order?

A

Squamata

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4
Q

Turtles, tortoises & terrapins are in which order?

A

Chelonia

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5
Q

These types of animals, including reptiles, are unable to generate body heat internally. Body temp depends on environmental temp. 2 exceptions: leatherback sea turtles & pythons

A

Ectotherms/Poikilotherms

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6
Q

Reptiles maintain body temps via _____ thermoregulation (basking, coiling).

A

behavioral

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7
Q

Reptiles’ ability to thermoregulate depends on access to temperatures within the

A

preferred optimal temperature zone (POTZ)

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8
Q

This is the range of temperatures in which the animal can perform all necessary metabolic functions

A

preferred optimal temperature zone (POTZ)

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9
Q

Ectotherms regulate temp depending on

A

metabolic needs

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10
Q

Ectothermy allows many reptiles to survive on ___ amounts of food.

A

small

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11
Q

If temperatures are too ____, reptiles can suffer from digestive problems, immunosuppression, and other disorders.

A

low

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12
Q

If temps are too ___, reptiles are forced to maintain a high metabolic rate and may suffer from energy deficits.

A

high

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13
Q

Reptiles will undergo ____ or brumation when temps drop below POTZ.

A

hibernation

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14
Q

The epidermis of reptiles is made of distinct scales formed by a ___ of the epidermis and is relatively impermeable.

A

folding

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15
Q

This type of keratin on reptiles is soft, flexible, and found in the interscalar skin.

A

alpha keratin

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16
Q

This type of keratin on reptiles in rigid and found in scales.

A

beta keratin

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17
Q

The dermis of reptiles is dense connective tissue that contains blood & lymph vessels, nerves and

A

chromatophores.

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18
Q

The subcutaneous space in reptiles is _____, making SQ injections inadvisable.

A

limited

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19
Q

The process of shedding the skin is controlled by the

A

thyroid gland

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20
Q

Shed skin of reptiles is called

A

exuvia

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21
Q

The process of shedding the skin is called

A

ecdysis

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22
Q

An enzyme-containing ___ is secreted between old and new epidermal layers during ecdysis.

A

lymph

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23
Q

During ecdysis, skin color ___ and spectale opacifies.

A

dulls

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24
Q

The term for abnormal shedding of the skin is

A

dysecdysis

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25
Q

Causes of dysecdysis include (4)

A

low humidity, dehydration, underlying illness, lack of cage furniture

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26
Q

Tx for dysecdysis

A

proper husbandry, soaking

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27
Q

The iris of reptiles is made of skeletal muscle and is under ___ control.

A

Voluntary

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28
Q

Since the iris of reptiles is under voluntary control, ___ are not predictable.

A

PLR’s

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29
Q

Snakes and some lizards have this clear, scale-like structure formed by the fusion of the upper and lower eyelids instead of eyelids.

A

Spectacle

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30
Q

The spectacle is ___ to topical medications

A

impermeable

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31
Q

Most reptiles have ____ developed extraocular muscles, with the exception of chameleons.

A

poorly

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32
Q

Chelonians have no ___ ___ so tears spill over the lid

A

nasolacrimal duct

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33
Q

Most reptiles (exceptions: snakes & crocodilians) have ____ bones which help the eye maintain its shape.

A

scleral

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34
Q

Crocodilians are the only reptiles that have a ____ which help them see better in the dark.

A

tapetum

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35
Q

This structure is found in tuataras and some lizards. It is a rudimentary retina & cornea with no iris, lids, or musculature. It may play a role in hormone production & thermoregulatory behavior.

A

Parietal eye

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36
Q

The parietal eye is connected to the pineal body via the

A

parietal nerve

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37
Q

The location of the heart varies in reptiles. For ____, the heart is on midline just caudal to the thoracic girdle and ventral to the lungs.

A

chelonians

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38
Q

The location of the heart varies in reptiles. For most ____ the heart is within the thoracic girdle.

A

lizards

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39
Q

The location of the heart varies in reptiles. For ____ and some lizards, the heart is more caudal in the coelomic cavity.

A

Crocodilians

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40
Q

The location of the heart varies in reptiles. For ____, the heart is usually at junction of first & second third of the body length but is fairly mobile.

A

snakes

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41
Q

The heart of most reptiles has ___ atria and __ ventricle.

A

2 atria

1 ventrile

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42
Q

There are 3 regions within the ventricle that are functionally separate. What are they?

A

Cavum venosum
Cavum arteriosum
Cavum pulmonale

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43
Q

In times of ___ ____, reptiles can shunt blood away from the lungs.

A

oxygen deprivation

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44
Q

____ are the only reptiles that possess a four-chambered heart. It is very different from birds and mammals.

A

Crocodilians

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45
Q

When the vagus nerve of lizards is suddenly stimulated, it sets off a chain of events within the body, most notably a rapid reduction of BP and HR. This is called

A

vasovagal reflex

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46
Q

The vasovagal reflex is triggered by applying gentle pressure to both

A

eyeballs

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47
Q

Mature reptilian RBCs are different from mammalian in what 2 ways?

A

nucleated, oval

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48
Q

The WBC in reptiles that is analogous to neutrophils.

A

heterophils.

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49
Q

Because heterophils do not possess peroxidase & acid phosphatase which break down necrotic material, reptiles produce ___ pus instead of liquid material.

A

caseous

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50
Q

What are the different blood collection sites of reptiles? (5)

A
ventral coccygeal vein
dorsal coccygeal vein
jugular
subcarapacial sinus
cardiac puncture
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51
Q

Reptiles are capable of surviving long periods without breathing due to their large pulmonary volume, efficient ___ metabolism, and cardiac shunting capabilities.

A

anaerobic

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52
Q

Respiration in reptiles is driven by ___ levels in blood, as compared to CO2 levels in mammals.

A

O2

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53
Q

Reptiles do not have an epiglottis, only a ___ in the rostral portion of the oral cavity.

A

glottis

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54
Q

Paired ___ cartilages border the glottal opening and open during respiration

A

arytenoid

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55
Q

The only vocalizations of reptiles are hissing, grunting, and bellowing. This is because they do not have

A

vocal cords

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56
Q

A glottal keel is present in some species of snakes. This increases

A

volume of vocalizations

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57
Q

Tracheal rings are ___ in chelonians and _____ in lizards and snakes.

A

complete - chelonians

incomplete - snakes & lizards

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58
Q

The ___ are analogous to alveoli in mammals. They are fixed structures (do not expand or contract) surrounded by capillaries.

A

faveoli

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59
Q

This lung type is a simple, saclike structure. The cranial portion is the site of gas exchange. The caudal portion is avascular and comparable to avian air sac. Snakes and some lizards have this lung type.

A

Unicameral

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60
Q

This lung type is present is chelonians, some lizards, and crocodilians. It has many compartments and possesses intrapulmonary bronchi.

A

Multicameral

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61
Q

This lung type is present in iguanas and chameleons. It has characteristics of both unicameral & multicameral lungs.

A

Paucicameral

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62
Q

Most snakes only have a single ___ lung.

A

right

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63
Q

There is no true ___ in reptiles that would separate the thoracic & abdominal cavity in mammals.

A

diaphragm

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64
Q

Since reptiles do not possess a true diaphragm, they have one cavity called

A

coelomic cavity

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65
Q

The single bone in the middle ear of reptiles is called

A

columella

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66
Q

The columella connects to the tympanum and the ____ bone.

A

quadrate

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67
Q

Since the columella articulates with the quadrate bone, it allows snakes to be very sensitive to ground vibrations transmitted through the

A

mandibles

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68
Q

Concerning feeding, snakes & crocodilians are strict

A

carnivores

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69
Q

Snakes & lizards have deeply forked tongues which function as particle delivery system for vomeronasal organ or _____ organ, an accessory olfactory organ.

A

Jacobson’s

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70
Q

Venom glands are ____ salivary glands.

A

modified

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71
Q

Chelonians do not have teeth, instead they have keratinized beaks called

A

tomia

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72
Q

This type of dentition has teeth that are fused to the biting edge of the mandible and maxillae. They do not grow back if lost or broken. It is found in some species of lizards.

A

acrodont

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73
Q

This type of dentition has teeth attached to the periosteum on the medial aspects of both the mandibles and maxillae. Teeth are replaced periodically during the life of the animal. Snakes and iguanid lizards have these.

A

pleurodont

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74
Q

This type of dentition has teeth that arise from the sockets in the skull bones. They are replaced periodically during the life of the animal and are found only in crocodilians.

A

thecodont

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75
Q

Snakes have ___ rows of teeth: 2 mandibular, 2 maxillary, 2 palantine/ptergygoid bones.

A

6

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76
Q

Venom-delivering teeth are ___ with an opening near end where venom expelled.

A

hollow

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77
Q

Fangs receive venom through a duct from __ ___ at its base.

A

venom gland

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78
Q

Contraction of ____ around venom gland forces venom out through the fang.

A

muscles

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79
Q

Can snakes control the amount of venom delivered with each bite?

A

yes

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80
Q

A thin and distensible esophagus is found in a species that consume ____ prey.

A

large

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81
Q

Sea turtles have conical ____ that line the esophagus and aid in swallowing slippery food items.

A

projections

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82
Q

Crocodilians have a thick, ____ stomach comparable to the avian ventriculus.

A

muscular

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83
Q

_____ have longer intestinal tracts.

A

Herbivores

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84
Q

Snakes have a relatively ____ intestinal tract.

A

straight

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85
Q

The colon is ____ and complex in herbivores.

A

large

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86
Q

The ___ is the site of hindgut fermentation in herbivorous lizards and chelonians.

A

cecum

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87
Q

The cecum is ____ or rudimentary in carnivorous reptiles.

A

absent

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88
Q

Snakes have a ___ large liver lobe.

A

single

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89
Q

In chelonians, the spleen is combined with the pancreas to form the

A

splenopancreas

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90
Q

This is the common outflow tract for GI and urogenital tracts.

A

cloaca

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91
Q

The three chambers of the cloaca may be distinctly separated by muscular ___ in some species.

A

sphincters

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92
Q

What are the 3 parts of the cloaca?

A

coprodeum
urodeum
proctodeum

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93
Q

This part of the cloaca receives the rectum.

A

coprodeum

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94
Q

This part of the cloaca receives the urogenital openings: ureters and male reproductive organs of crocodilians and chelonians.

A

Urodeum

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95
Q

If a bladder is present in reptiles, it ____ urine received by the urodeum.

A

stores

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96
Q

This part of the cloaca is the last chamber before the vent.

A

proctodeum

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97
Q

Snakes’ kidneys are

A

lobulated

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98
Q

Crocodilians, snakes, & some lizards do or do not have urinary bladders?

A

do not

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99
Q

Reptilian kidneys have ___ ___ renal pelvis.

A

no distinct

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100
Q

Since reptiles do not have ___ __ ___, they are not able to concentrate urine as mammals do.

A

loop of Henle

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101
Q

___ can be absorbed from the urine through the wall of the urinary bladder, rectum, or cloaca.

A

water

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102
Q

Terrestrial reptiles produce __ __ as a waste product. This aids in water conservation.

A

uric acid

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103
Q

Aquatic and semiaquatic reptiles produce ___, urea or both as waste product.

A

ammonia

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104
Q

Following the distal tubule of the nephron, a ___ segment is found that is believed to add secretions to the seminal fluid in males.

A

sexual

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105
Q

Renal portal veins arise from veins of the tail and ___ ____.

A

hind limb

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106
Q

This system allows reptile to discontinue blood flow to the glomeruli and decrease urine production during dehydration, while maintaining blood flow to renal tubules.

A

renal portal system

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107
Q

All male reptiles have internal testes located in the ___ ____ cavity.

A

dorsal coelomic

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108
Q

Do reptile copulatory organs have a urinary function?

A

no

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109
Q

Crocodilians and chelonians have a phallus of ___ tissue rising from the floor of the cloaca.

A

erectile

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110
Q

Snakes and lizards have paired ___ everted from the tail base through the vent.

A

hemipenes

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111
Q

Paired oviducts in reptiles lead to the cloaca and end in the dorsal wall of the

A

urodeum

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112
Q

Species that lay eggs, including crocodilians, chelonians, most lizards, some snakes

A

oviparous

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113
Q

In oviparous species, ___ and ___ is added to ova in the oviduct prior to egg laying.

A

albumin and shell

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114
Q

In these species, the fetuses are retained in the uterine portion of the oviduct.

A

ovoviviparous

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115
Q

Reptiles that digs nests to lay eggs. The act of laying eggs is called

A

oviposition

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116
Q

After oviposition or parturition, are most reptiles involved in the care of their eggs/offspring?

A

no

exceptions: crocodilians, pythons & cobras

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117
Q

Should reptile eggs be rotated during incubation?

A

no

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118
Q

Sex of reptiles can be determined by what 2 things?

A

genotype or

temperature at which eggs are incubated

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119
Q

Reptiles and Avians: what are the sex chromosomes for females & males?

A

F: ZW
M: ZZ

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120
Q

For species that do not have sex chromosomes (crocodilians, chelonians, tuataras, & some lizards), higher incubation temps produce ____ in crocodilians and lizards and the opposite in chelonians.

A

males

chelonians = females

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121
Q

In some snakes, ___ ___ may be larger in males to determine the sex.

A

pelvic spurs

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122
Q

____ chelonians have concave plastron and more distally located vent.

A

Male

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123
Q

Most reptiles have ___ thyroid gland.

A

one

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124
Q

The thyroid hormone is involved in ___ and ___ of reptiles.

A

ecdysis and growth

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125
Q

In reptiles, calcitonin is secreted by _____ bodies.

A

ultimobrachial

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126
Q

Adrenal glands of reptiles are usually within the ligaments that suspend the

A

gonads.

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127
Q

What are the 3 major divisions of the reptilian brain?

A

forebrain
midbrain
hindbrain

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128
Q

This section of the reptilian brain houses the olfactory lobes, cerebral hemispheres, and diencephalon.

A

Forebrain

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129
Q

This section of the reptilian brain houses the optic lobes, cerebral peduncles, and nerve fibers connecting the forebrain and hindbrain.

A

Midbrain

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130
Q

This section of the reptilian brain houses the cerebellum and medulla oblongata.

A

Hindbrain

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131
Q

Reptilian brains do not have surface gyri or sulci, also known as

A

lissencephalic

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132
Q

What are the 2 layers of meninges in reptiles?

A

pia-arachnoid layer

dura mater

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133
Q

This bone in the snake skull allows for wider opening of the mouth.

A

quadrate bone

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134
Q

____ do not have normal vertebrae, instead they have presacral, sacral, and caudal vertebral regions.

A

Chelonians

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135
Q

In reptiles, a ___ occipital condyle forms the articulation between skull and spine.

A

sing.e

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136
Q

Species that are capable of tail autonomy have ___ ___ along which the tails break.

A

fracture planes

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137
Q

The area of the reptilian skeleton where the scapula and coracoid bone have muscular attachments to the body.

A

pectoral girdle

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138
Q

These are vestigial pelvic limbs of boas and pythons that are found on either side of the vent. They are used in courtship behavior.

A

spurs

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139
Q

Snakes have well developed ____ muscles.

A

epaxial

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140
Q

Reptilian muscles are incapable of sustained ____ metabolism and switch quickly to _____ metabolism with prolonged physical exertion.

A

aerobic

anerobic

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141
Q

The skin of birds is ___ ___ with the exception of their feet.

A

very thin

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142
Q

The wing web is called the

A

patagium

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143
Q

Because birds lack biliverdin reductase which converts biliverdin to bilirubin, they bruise

A

green

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144
Q

There are ____ muscles in the dermis of birds that allow feather follicles to aid in heat regulation.

A

smooth

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145
Q

This gland, which is absent in most birds, is a holocrine sebaceous gland located in a fold of skin on the floor of the ear canal.

A

ear gland

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146
Q

This gland is located on the dorsal surface at the upper base of the tail. It is larger in aquatic species.

A

urogpygial (preen) gland

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147
Q

___ stimulates secretion of an oily, fatty substance from the uropygial gland.

A

preening

148
Q

What is the purpose of the uropygial gland?

A

clean and waterproof feathers

149
Q

The beak of birds is also known as the ____. It is a derivative of skin and grows continuously.

A

rhamphotheca

150
Q

____ are a horny sheath derived from specialized scales at the end of each toe. They grow continuously.

A

Claws

151
Q

____ are outgrowths of skin made of protein.

A

Feathers

152
Q

Feathers are located in specific tracts called

A

pterylae

153
Q

Bare areas of skin on birds are called

A

apteria

154
Q

The opening at the base of the feather where it inserts into the skin. Blood vessels pass through this opening when a new feather is developing.

A

inferior umbilicus

155
Q

The opening on feather shaft where webbed part of the feather begins.

A

superior umiblicus

156
Q

An accessory feather thought to provide additional insulation. Located at superior umbilicus.

A

afterfeather

157
Q

The quill, round, hollow, semitransparent. Extends from inferior to superior umbilicus.

A

calamus

158
Q

The main feather shaft

A

rachis

159
Q

The flattened part of the feather. Numerous slender, closely spaced barbs that give rise to barbules containing hooklets.

A

Vane

160
Q

___ interlock each barb with the adjacent one.

A

Hooklets

161
Q

Flight feathers of the wings and tail. Moved by muscles attached to the walls of the follicles.

A

contour feathers

162
Q

wing feathers

A

remiges

163
Q

tail feathers

A

retrices

164
Q

small contour feathers around external ear openings. improve bird’s ability to hear

A

auriculars

165
Q

Feathers that have main rachis with barbs but no barbules or hooklets. Found under contour feathers. Provide insulation, flexibility for movement of contour feathers, buoyancy

A

semiplume feathers

166
Q

Soft, fluffy feathers, lack a true shaft, no barbules or hooklets, located next to skin under contour feathers, fx in insulation

A

down feathers

167
Q

Bare shaft with barbs on the tip. Located on the nape and upper back near contour feathers. nerve endings in follicles may play role in controlling feather movement.

A

filoplume feathers

168
Q

Modified contour feathers. Stiff rachis with few barbs at base. May play role in sense of touch. May be found around eyes, nostrils, mouth & toes.

A

bristles

169
Q

Grow continuously at the base. Disintegrate at their tip. Create waxy powder that spreads throughout the rest of the plumage. Cockatoos, cockatiels, african greys

A

powder down feathers

170
Q

A weakened area on the feather vane where barbs lack barbules. Results from stress that interrupts blood flow during feather growth. Common stressor: poor diet.

A

stress bar

171
Q

____ begins when a newly developing feather pushes the old feather out.

A

Molting

172
Q

New feather emerges covered by ____ shaft. Shaft removed by preening.

A

keratin

173
Q

___ ____ from dermis reach into new feather. When feather is fully grown these dry up.

A

blood vessels

174
Q

During feather development, a growing feather is called a

A

blood feather

175
Q

In most species, feather replacement is

A

symmetrical

176
Q

Feathers develop from ____ in feather tracts of the dermis.

A

papillae

177
Q

____ stimulate molting and activate cells in papillae.

A

Hormones

178
Q

The skull, vertebral column, and sternum make up the ___ skeleton of the bird.

A

axial

179
Q

The pectoral girdle, wings, pelvic girdle, legs, and feet make up the __ skeleton of the bird.

A

appendicular

180
Q

Birds can move upper and lower bills independently due to the ____ bones in their skulls.

A

quadrate

181
Q

Birds have a ____ ___ located in the sclera encircling the lens. It strengthens the eye and provides attachment for ciliary muscles.

A

sclerotic ring

182
Q

The atlas of birds, similar to reptiles, contains a single ___ for attachment to the skull. This allows for greater range of head movements.

A

condyle

183
Q

Birds have a ___ number of cervical vertebrae than mammals. (greater or smaller)

A

greater

11-25

184
Q

The first few thoracic vertebrae of birds are

A

fused

185
Q

The strong, bony plate created from fusion of several distal lumbar vertebrae, sacral vertebrae, and first few coccygeal vertebrae.

A

synsacrum

186
Q

The bony structure created from fusion of some coccygeal vertebrae. Supports tail feathers.

A

pygostyle

187
Q

This skeletal structure is large and concave. It is the site of origin of flight muscles. In some species, muscles attach to the large bony ridge or keel. In flightless birds, this lacks a keel.

A

sternum

188
Q

This bone, aka wishbone, is positioned outward and forward from the body.

A

clavicle

189
Q

What bones make up the pectoral girdle?

A

paired coracoids, scapulas, clavicles

190
Q

The humerus of birds is air filled or

A

pneumatic

191
Q

Wing muscles attach at the ___ ___ of the humerus.

A

pectoral crest

192
Q

The web of skin on the wing, ligament runs along its cranial edge. Provides elasticity to the wing & assists in the aerodynamics of flight

A

Patagium

193
Q

The first digit that originates from the wrist & carries the alula feathers (steering feathers).

A

Alula bone

194
Q

The femur is air filled or

A

pneumatic

195
Q

Birds with one toe facing the rear and the other 3 facing forward

A

anisodactyl

196
Q

Birds with 2nd & 3rd toes facing forward & 1st and 4th directed backward. Parrots

A

zygodactyl

197
Q

Intraosseous catheters can be placed in the distal ulna for long term therapy. They should not be placed in which bones?

A

pneumatic

198
Q

Avian skeletal muscles that are thick in diameter, low blood supply, little myoglobin. Found in short-distance fliers

A

White fibers

199
Q

Avian skeletal muscles that are thin, have rich supply of blood, fat, myoglobin & mitochondria. Found in long-distance fliers

A

Red fibers

200
Q

Best sight for IM injections on birds

A

pectoralis muscle

201
Q

This muscle is used to help chick break shell open and atrophies after hatching.

A

hatching muscle

202
Q

Iris contains ___ muscles.

A

Skeletal

203
Q

Is PLR a good diagnostic indicator?

A

no

204
Q

Eyes are ___ placed in prey species.

A

laterally

205
Q

The sclera in birds contains the

A

sclerotic ring

206
Q

Vascular structure in avian eye attached to retina. Distributes nutrition to the eye.

A

pecten

207
Q

Nocturnal birds have more ___ and less ___.

A

More rods

less cone

208
Q

Each avian photoreceptor has a ___ connection with a bipolar nerve cell

A

single

209
Q

Similar to reptiles, birds have a single bone in the middle ear called the

A

columella

210
Q

On nocturnal owls: fleshy flap of skin at each external ear opening. Helps funnel sound into the ears.

A

operculum

211
Q

Ear openings are ____ on nocturnal owls. This helps with vertical location of sound

A

asymmetrical

212
Q

This gland regulates growth of body & feathers & may stimulate migration urge.

A

thyroid

213
Q

In birds, this is the site of B lymphocyte differentiation.

A

Bursa of Fabricius

214
Q

The location of the esophagus in birds is on the ___ side of the neck.

A

right

215
Q

Expansion of the esophagus is some avian species. Storage pouch for food. Can be a dilation of the esophagus, single pouch or double pouch.

A

Crop

216
Q

The anterior glandular stomach of birds. Site where chemical digestion begins.

A

proventriculus

217
Q

Muscular stomach of birds, striated muscles that grind food. Many birds ingest small pieces of grit to aid in grinding food.

A

Ventriculus (gizzard)

218
Q

The cranial section of the cloaca, receives excrement from the intestine.

A

coprodeum

219
Q

Section of cloaca that receives discharge from the kidneys & genital ducts.

A

urodeum

220
Q

The caudal section of the cloaca, stores the excrement.

A

proctodeum

221
Q

muscular anus

A

vent

222
Q

The avian heart is __ chambered.

A

4

223
Q

Similar to reptiles, birds have a __ ___ ___ that shunts blood to the kidneys.

A

rental portal system

224
Q

____ heat exchange system in lower extremities of some aquatic & terrestrial species. A network of arteries & veins. Blood reaching lower extremities is cooler & less of a temp gradient exists with the environment so less heat loss.

A

countercurrent

225
Q

Venipuncture sites in birds (3)

A

jugular vein
brachial vein
medial metatarsal vein

226
Q

Similar to reptiles, RBCs in birds are

A

oval and nucleated

227
Q

“V” shaped cleft in the palate of birds. Open from nasal chambers into roof of mouth.

A

choana

228
Q

The ___ of birds does not function in production of sound as in mammals.

A

larynx

229
Q

Birds: enlargement of trachea cranial to the bifurcation. Voice box, contains muscles, air sacs & vibrating membranes.

A

syrinx

230
Q

Birds have ___ tracheal rings.

A

complete

231
Q

The trachea bifurcates into 2 bronchi. Bronchi loose their cartilage rings in the lungs and become

A

mesobronchi

232
Q

Instead of alveoli, birds have

A

air capillaries

233
Q

Where is the site of gas exchange in birds?

A

air capillaries

234
Q

Air sacs make up ___% of the total volume of the respiratory system.

A

80%

235
Q

What are the 4 paired air sacs?

A

cervical, cranial thoracic, caudal thoracic, abdominal

236
Q

What is the 1 unpaired air sac?

A

interclavicular

237
Q

Does gas exchange occur in the air sacs?

A

no

238
Q

These act as reservoirs for air & provide warmth & moisture to facilitate diffusion of air through the lung capillaries. Aid in thermoregulation, provid buoyancy

A

air sacs

239
Q

Do birds have a diaphragm?

A

no

240
Q

How many inspirations & expirations are required to transport one pocket of air through the entire respiratory system?

A

2 inhalations

2 exhalations

241
Q

Since air is “pushed” into the lungs, versus inflating & deflating, there is no __ volume as in mammals. No mixing of old & new air

A

residual

242
Q

How do birds cool off?

A
bathe
reduce activity level
defecate on legs
adjust feathers
countercurrent heat exchange
243
Q

Avian kidneys are elongated with __ divisions.

A

3

244
Q

Do avian kidneys have a renal pelvis?

A

no

245
Q

Urine passes through ureters to the ___ of the cloaca

A

urodeum

246
Q

Do birds have a bladder and urethra?

A

no

247
Q

Avian urine is primarily composed of

A

uric acid

248
Q

The excreted product is called a

A

mute

249
Q

What stimulates release of hormones that directly affect the reproductive process?

A

increased daylight

250
Q

In both avian sexes, the reproductive organs are larger on the __ side of the body.

A

left

251
Q

During the nonbreeding season, avian gonads

A

shrink.

252
Q

Sperm travel in seminal fluid down the vas deferens to a storage pouch called the

A

seminal vesicle

253
Q

How can copulation be achieved in birds?

A

penis

close proximity

254
Q

This section of the oviduct grabs the ovum as it comes out of the ovary

A

infundibulum

255
Q

This section of the oviduct secretes layers of albumin (egg white) around egg.

A

magnum

256
Q

This section of the oviduct deposits the keratin shell memebrane.

A

isthmus

257
Q

This section of the oviduct deposits watery albumin, a hard external shell & pigmentation. Also called the shell gland.

A

uterus

258
Q

The number of eggs that a female lays and incubates

A

clutch

259
Q

These birds have a specific number of follicles that develop.

A

determinate layers

260
Q

These birds can produce more eggs than their normal clutch size.

A

indeterminate layers

261
Q

___ promotes broodiness (incubation behavior).

A

prolactin

262
Q

Hormones also stimulate a development of ___ ___, area of skin on the lower abdomen where heat is transferred to the egg.

A

brood patch

263
Q

As with reptiles, sex chromosomes are similar in birds. What are they?

A

M: ZZ
F: ZW

264
Q

Hatched with eyes closed and skin bard

A

altricial

265
Q

Chicks coverd with down, are immobile, eyes may be open or closed.

A

semialtricial

266
Q

Chicks covered with downy feathers, eyes open, are mobile, leave the nest quickly.

A

precocial

267
Q

Chicks with downy covering, eyes open, limited movement from the nest.

A

semiprecocial

268
Q

Which valves are open/closed during atrial and ventricular diastole?

A

AV valves open

semilunar valves closed

269
Q

Which valves are open/closed during ventricular systole?

A

AV valves closed

semilunar valves open

270
Q

Which valves are open/closed during atrial systole?

A

AV valves open

semilunar valves closed

271
Q

What is pleural effusion?

A

excessive fluid in the thoracic cavity

272
Q

What is pulmonary edema

A

excessive fluid in lung tissue

273
Q

What is the term for the pacemaker of the heart?

A

sinoatrial none (SA node)

274
Q

What is the connection between the pulmonary artery and the aorta in the fetux?

A

ductus arteriosus

275
Q

Which sound of the heart is this: ventricular systole, closure of AV valves

A

S1

276
Q

Which sound of the heart is this: closure of semilunar valves, ventricular diastole

A

S2

277
Q

What sound of the heart is this: rapid ventricular filling (large animals only)

A

S3

278
Q

What sound of the heart is this: contraction of atria (large animals only)

A

S4

279
Q

What side of the chest can the closure of the mitral valve be heard?

A

left

280
Q

What side of the chest can the closure of the tricuspid valve be hear on?

A

right

281
Q

What side of the chest can the closure of the aortic & pulomonic valves be heard?

A

left

282
Q

Which wave of the electrocardiogram: depolarization of atria

A

P wave

283
Q

Which wave of the electrocardiogram: ventricular depolarization and atrial repolarization

A

QRS complex

284
Q

Which wave of the electrocardiogram: repolarization of ventricles

A

T wave

285
Q

In the Triaden system, teeth in the R maxillary quadrant are in the

A

100 series

286
Q

In the Triaden system, teeth in the L maxillary quadrant are in the

A

200 series

287
Q

In the Triaden system, teeth in the R mandibular quadrant are in the

A

300 series

288
Q

In the Triaden system, teeth in the L mandibular quadrant are in the

A

400 series

289
Q

Which teeth are considered the carnassial teeth in dogs? They are a common place for abscesses

A

4th premolar in upper arcade

1st molar in lower arcade

290
Q

What cells produce hydrogen and chloride in the fundus and body of the stomach?

A

parietal cells

291
Q

What is the area where the esophagus enters the stomach called?

A

cardia

292
Q

What is the thin sheet of connective tissue which suspends the digestive tract in the abdomen from the dorsal body wall?

A

mesentery

293
Q

What is the longest portion of the small intestine?

A

jejunum

294
Q

Where does fermentation take place in nonruminant herbivores?

A

large intestine

295
Q

What structures are included in the upper respiratory tract?

A

nares to trachea

296
Q

What structures are included in the lower respiratory tract?

A

bronchi to alveoli

297
Q

This structure is commonly elongated in brachycephalic breeds.

A

soft palate

298
Q

The vocal cords attach to which cartilage?

A

arytenoid cartilages

299
Q

Where is visceral peritoneum found?

A

lines the abdominal organs and structures

300
Q

Where is parietal pleura found?

A

lines the thoracic cavity

301
Q

Where is visceral pleura found?

A

lines the thoracic organs & structures

302
Q

Where is parietal peritoneum found?

A

lines the abdominal cavity

303
Q

What happens to increase amounts of mucus produced in the trachea?

A

cilia move mucus and trapped foreign material back to the pharynx, where it is swallowed or spit out

304
Q

What is the site of external respiration?

A

alveoli

305
Q

What are the inspiratory muscles?

A

diaphragm & external intercostal muscles

306
Q

What are the expiratory muscles?

A

internal intercostal muscles & abdominal muscles

307
Q

What type of receptors are located in the carotid arteries, aorta, and brain stem and monitor CO2, pH, and O2 in the blood?

A

chemical receptors

308
Q

This digestive compartment of ruminants is known as the “true” stomach.

A

abomasum

309
Q

Milk is able to bypass which compartments in a young ruminant via the reticular groove?

A

rumen & reticulum

310
Q

Where are bile acids made?

A

liver

311
Q

Cells that support neurons structurally and functionally in the nervous system are called what?

A

glial cells

312
Q

Axons in the PNS are often covered by what?

A

schwann cells

313
Q

What part of the nervous system controls voluntary nervous system functions?

A

somatic nervous system

314
Q

What is the absolute refractory period of a neuron?

A

neuron cannot depolarize regardless of the intensity of the stimulus

315
Q

Are these statements true or false about norepinephrine?

  • It is released from the preganglionic neuron in the sympathetic nervous system
  • Causes increased GI motility
A

false

316
Q

What part of the brain is responsible for motor skills?

A

cerebellum

317
Q

This supplies a rich network of blood vessels that supply nutrients and oxygen to the superficial tissues of the brain & spinal cord.

A

meninges

318
Q

The white matter of the spinal cord contains what?

A

myelinated nerve fibers

319
Q

Sympathetic or parasympathetic?
preganglionic neuron synapses with one or more postganglionic neuron. Preganglionic neuron short, postganglionic neuron long

A

Sympathetic

320
Q

Sympathetic or parasympathetic?
Preganglionic neuron travels directly from the brain and sacral region of the spinal cord to its target organ. Preganglionic neuron long, synapses with short postganglionic neuron in target organ.

A

Parasympathetic

321
Q

Autonomic reflex arcs involve what target tissues?

A

smooth muscles, endocrine glands, cardiac muscle

322
Q

A reflex arc commonly used to assess the depth of anesthesia is what?

A

palpebral reflex

323
Q

Visceral sensations can originate where?

A

GI, urinary bladder, arteries

324
Q

Nociceptors are not found in what organ?

A

brain

325
Q

The slit-like opening of the Eustachian tube is located where?

A

pharynx

326
Q

This ring-shaped structure immediately behind the iris contains muscles that adjust the shape of the lens.

A

ciliary body

327
Q

Name the type and function of cranial nerve I.

A

olfactory, sensory, smell

328
Q

Name the type and function of cranial nerve II.

A

optic, sensory, vision

329
Q

Name the type and function of cranial nerve VIII.

A

vestibulocochlear, sensory, balance & hearing

330
Q

Name the type and function of cranial nerve X.

A

vagus, sensory and motor, abdominal and thoracic

331
Q

The pituitary gland is also known as what?

A

hypophysis

332
Q

Another name for somatotropic hormone is?

A

growth hormone

333
Q

Hormone secretion is usually controlled by ___ ___ systems.

A

negative feedback

334
Q

The portal vessels of the endocrine system link the

A

AP of the pituitary gland with the hypothalamus

335
Q

The posterior pituitary gland receives what hormones from the hypothalamus?

A

oxytocin and ADH

336
Q

These gland contain glandular and nervous tissue

A

posterior pituitary

adrenal gland

337
Q

This structure arises from ovarian follicle cells and produces progestin hormones needed to maintain pregnancy.

A

corpus luteum

338
Q

In most animals, ovulation occurs when this hormone reaches its peak.

A

LH

339
Q

Where is ADH released from, where does it have its effect, and what does it do?

A

Released from PP gland
acts of DCT & collecting ducts
promotes water reabsorption

340
Q

This hormone stimulates strong uterine contractions in the uterus at the time of parturition.

A

oxytocin

341
Q

These hormones help to maintain blood pressure, resist effects of stress, cause blood glucose to rise, and are also known as steriods.

A

glucocorticoids

342
Q

The pancreas produces insulin, which functions to:

A

move glucose into the cells, thereby lowering blood levels of glucose

343
Q

The pineal body produces ____, which affects moods & wake-sleep cycles.

A

melatonin

344
Q

The kidneys of these animals have a multipyramidal or multilobular appearance.

A

cattle

345
Q

The majority of reabsorption occurs where in the nephron?

A

proximal convoluted tubules

346
Q

Secretion is the term used to describe the process of:

A

waste products in the peritubular capillaries entering the distal convoluted tubules

347
Q

Blood in the glomerular capillaries flows into which vessel next?

A

efferent glomerular arterioles

348
Q

Aldosterone causes reabsorption of ____ in the distal convoluted tubules

A

sodium (water follows)

349
Q

The blood in these vessels contain the least amount of waste in the body.

A

renal vein

350
Q

What happens to the corpus luteum, and what hormones are produced if an ovum has been fertilized and implants in the uterus?

A
  • influenced by continued stimulation of LH

- produces progestins necessary for maintenance or pregnancy

351
Q

What hormone level must increase (or surge) before ovulation will occur?

A

LH

352
Q

An influx of ____ into the synaptic knob results in the fusing of vesicles, containing neurotransmitters, with the knobs’s cellular membrane.

A

calcium

353
Q

Norepinephrine is broken down by

A
  • monoamin oxidase in synaptic knob

- catechol-o-methyl transferase in the cleft

354
Q

Which dog breed is sensitive to ivermectin and why?

A

Collies, blood brain barrier different than most dogs

355
Q

Where is calcitonin made and what does it do?

A

kidneys, functions to prevent hypercalcemia

356
Q

Where is ACTH released, what stimulates its release, and where does it have its effect?

A

Can be released quickly via stimulation of the hypothalamus by other parts of the brain

357
Q

Thyroid hormone affect the metabolism of proteins, lipids an carbohydrates similar to

A

growth hormone

358
Q

PTH prevents hypocalcemia by all of the following except:

A

causing kidneys to release calcitonin

359
Q

Aldotserone is a mineralocorticoid that:

A

causes sodium and water retention, released from adrenal cortex

360
Q

Know the action of thyroid hormone and what stimulates its release.

A

increases with cold temps

361
Q

A deficiency of antidiuretic hormone in the body causes the disease:

A

Diabetes insipidus

362
Q

The part of the brain responsible for learning, intelligence, and awareness is

A

cerebrum

363
Q

The blood brain barrier is found in the

A

capillaries

364
Q

Postganglionic neuron of the autonomic nervous system releases acetylcholine, what do you not expect to happen?

A

increased heart rate

365
Q

neurons rely on __ for energy.

A

glucose