Dr Rosato Flashcards

1
Q

Define a eukaryote.

A

An organism with a true nucleus.

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2
Q

Define diploid.

A

When two copies of each gene are present.

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3
Q

Define Haploid.

A

When one copy of each gene is present.

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4
Q

Define Alleles.

A

Alternative forms of the same gene (Normal = wildtype)

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5
Q

Define Homologues

A

Copies related by descent (same gene different species)

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6
Q

Define Orthologs

A

Genes in different species which have evolved from a common ancestral gene via speciation. Usually retain the function and are vital for prediction of gene function in newly sequenced genomes.

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7
Q

Define speciation

A

Origin of a new species capable of making a living in a new way from the species before. Some genetic barriers faced between exchange of information between new and parent species.

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8
Q

Define Paralogs

A

Genes related by duplication within a genome. They tend to evolve new functions.

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9
Q

Why do high levels of sequence similarities occur?

A

Chance or convergent evolution (genes which respond in similar ways). Sequences are analogs rather than homologs.

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10
Q

Define genotype

A

Specific allele composition (genetic composition).

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11
Q

Define phenotype

A

Set of observable features resulting from the interactions between genotype and the environment.

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12
Q

Why is the sickle cell anaemia allele maintained in the population?

A

Those who have sickle cell anaemia die at a young age without producing offspring whereas those individuals who have homozygote normal Hb die from malaria. Malaria is caused by the protozoa Plasmodium, which is unable to develop in the heterozygotes so the sickle cell allele can be passed on to the next generation.

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13
Q

What is balanced polymorphism?

A

Heterozygotes have a greater fitness than the homozygotes. This is the process by which selection maintains multiple alleles in the gene pool at frequencies higher than the predicted values.

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14
Q

What is co-dominance?

A

Both alleles contribute to the phenotype of the individual.

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15
Q

In blood groups which gene determines the antigen produced?

A

Gene I which codes for an enzyme which adds a sugar to the end of the chain (glycosyltransferase) A = N-acetylgalactosamine B = galactose. (O blood group has no antigen).

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16
Q

Give an example of a dominant mutation which causes a disease.

A

Huntington’s disease
Gene has 40-121 repeat CAG units (may correlate to age at onset).
Achondroplasia - Mutation in the Fibroplast growth factor receptor 3 causing an abnormality in cartilage formation.

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17
Q

What mechanisms occur causing mutations?

A

Mispairing at replication - occur due to mutations in polymerase; mispairing due to development of tautomers producing imino form of the nucleotide (introduction of N=C bond and an enol group is added) and deoxycytidine deamination.

Backward slippage - addition of a codon (loop in the strand being produced).

Forward slippage - deletion of a codon (loop in the coding strand).

Chemicals:
Alkylating agents - Addition of an alkyl groups to DNA bases inducing mispairing. EMS transfers an ethyl group while MNNG transfers a methyl group (If G becomes alkylated then it will pair with T).
Intercalating agents - chemicals which fit between base pairs of dsDNA causing the addition or deletion of single nucleotide (induced frameshift mutations) Agents include Ethidium Bromide (used to dye gels during electrophoresis)

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18
Q

What mechanisms can be used to repair damage to DNA (pyrimidine dimers)?

A

Dimers produce kinks in DNA blocking replication (Caused by UV exposure).
Photoreactivation -Photolyase enzyme binds to damaged DNA, light energy is absorbed splitting the dimer and polymerase then fixes the issue.
Excision repair - removal of the damaged section and then repair by DNA polyermase.
Post-replication recombinational repair - Use of homologous chromosome to copy the sequence from the undamaged area and inserting this into the gap produced on the opposite strand to the damaged strand.
Transdimer synthesis.

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19
Q

Give an example of a disease caused by damage to the repair systems.

A

Xeroderma pigmentosum - Mutation in excision repair so S0S-repair systems required however these are prone to errors so further mutations occur leading to the development of tumours (Melanomas).

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20
Q

What is high energy ionising radiation?

A

Electromagnetic radiation and particles that carry enough energy to liberate and electron from an atom or molecule ionising it. Examples: X-rays and gamma-rays; alpha particles (He2+ nuclei) and beta particles (electrons).

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21
Q

How does radiation affect DNA?

A

Causes nucleotide damage (mispairing); Single-strand breaks and double-strand breaks. Double-strand breaks cause large scale mutations including translocation.

If inversion occurs then chromosomes are unable to pair up during meiosis so balancer chromosomes are required to prevent crossing over if damage has occurred.

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22
Q

How does radiation effect somatic cells?

A

Cause cancers. The proto-oncogenes responsible for cellular growth, differentiation and apoptosis may become damaged becoming oncogenes encoding proteins which lead to the development of proteins which promote cancer. Mutation may also occur in the tumour supressor gene (TP53) which codes for P53 preventing control of proliferation of cells.

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23
Q

How does radiation effect the germline cells?

A

Induce mutations causing structural changes which lead to abortion (miscarriage) or still born progeny with the ability to kill sperm or eggs.

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24
Q

How can radiation effects be studied in germlines?

A

No direct experimental approach on humans as unethical so can only be studied when opportunity arises. Sir Alec Jefferys discovered mini-satellites which are hyper-variable regions with very high mutation rates (10^-3 to 10^-4 per locus per generation) so high levels of polymorphism within the population (low rate of unrelated individuals having the same varient). Used to study mutations in Chernobyl disaster (high mutation rate in offspring whose parents involved in disaster (loci different to both parents)). Now use micro-satellites instead as they have a lower mutation rates so mutation more likely to have occurred due to environmental factors such as ionising radiation.

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25
Q

How are transposable elements used by bacteria to cause mutations?

A

Used to transfer genes into host genome and act by chance as a mutagen. The TE is replicated and the nascent form is then inserted into the DNA at another point. Technique has now been exploited and is a used to insert GFP into a target sequence.

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26
Q

What is transgenesis?

A

Genes can be expressed using a known promoter between IR.

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27
Q

What is the ames test?

A

Used in bacteria to test the type of mutations which can occur and whether they can be repaired or not.

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28
Q

How do you calculate mutation rate?

A

Mutation frequency x size of genome

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29
Q

What is chromatin made up of?

A

DNA - one unreplicated chromosome containing a dsDNA molecule.
Protein - DNA metabolising enzymes and structural proteins (histone complex).

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30
Q

What is a genome?

A

Complete set of genetic material

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31
Q

How is DNA packaged into eukaryote chromosomes?

A

Packaged into nucleosome made up of an octamer of core histones. 147bp wrap around the histone in 1.67 left-handed helical turns.

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32
Q

What is epigenetics?

A

The ability to change the expression of genes and chromosome characteristics without changing the DNA itself. My also occur in gametes (Imprinting).

33
Q

Describe the stages of Mitosis in respect to chromosome behaviour.

A

G2 - loosely coiled chromosomes;
Prophase - Chromosomes begin to condense (Centrosomes duplicate and migrate; spindle fibres form and nuclear envelope breaksdown.
Prometaphase - Chromosomes continue to condense (Spindle fibres attach to the centromere)
Metaphase - Chromosomes line up along the metaphase plate;
Anaphase - Sister chromatids migrate to opposite poles of the cell.
Telophase - Chromosomes decondense (Nuclear envelope reforms)
Cytokinesis - Two identical daughter cells (cytoplasm divides)

34
Q

Describe Leptotene

A

Chromosomes start to condense

35
Q

Describe Zygotene

A

Homologous chromosomes become closely associated (Synapsis) forming pairs of chromosomes called bivalents formed by consisting of 4 chromatids (tetrads).

36
Q

Define Pachytene

A

Crossing over of between homologous chromosomes at chiasmata (point where genetic information is exchanged).

37
Q

Define Diplotene

A

Homologous chromosomes start to seperate but stay attached at the chiasmata.

38
Q

Define Diakensis

A

Homologous chromosomes continue to seperate and chiasmata move towards the end of the chromatid.

39
Q

How is female gametogenesis different for male gametogenesis?

A

Female meiosis produces polar bodies due to the uneven distribution of cytoplasm (all energy is put into the production of one cell because the parent is unable to produce enough mitochondria and RNA to maintain all the cells.

40
Q

What is recombination?

A

Random segregation of maternal and paternal chromosomes during meiosis I. Exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes during meiosis I.

41
Q

When testing mendelian genetics what is crossed in the initial cross?

A

True breeding strain - homozygote recessive and homozygote dominant (Can be used to determine whether a trait is dominant or not)

42
Q

What is Mendel’s first law?

A

Law of segregation - Gene segregation at meiosis reflects segregation of homologous chromosomes (Alleles can be used as markers).

43
Q

Why is a test cross used?

A

Allow for the relative frequency of different gametes to be observed directly. (Always cross with a recessive homozygote).

44
Q

How do you study whether different gene pairs assort independently at meiosis?

A

Need two genetically marked genes. Cross a mutant in one characteristic with a mutant in another characteristic (Complementation).

45
Q

What is complementation?

A

When each mutant genome compensates for a functional defect in another. From this we can conclude genomes are defective in different genes.

46
Q

What is Mendel’s Second Law?

A

Independent assortment - copies of different gene pairs assort randomly at meiosis (2n (where n is number of chromosomes) genetically different gametes produced).

47
Q

How do you calculate recombination frequency?

A

Number of recombinants/Total number of progeny x 100

48
Q

How can you show if gene pairs are linked?

A

RF values of Recombinant shows linkage. (No free recombination).

49
Q

What is linkage?

A

Alleles on the same chromosome will co-segregate at meiosis so alleles do not independently assort.

50
Q

Is Chiasma crossing over error free? Explain

A

YES. There is the exact breaking and reunion of DNA

51
Q

Where do chiasma form?

A

Occurs anywhere along a chromosome

52
Q

What is a polytene?

A

Many copies of the genome which help to produce the amount of protein required within the body.Probes may be used to distinguish location of genes and areas which are not transcribed may be more tightly packaged.

53
Q

What is the consequence of meiosis?

A

Maintenance of constant number of chromosomes from generation to generation.

54
Q

What are the fundamental genetic tests?

A

Dominance Test - Cross two homozygotes and study the phenotype of the F1 progeny.

Recombination test - measure the RF of genes from F1 and looks into the relationship between genes.

Complementation test - Study the F1 phenotype and shows the functional relationship of two recessive mutations.

55
Q

What is a complex trait?

A

A trait affected by a number of genes. Phenotypes vary over a continuous range. Show normal distribution with different phenotypes.

56
Q

What causes continuous data?

A

Genetics - Alternative alleles in more than one gene.

Environment - Factors such as diet, density, light and rainfall.

Genotype-environment interactions.

57
Q

What is the additive model?

A

2 unlinked genes contribute to a characteristic.

58
Q

What is a karyotype?

A

Complete set of chromosomes in the cell which are best seen at the metaphase stage of mitosis.

59
Q

What are autosomes?

A

Chromosomes not involved in sex determination.

60
Q

What are sex chromosomes?

A

Chromosomes involved in sex determination.

61
Q

Describe a human karyotype

A

22 autosome pairs and 2 sex chromosomes.

62
Q

How were early karyotypes carried?

A

Chromosomes squashed and stained between coverslip and slide.

Hypertonic solution then used causing the cells to swell allowing cells the spread before squashing.

Dropping cells from a height led to cells bursting.

Finally introduction of poison causing cells to stop dividing at the metaphase stage.

63
Q

How are chromosomes classified?

A

Using the Denver system which classes by size and position of the centromere.

64
Q

What is G-banding?

A

Banding specific to a chromosome

65
Q

What is Q-banding?

A

Quinacrine Mustard staining revealing the banding on the chromosome. Allows the chromosomes to be mapped by region and then sub-banded. Can be used in structural identification.

66
Q

What is insitu hybridisation?

A

Chromosomes hybridised with probe for Alu sequences (green). Then counterstained red (TORRO-3). Alu used as a marker for areas rich in genes.

67
Q

What is FISH?

A

Flourescent insitu hybridisation - chromosome painting allowing for whole chromosome or segment to be specifically painted and uniquely visualised.

68
Q

What is an Idiogram?

A

A representation of each chromosome. The chromosome is split into 2 units (P&Q). These are further split into 2 sections with 1 (smaller sub-unit) closer to the centromere.

69
Q

What is the pseudoautosomal region for?

A

Common regions found at the tips of the X and Y chromosomes allowing for clean segregation at Meiosis.

70
Q

What genes escape X-activation?

A

PAR 1 & 2 are passed on like autosomal genes so are able to have an effect when aneuploidy conditions occur.

71
Q

What is the SRY?

A

Sex determination region Y - intronless gene which codes for TDF. Mutations can lead to gonadal dysgenesis (Translocation of this region can cause developement of XX males).

72
Q

Give Examples of Abnormalities in Sex Chromosomes

A

Phenotypic males: XXY 1/1000 (Kleinfelter’s) XX 1/20000

Phenotypic females: X 1/10000 (Turner’s) XXX 1/1000 (Trisomy X)

73
Q

How is sex determined?

A

TDF gene produces transcription factor (Testis determining factor). This is expressed in primordial embryos causing the development of the testis. The testis go on to produce testosterone leading to the development of male genitalia. If TDF gene is absent then female genitalia develop.

74
Q

In sex-linked inherited diseases who does the male offspring look like?

A

Mother. The genes are usually carried on the X chromosome (Examples: Haemophilia, Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy).

75
Q

How is the X-chromosome gene dosage balanced?

A

Barr bodies - Very condensed X chromosome. This chromosome is genetically silenced at 20-cell stage of development (Silencing is random).

76
Q

Explain female mosaicism

A

Occurs due to random X-chromosome inactivation so different cells may be expressing different X chromosomes. Can be tested using the glucose-6-dehydrogenase gene as a marker. Using an assay of enzymes from the skin. Females who have cells with the enzyme present and some cells which do not are said to be mosaic (heterzygotes). Can also be seen in Calico cats.

77
Q

What is aneuploidy? Give an example.

A

The loss or gain of a chromosome due to non-disjunction during meiosis. The imbalance may be fatal. Can be seen in cases of Down’s syndrome (Trisomy 21) but this is not fatal as it affects a smaller chromosome.

78
Q

What is polyploidy?

A

> two complete sets of chromosomes. Lethal to animals but seen widely in the plant kingdom (Important for agriculture). Can be either sterile or fertile depending on whether viable gametes can be produced.

79
Q

What is allopolyploidy? Give an example

A

Two or more sets of genetically distinct chromosomes. Can be seen in Bread wheat where n=7. The first cross occurred between Einkorn wheat x wild grass producing a tetraploid (Emmer wheat). This was then crossed with another type of wildgrass to produce the hexaploid bread wheat.