E-PME Flashcards

1
Q

what type of directive has no defined format?

A

Standard Of Procedures (SOP’s)

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2
Q

who do coast guard training centers report to?

A

headquarters

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3
Q

how much physical activity is required to reduce stress?

A

30 minutes, at least 3 times a week

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4
Q

who administers the SWE?

A

Personnel Support Center

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5
Q

what directive is reviewed and validated by originators every 4 years?

A

instructions(COMDINST)

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6
Q

written communication that is permanent, exceeds 25 pages, and must be reviewed annually and cancelled when not applicable?

A

manuals

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7
Q

USCG starts marine environmental protection program

A

1972

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8
Q

In colonial times, what was used to warn ships away from land during fog?

A

cannons

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9
Q

USCG employs 2 types of training.

A

Non-resident: self-paced, completed when time is available, and may or may not have a completion date. Resident: take place in classrooms and have beginning and graduation dates.

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10
Q

Request to attend “C” school training must be formally submitted by who?

A

training officer

  1. ) short-term training request (STTR) CG-5223 form
  2. ) electronic training request (ETR) in DA
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11
Q

property value less than $_________, a Report Of Survey is not required.

A

$500

**a report of survey is prepared on a CG-5269**

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12
Q

excess property

A
  1. ) is it dusty?
  2. ) item acquired for specific purpose and is no longer needed.
  3. ) has it been utilized in the past 90 days?
    * **item should be reported as excess to Property Officer***
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13
Q

The supervisor must route the completed employee review to the next level of the rating chain no later than _______ days prior to the period ending date.

A

9 days

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14
Q

The evaluee is counseled after ________.

A

the approving official has reviewed the employee evaluation.

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15
Q

route the completed employee review to the _________.

A

marking official

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16
Q

your personal data extract PDE includes….

A
  1. ) time in grade
  2. ) time in service
  3. ) creditable sea time
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17
Q

PR’s for construction requests are limited to $_________.

A

$2,000.00

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18
Q

PR limit value for ordering supplies and services is $_________.

A

$2,500.00

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19
Q

All training that members receive is recorded in _____.

A

their personal training record

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20
Q

discrepancies in direct access (DA) training records should be reported to _________.

A

Servicing Personnel Officer (SPO)

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21
Q

If enlisted, the supervisor must be at least one pay grade senior to the evaluee. Two exceptions to this rule are?

A
  1. ) the command may designate a 1st class PO(E-6) as a supervisor.
  2. ) a supervisor who is a 1st class PO, designated as XPO, does not have to be one pay grade senior to the evaluee.
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22
Q

only Coast Guard-manned light station in the U.S. today is located in __________.

A

Boston Harbor

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23
Q

Selective Reserve Direct Commission Program (SELRES)

A

continue civilian employment while serving military duty on average:

  1. ) 2 days a month
  2. ) 2 weeks a year -b/w 21-36 yrs -baccalaureate or 60 semester hours of accredited college -must completed 1 yr. military service.
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24
Q

Coast Guard Academy

A
  • b/w 17-22 yrs. of age
  • unmarried and no dependents
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25
Q

Pre-commissioning Program for Enlisted Personnel (PPEP)

A
  • enlisted personnel attend college full-time for up to 2 yrs., with a goal of qualifying to attend OCS.
  • required to complete degree requirements in 24 months - b/w 21-36 yrs. of age
  • must obligate additional 4 yrs. upon completion
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26
Q

Officer Candidate School (OCS)

A
  • 17 week training - qualifying score on SAT, ACT, or ASVAB - b/w 21-26 yrs. of age exception:
    1. ) active duty up to 60 month past max. age limit.
    2. ) currently serving as regular CG CWO and under 40 yrs. of age.
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27
Q

Chief Warrant Officers (CWO)

A
  • at least 8 yrs. total active service(last 4 with CG)
  • placed in top 50% on E-7 SWE
  • CO recommendation
  • E-6 and above
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28
Q

how many headquarters units report directly to HQ.

A

35 units

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29
Q

Maintenance Logistics Commands (MLC)

A
  • led by rear admirals (1 or 2 star) services provided:
  • civil eng.
  • electronic systems
  • naval eng.
  • health and safety
  • legal - finance
  • personnel
  • inspection
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30
Q

District are led by who?

A

rear admirals (1 or 2 star)

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31
Q

Atlantic/Pacific areas are led by who?

A

vice admirals

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32
Q

Atlantic/Pacific areas

A

Atlantic:

  • Boston, MA
  • Portsmouth, VA
  • New Orleans, LA
  • Miami, FL
  • Cleveland, OH

Pacific:

  • Honolulu, HI
  • Alameda, CA
  • Seattle, WA
  • Juneau, AK
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33
Q

mishap report classes?

**Class A-B mishap boards appointed by Commandant Class C-D mishap boards conducted at unit level**

A

Class A: property damage of 2,000,000 or more

**coast guard small boat has a reportable property value of $100,000 or more**

Class B: property damage of 500,000 or more but less than 2,000,000.

Class C: property damage of 50,000 or more but less than 500,000. - nonfatal injuries resulting in loss of time

Class D: property damage of 5,000 but less than 50,000

**Class E: Aviation Flight mishaps or Aviation Ground mishaps only. Mishaps that result in damage to the engine and/or integral engine components only, regardless of damage cost ie; engines, engine controls, engine mounted accesory gearboxes, engine plumbing, and engine wiring. (M5100.47B Safety And Environmental Health Manual)

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34
Q

extra military instruction (EMI)

A
  • only 2 hours per day
  • only for period of time it takes to correct deficiency
  • on a day that is not the enlisted member’s Sabbath.
  • **does not deprive the member of normal liberty***
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35
Q

3 categories for a classified message

A

top secret: requires highest degree of protection

secret: requires substantial degree of protection

confidential: requires protection

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36
Q

message traffic

A
  1. ) flash (Z) - 10 minutes
  2. ) immediate (O) - 30 minutes
  3. ) priority (P) - 3 hours
  4. ) routine (R) - 6 hours
37
Q

single and double hearing protection

A

single: 85db
double: 105db

38
Q

how many leadership competencies are there?

A

21 competencies

39
Q

Coast Guard’s Marine Environment Protection program starts in what year?

A

1972 with the Federal Water Pollution Control Act

  • Grounding of the_Torrey Canyon_ & Amoco Cadiz tankers
40
Q

Coast Guard auxiliary created in what year?

A

1939 by the Coast Guard Reserve Act of 1939

**Russell R. Waesche**

41
Q

what year did the first 5 African-American females enter the SPAR’s.

A
  1. SPAR = Semper Paratus Always Ready Women’s Reserve)
42
Q

Master Chief Yeoman Pearl Faurie becomes the first SPAR E9 in what year?

A

1962

43
Q

counseling must take place not later than _______ days following the employee review period ending date.

A

30 days

44
Q

most significant benefit of counseling is that it provides the evaluee with ________________?

A

a road map for success.

45
Q

(PR) J.O.T.F.O.C.

A

Justification For Other Than Full and Open Competition

**if a ‘sole source’ procurement is the only way to meet the government’s needs**

46
Q

micro purchase

A

The acquisition of supplies/services for $2500 or less.

47
Q

eye contact guidelines

A

make eye contact for 1-3 seconds when looking at someone

48
Q

In order to be classified as a large cutter, how long must a vessel be? are under control of who?

A

over 180 feet and control by Area Commanders(PAC/ATL)

**cutter’s under 180 feet are controlled by District Commanders**

49
Q

What two characteristics must a vessel have in order to be classified as a cutter?

A
  1. Must be 65 feet or longer
  2. Have adequate accommodations for the crew to live on board.
50
Q

The sinking of what vessel was the driving force behind establishing the International Ice Patrol?

A

R.M.S Titanic (1912)

51
Q

Title 14 of the U.S. Code cites what?

A

That the Coast guard is a military service. It is a branch of the Armed Forces of the U.S. unceasingly

52
Q

Who was the first Master Chief in the Coast Guard and what was his rate?

A

YNMC Jack Kerwin

53
Q

How many MCPO’s and SCPO’s attended the first CPO academy

A

6 MCPO’s & 4 SCPO’s

54
Q

When opening a confined space, how long must it be allowed to ventilate?

A

24 hours

55
Q

Universal Precautions is an infection control approach developed by what organization?

A

Center for Disease Control (CDC)

56
Q

What are the two types of messages in the CGMS?

A
  1. classified
  2. unclassified
57
Q

When formatting the text within the report in CGMS, you are limited to how many characters per line?

A

69

58
Q

The Refuse Act of 1899 was the catalyst for what CG mission?

A

Environmental protection

59
Q

If a member is unable to perform his/her duties due to alcohol, it is a(n) _____.

A

Alcohol Incident

60
Q

Members are to receive Sexual Harassment Prevention training ________?

A

annually

61
Q

Mishap investigations are conducted to _____.

A

Try to prevent reoccurrence of the incident.

62
Q

is the Commandant the commanding officer of headquarters?

A

NO. However, the Commandant does provide immediate direction to headquarters’ units.

63
Q

The Torrey Canyon & Amoco Cadiz tanker groundings led to the ____________________.

A

Federal Water Pollution Control Act of 1972.

64
Q

(ENLISTED ACCESSION, EVAL.,ADVCMNT CIM 1000.2)

medal & award points

A

10 pts: Medal of Honor

6 pts: Gold Lifesaving Medal (and those military awards having higher precedence)

5 pts: Bronze Star Medal

4 pts: Purple Heart Medal

      Meritorious Service Medal

      Air Medal

      Silver Lifesaving Medal

3 pts: Commendation Medal

2 pts: Achievement Medal

1 pt: Combat Action Ribbon

    Commandants LOC

    CG Good Conduct Medal

    CG Reserve Good Conduct Medal
65
Q

Suicide Prevention Accronym?

A

A C E:

A - Ask

C - Care

E - Escort

66
Q

Definition of Stress?

A

Stress is the everyday wear and tear on your body as you respond to the people, places, and things in your life.

67
Q

Alcohol Incident

A

Occurs when the commanding officer determines that the use or abuse of alcohol is a significant or causative factor resulting in at least one of the following:

  1. Loss of ability to perform duties
  2. Discredit upon the service
  3. Any violation of the UCMJ, federal, state, or local law.
68
Q

Pre-existing condition (substance abuse disorder)

A

If a member is found to have a substance abuse disorder, within the first 180 days of their enlistment, they will be discharged from the Coast Guard due to a pre-existing medical condition.

69
Q

Date Coast Guard transfered to the Department of Transportation?

A

April 1st 1967

70
Q

Date Coast Guard transfered to Department of Homeland Security?

A

March 1st 2003

71
Q

5-step Risk Management Process

A
  1. Identify Hazard - use ‘PEACE’ model
  2. Assess Hazard
  3. Develop Controls and Make Decision
  4. Implement Controls
  5. Supervise and Evaluate
72
Q

ORM ‘PEACE’ Model

A
  • Low/Medium/High scale

Planning

Event

Asset (crew/resources)

Communicaiton/Supervision

Environment

73
Q

ORM ‘STAAR’ Model

A
  • identify potential hazard mitigation strategies and reduce the Probability.

Spread out

Transfer

Avoid

Accept

Reduce

74
Q

Classes of Fires

A

Alpha - Ordinary combustible material

Bravo - combustible liquids

Charlie - energized electrical circuits

Delta - combustible metals

*15% of oxygen needed for combustion

**3% of oxygen needed for smoldering

75
Q

Article 15

A

Non-Judicial Punishment (NJP)

commonly called ‘captain’s mast’

76
Q

Article 90

A

Willfully disobeying superior commissioned officer

Maximum Punishment:

  • In time of war: any punishment including death
  • Other than war:
  1. dishonorable discharge
  2. forfeiture of all pay and allowances
  3. confinement for 5 years
77
Q

Article 91

A

Insubordinate conduct toward warrant officer, noncommission officer, or petty officer.

Maximum Punishment:

  1. Dishonorable discharge
  2. Forfeiture of all pay and allowances
  3. Confinement for 2 years
78
Q

Article 92

A

Failure to obey order or regulation

Maximum Punishment:

  1. Dishonorable discharge
  2. Forfeiture of all pay and allowances
  3. Confinement for 2 years
79
Q

Rolling the ODU sleeves

A

Forming a roll about 3 inches wide and terminating at point about 2 inches above the elbow (mid bicep)

80
Q

Blousing the ODU trousers

A

When bloused, place the blousing bands between the 2nd and 3rd boot eyelet from the top of the boot.

**Velcro type blousing bands are NOT authorized**

81
Q

Bulk of Hair shall not exceed ______

A

Men: 1-1/2 inches

Women: 2 inches and shall not, in any case, interfere with proper wearing of military headgear. Bun will not exceed 3 inches.

82
Q

Sideburns will not extend below ___________

A

the lowest part of the external ear opening.

83
Q

Shaving waiver

A

If a shaving wiaver is authorized, facial hair will be kept trimmed not to exceed 1/4 inch length.

84
Q

(Training Presentation Job Aid)

Trainees will (on average) remember…

A
  • 10% of what they READ
  • 20% of what they HEAR
  • 30% of what they SEE
  • 40% of what they SEE & HEAR
  • 50% of what they DISCUSS
  • 70% of what they EXPERIENCE
  • 90% of what they TEACH
85
Q

(COMDTINST 5351.3 Leadership, Development Framework)

How many leadership competencies are there?

How many categories?

A

28 leadership competencies with 4 categories.

  1. Leading Self
  2. Leading Others
  3. Leading Performance and Change
  4. Leading the Coast Guard
86
Q

(COMDTINST 5351.3 Leadership, Development Framework)

Within the third category, Leading Performance and Change, Successful leaders demonstrate the ability to plan, organize, and prioritize realistic tasks and responsibilities for themselves and their people through___________.

A

Monitoring and evaluating progress and outcomes produced by current processes.

87
Q

(COMDTINST 5351.3 Leadership, Development Framework)

Mid-level managers should have the expertise to_________

A

Isolate key points, central issues, and common themes to determine best solution or a range of options. Objectively analyze the organization’s strengths and weaknesses and take appropriate action. Monitor plans to accomplish work requirements, delegate appropiately, and ensure that effective internal controls are in place. Continually review significant tasks and processes for possible improvement.

88
Q

(COMDTINST 5351.3 Leadership, Development Framework)

Job Aid Use and Procedural Steps for Performance Support Tool

A

1. Determine need for Interact Use:

  • Negative impact on the job?
  • Preventing Others doing their job?
  • Preventing you from doing your job?
  • Violation of CG policy?

2. Communicate the Situation:

  • Standards/expectations
  • Observed behaviors witnessed

3. Pause: Allow member to respond in why the behavior occurred in the manned it did.

4. Diagnose:

  • Role Clarity
  • Ability - lack of training, knowledge, skills/Environmental
  • Willingness - explain consequences to: The Job, To Others, To Supervisors, To Them
  • Emergent Problem - potentially most challenging