2.4 All Fires Or Explosions Flashcards

1
Q

When should the “Application of Agent or decision to defer” field be reported?
A) Only if the fire department successfully suppresses the fire
B) When the commanding officer decides not to suppress the fire
C) In all situations where the fire department is present and equipped to respond with extinguishing agent initially applied
D) Only if the fire spreads beyond the initial area of ignition

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How should the time be reported in the “Under Control Time” field?
A) Only if the fire department is certain the fire will not reignite
B) When the fire is sufficiently surrounded and quenched, no longer threatening further spread
C) When the fire department initially arrives at the scene
D) When the fire department begins suppression activities

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is required in the “Under Control Time Date” field?
A) The exact date of the incident
B) The date when the fire department arrives at the scene
C) The date when the fire is considered under control
D) The date of the nearest water resource

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How should the “Status on Arrival” be reported?
A) The level of smoke or fire visible upon arrival
B) The number of casualties present upon arrival
C) The extent of damage caused by the fire
D) The temperature of the fire upon arrival

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What information is reported in the “Fire Control” field?
A) The cause of the fire
B) Who or what extinguished the fire
C) The time of the fire department’s arrival
D) The total dollar loss of the incident

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which property classification includes churches, schools, event venues, and transportation terminals?
A) Group B - Care and Detention
B) Group C - Residential
C) Group A - Assembly
D) Group E - Mercantile

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Hospitals, jails, and long-term care facilities fall under which property classification?
A) Group D - Business and Personal Services
B) Group B - Care and Detention
C) Group F - Industrial
D) Group E - Mercantile

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What property type code is used for motor vehicle sales and service stations?
A) 501-599
B) 601-799
C) 901-999
D) 801-864

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When a vehicle fire occurs outside of a building, which series of property codes is used?
A) 801-864
B) 865-869
C) 901-999
D) 501-599

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What area of origin code would be used for a fire originating in a covered court or atrium?
A) 61-70
B) 11-19
C) 81-89
D) 91-98

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What category does the ignition source “Wood burning stove” belong to?
A) Cooking equipment
B) Heating equipment, chimney
C) Lighting equipment
D) Appliances

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which code range includes electrical distribution equipment such as wiring and terminations?

A) 11 to 19
B) 31 to 41
C) 20 to 30
D) 42 to 49

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When reporting the fuel or energy associated with igniting equipment, what code should be used if the equipment is not responsible for igniting the fire?

A) 98 - Not Applicable
B) 96 - Exposure fire
C) 99 - Heater
D) 85 - Natural causes

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which category includes codes for building components such as walls and roofs?
A) Gases
B) Furniture
C) Building component
D) Materials

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

If a fire’s cause is suspected to be unintentional but there are multiple equally possible causes, which code should be used?
A) 50 - Unintentional
B) 67 - Other unintentional
C) 98 - Undetermined
D) 99 - Other

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What code should be used for an intentionally set fire ignited to destroy property for personal gain?
A) Code 01 - Suspected Arson
B) Code 02 - Riot/Civil Commotion
C) Code 03 - Suspected Vandalism
D) Code 04 - Suspected Youth Vandalism

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which code refers to a fire started by a child playing?
A) Code 11 - Children Playing
B) Code 12 - Vehicle Collision
C) Code 20 - Design/Construction/Installation/Maintenance Deficiency
D) Code 28 - Routine Maintenance Deficiency

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

If a fire is caused by inadequate routine maintenance in household or business settings, which code should be used?
A) Code 28 - Routine Maintenance Deficiency
B) Code 44 - Unattended
C) Code 45 - Improperly Discarded
D) Code 46 - Used or Placed too Close to Combustibles

A

A

19
Q

What code should be used for a fire caused by an ignition source that is left unattended?
A) Code 44 - Unattended
B) Code 45 - Improperly Discarded
C) Code 46 - Used or Placed too Close to Combustibles
D) Code 47 - Improper Handling

A

A

20
Q

Which code refers to a fire caused by an object or material being used or placed too close to combustibles?
A) Code 46 - Used or Placed too Close to Combustibles
B) Code 47 - Improper Handling
C) Code 28 - Routine Maintenance Deficiency
D) Code 20 - Design/Construction/Installation/Maintenance Deficiency

A

A

21
Q

Which code refers to a fire caused by an ignition source or equipment that is used for a purpose not intended?
A) Code 48 - Used for Purpose Not Intended
B) Code 49 - Improper Storage
C) Code 50 - Other Misuse
D) Code 51 - Mechanical Failure

A

A

22
Q

If a fire results from the improper storage of ignition source or ignited materials, which code should be used?
A) Code 48 - Used for Purpose Not Intended
B) Code 49 - Improper Storage
C) Code 60 - Other Unintentional, Unclassified
D) Code 52 - Electrical Failure

A

B

23
Q

What code is used for a fire caused by a malfunction in a mechanical system?
A) Code 48 - Used for Purpose Not Intended
B) Code 51 - Mechanical Failure
C) Code 52 - Electrical Failure
D) Code 60 - Other Unintentional, Unclassified

A

B

24
Q

If a fire is caused by a malfunction in an electrical system, which code should be used?
A) Code 48 - Used for Purpose Not Intended
B) Code 49 - Improper Storage
C) Code 52 - Electrical Failure
D) Code 60 - Other Unintentional, Unclassified

A

C

25
Q

What does the field “Vehicle Purpose” refer to in the context of vehicle fires?

A) The brand of the vehicle
B) The color of the vehicle
C) The main transport function of the vehicle
D) The number of passengers in the vehicle

A

C

26
Q

In the event that a vehicle is suspected to be stolen, what code is used for the “Vehicle Purpose” field?

A) Code 5 Stolen
B) Code 8 Abandoned, junked
C) Code 10 Stolen
D) Code 12 Suspected

A

C

27
Q

What is NOT included in the estimated dollar loss resulting from a vehicle fire or explosion?

A) Revenue losses
B) Costs involved due to business interruption
C) Environmental contamination cleanup costs
D) all the above

A

D

28
Q

According to Canadian insurance practices, how should damages and/or destruction of buildings be estimated and reported?

A) At market value
B) At assessed property value
C) At actual replacement value
D) At salvage value

A

C

29
Q

How should the estimated dollar loss be calculated for residential properties affected by fire?

A) By using property assessment value
B) By multiplying the square feet damaged by the market value per square foot
C) By multiplying the square feet damaged by the estimated loss per square foot
D) By multiplying the square feet damaged by the assessed property value

A

C

30
Q

When should the code for “Yes” be used in regards to insurance estimates provided by the fire department?
A) When the estimate is not provided by an insurance adjuster
B) When the estimate includes the land value
C) When the estimate is provided by an insurance adjuster
D) When the estimate includes business impacts

A

A

31
Q

What is included in the estimated total value at risk?
A) Property assessment value
B) Market value of the home
C) Property contents and total property value excluding land value
D) Business impacts and land value

A

C

32
Q

How are exposure fires defined?
A) Fires caused by accidental vehicle collisions
B) Fires that occur as a direct consequence of another fire originating elsewhere
C) Fires in buildings, structures, or vehicles resulting from arson
D) Fires in open areas

A

B

33
Q

How should exposure fires be reported?
A) All exposure fires should be reported under one incident report.
B) Each exposure fire should be reported separately.
C) Exposure fires should not be reported separately.
D) Only the initial fire should be reported.

A

B

34
Q

Which of the following injuries is considered a civilian fire injury?
A) Injury resulting from a vehicle collision
B) Injury caused by a fall down a stairwell during a fire
C) Injury from a heart attack unrelated to the fire
D) Injury from slipping on a wet floor after the fire has been extinguished

A

B

35
Q

What is required for each injured person in a fire incident report?
A) An incident report
B) An injury form
C) A medical examination
D) An insurance claim

A

B

36
Q

How is a civilian fire death defined?
A) Any death within one year of a fire incident
B) Death resulting from a vehicle collision
C) Death caused by arson
D) Death within one year and one day of a fire incident due to burns or asphyxia

A

D

37
Q

How is a rescue defined in the context of a fire incident?
A) Assisting persons to evacuate for precautionary measures
B) Helping persons in danger who are unable to self-evacuate to safety
C) Evacuating all persons from the occurrence area
D) Assisting persons in extinguishing the fire

A

B

38
Q

What age group does “Persons Rescued: Children” refer to?
A) Ages 0 to 12
B) Ages 0 to 16
C) Ages 5 to 18
D) Ages 16 to 64

A

B

39
Q

Which of the following is NOT a physical condition that may affect a person’s ability to self-evacuate?
A) Mobility impairment (not age related)
B) Visual impairment
C) Seniors with age-related impaired mobility
D) Lack of knowledge about the fire

A

D

40
Q

What does the field “Civilian actions: Fire control” report?
A) Whether civilians attempted to extinguish the fire
B) Whether civilians assisted in rescue operations
C) Whether civilians contacted other agencies for help
D) Whether civilians evacuated the area

A

A

41
Q

When reporting the gender of the person directly associated with the ignition, what code should be used if the information is not available?
A) Code 8: Not applicable
B) Code 9: No person present
C) Code 10: Undetermined
D) Code 99: Not applicable

A

A

42
Q

What does the field “Person directly associated with ignition: Key Human factor in ignition” aim to report?
A) The age of the person involved in the ignition
B) The gender of the person involved in the ignition
C) The specific action or condition leading to the fire ignition
D) The agency responsible for investigating the fire

A

C

43
Q

Which agency would typically be contacted in case of an electrical-related fire?
A) OPP
B) MOE
C) ESA
D) EMS

A

C