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cardiology Flashcards

0
Q

soft first heart sound heard with

A
  • mitral regurgitation
  • long PR interval
  • LBBB
  • aortic stenosis, aortic regurg
  • immobile mitral valve
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1
Q

loud first heart sound heard with

A
  • mitral stenosis
  • short PR interval ie: WPW
  • tachycardia
  • thyrotoxicosis
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2
Q

second heart sound splits with

A

inspiration

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3
Q

wide splitting second heart sound heard with

A
  • MR, VSD
  • RBBB
  • pulm artery hypertension
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4
Q

fixed second heart sound heard with

A

**ASD-only thing causing fixed!!

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5
Q

S3 heard in

A
  • normal in children
  • mitral regurg
  • tricuspid regurg
  • CHF
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6
Q

S4 heard in

A
  • hypertension
  • aortic stenosis
  • hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
  • angina, myocardial infaction
  • ACUTE mitral regurg-NOT chronic
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7
Q

heart sound-clicks heard in

A
  • early systolic-aortic stenosis, pulmonary stenosis

* mid systolic- MVP

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8
Q

opening snap heard in*

A
  • mitral stenosis, tricuspid stenosis

* shorter the interval, more severe the stenosis is

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9
Q

pericardial friction rub heard with

A

pericarditis

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10
Q

pericardial knock

A

constrictive pericarditis

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11
Q

palpable heave at heart apex

A

LVH

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12
Q

Kussmaul sign

A

incease of JVP on inspiration

*see w constrictive pericarditis , RV infarct

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13
Q

JVP >4cm above the sternal angle or >9cm above the right atrium is

A

considered abnormal

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14
Q

Giant a wave on Jugular venous pulse tracing (cannon a wave)

A

produced when the atrium contracts against resistance as in tricuspid stenosis

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15
Q

holosystolic heart murmur heard with

A

mitral regurg
tricuspid regurg
VSD

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16
Q

midsystolic heart murmur heard with

A

aortic stenosis
pulmonary stenosis
functional murmur

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17
Q

continuous heart murmur is heard with

A

PDA

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18
Q

increase in heart murmur with standing and valsalva

A

MVP
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

(all other maneuvers assoc w all other murmurs)

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19
Q

opening snap and loud P2

A

mitral stenosis

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20
Q

pulsus tardus pulse pattern assoc with

A

aortic stenosis

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21
Q

pulsus bisferiens pulse pattern assoc w

A

aortic regurg

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22
Q

pulsus alternans pulse pattern assoc w

A

cardiac tamponade

severe LV failure

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23
Q

paradoxical pulse

A
  • drop in systolic BP>10mm on inspiration

* see in: cardiac tamponade, airway obstruction, SVC obstruction

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24
Q

30 yr old who is 3 months pregnant has a grade 2 early systolic murmur over LSB. the murmur disappears on standing

A

innocent murmur of pregnancy, no work up if grade 2 or less

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25
Q

40 y/o male has a JVP of 3 cm above the sternal angle and increases to 8cm after applying pressure on the liver

A
  • called hepatojugular reflex

* means impending or active CHF

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26
Q

30 y/o has a midsystolic click & late systolic murmur, the murmur increases on standing & valsalva

A

*MVP

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27
Q

wide splitting S2 , soft P2, early systolic click, cannon wave, midsystolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur over LSB

A

pulmonary stenosis

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28
Q

murmur that is machinery and continuous means

A

PDA

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29
Q

holosystolic murmur that increases with inspiration

A

tricuspid regurg

if no change w inspiration-VSD

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30
Q

most common cause of mitral regurg

A

MVP

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31
Q

clinical features of MVP

A
  • palpitations, cp, supraventricular & ventricular arhythmias
  • midsystolic click and late systolic murmur
  • stand and valsalva cause click and murmur to occur early
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32
Q

complications of MVP

A

LV failure
systemic emboli from platelet fibrin deposits on valves
sudden death-very rare

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33
Q

tx of MVP

A
  • B blocker-palpitations, CP, anxiety or fatigue
  • ASA-unexplained TIA w sinus rhythm & no atrial thrombus
  • warfarin-recur TIA despite ASA or hx of stroke
  • surgery-severe MR
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34
Q

indications for ECHO to eval a heart murmur

A
  • presence of cardiac symptoms
  • systolic murmur >/= grade 3
  • continuous murmur
  • any diastolic murmur
  • new murmur from previous exam
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35
Q

Grades of murmurs

1-very faint, may not hear in all positions
2- quiet, hear immediately after placing a stethoscope
3-moderately loud

A

4-loud, with a palpable thrill
5-very loud, thrill, may be heard w stethoscope PARTLY OFF chest
6-as above but may be heard w scope ENTIRELY off the chest

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36
Q

PCWP-pulmonary capillary wedge pressure

A

measures LA pressure from R side of heart by blocking R side w balloon
*normal is 6-12mm Hg

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37
Q

PCWP is normal with

A

pulmonary artery hypertension PAH
COPD
pulmonary embolism

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38
Q

PCWP increased with these conditions

A

mitral stenosis

LV failure

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39
Q

hemodynamic monitoring in septic patient or in anaphylaxis will see SVR

A

decreased

all other conditions increase SVR

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40
Q

Right ventricular infarct clinical features

  • one third of patients with INFERIOR MI
  • ST elevation : V3R-V6R
A
  • low BP
  • increased JVP
  • positive Kussmaul sign
  • clear lungs
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41
Q

RV infarct treatment

A
  • volume loading if hypotension persists
  • inotropic support w dopamine or dobutamine
  • NO nitrates or diuretics
  • all other tx MI-thrombolytic, PCI as indicated
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42
Q

clinical features of constrictive pericarditis

A

rigid pericardium> impaired cardiac filling

  • gradual onset dyspnea
  • pedal edema
  • ascites hepatomegaly, incr JVP
  • kussmal sign
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43
Q

causes of constrictive pericarditis

A
  • TB, viral
  • prior cardiac surgery,radiation
  • collagen vasc disorders
  • uremia
  • malignancy
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44
Q

diagnosis of constrictive pericarditis

  • EKG: low voltage
  • CXR: may see pericardial calcification
A
  • ECHO,CT/MRI-pericardial thickening
  • heart cath-**see equalization of diastolic pressures in ALL chambers and ventricular pressure tracing show dip & plateau “square root sign”
  • TX: surgical stripping of pericardium
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45
Q

clinical features of cardiac tamponade, rapid onset of:

A
  • dyspnea
  • hypotension
  • tachycardia
  • paradoxical pulse
  • distant heart sounds, incr JVP
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46
Q

causes of cardiac tamponade

A
  • previous pericarditis

* cardiac trauma of any kind- including perforation during cath or pacer placement

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47
Q

DX cardiac tamponade

A
  • EKG: low voltage, ELECTRICAL ALTERNANS w large effusion
  • CXR: enlarged heart
  • ECHO: see effusion and RA & RV collapse in diastole
  • CATH: equalizaion of diastolic pressures in all 4 chambers
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48
Q

TX cardiac tamponade

A
  • pericardiocentesis

* IV volume expansion

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49
Q

Acute MI caused by

A
  • plaque rupture of pre-existing 30-50% stenosis of the artery>mural thrombi>complete occlusion>MI
  • *slowly developing high grade stenosis DOES NOT precipitate acute MI
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50
Q

Inferior coronary ischemia

A

*II,III,aVF

right coronary artery

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51
Q

anteroseptal coronary ischemia

A

*V2-V4

LAD

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52
Q

anterior coronary ischemia

A

V3-V5

LAD

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53
Q

lateral coronary ischemia

A

V5-V6

LAD or circumflex

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54
Q

posterior coronary ischemia

A

V1,V2 (reciprocal)

right coronary artery

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55
Q

right ventricular coronary ischemia

A

V3R, V4R

right coronary artery

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56
Q

exercise stress-bruce protocol

A

*5 stages- 3 minutes each w slope and speed changes

POSITIVE: >/= 1mm ST depression lasts >/= .08seconds flat or downsloping

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57
Q

stress testing-poor prognostic factors:

  • > 2mm ST depression at 5min post exercise
  • fall in systolic BP >10-15 mm
A
  • global changes -change in anterior & inferior leads
  • ventricular ectopic beats
  • ST segment elevation
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58
Q

exercise stress testing- absolute contraindications

  • severe aortic stenosis
  • recent MI
  • unstable angina-within 48hours
A
  • uncontrolled arrhythmia
  • decompensated heart failure
  • acute aortic dissection
  • acute pulmonary embolism
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59
Q

When to stop the stress test

A
  • achieved predicted HR (200-age)
  • severe angina
  • development of >2mm ST depression
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60
Q

indications for radionuclide myocardial perfusion imaging

thallium, sestamibi, tetrafosmin (myoview)

A
  • WPW syndrome
  • digitalis effect
  • baseline ST depression >1mm
  • LVH w strain
  • prior CABG or coronary interventions
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61
Q

pharmacologic stress test

A

*for those that cant exercise-COPD, arthritis, PAD

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62
Q

adenosine or dipyridamole stress test

A

best for: LBBB, pacemaker

Contraindications: COPD, asthma, elevated BP, sick sinus, high grade heart block

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63
Q

dobutamine stress test

A

best for :COPD, asthma

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64
Q

Medical tx of angina

  • *beta blockers-BEST initial therapy
  • calcium channel blocker-best if Beta B contraindicated
  • nitrates - 14 hour dose free interval
A
  • ranolazine-if remain symptomatic on above therapy
  • vasoprotective therapy-all w angina:
  • aspirin, clopidogrel if aspirin allergy
  • statin-LDL goal<35%
  • stop smoking, wt control, exercise
  • omega 3 fatty acid, diet rich fruit, veg,extra virgin olive oil, nuts
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65
Q

Indications for coronary angiography

  • disabling angina symptoms
  • high risk criteria on noninvasive testing
A
  • survivor of sudden cardiac death or serious vent. arrhythmia
  • symptoms/signs of CHF
  • pt who continue to have ischemia in the early postMI or unstable angina setting
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66
Q

PCI-percutaneous coronary intervention

  • *does NOT reduce future cardiovascular events
  • reduces frequency and severity of angina
  • does NOT improve survival
A

*reserved for those who remain symptomatic despite optimal medical tx except for pt w significant silent ischemia on stress testing

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67
Q

aspirin + clopidogrel

A

should be given together for a minimum of 1 year after drug eluding stent and 1 month after bare metal stent
*ASA used indefinately after stent placement

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68
Q

indications for CABG

A
  • left main disease >/= 50%
  • 3 vessel disease >/= 70% (survival benefit is greatest if EF<50%)
  • multivessel CAD in diabetes **CABG is superior to PCI , CABG reduces the rates of death and MI with higher rates of stroke
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69
Q

ACS-acute coronary syndrome

A
  • STEMI
  • NSTEMI
  • unstable angina
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70
Q

STEMI

A

ST elevation

elevated troponin & CK-MB

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71
Q

NSTEMI

A

ST segmant depression and T wave inversion

elevated troponin & CK-MB

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72
Q

unstable angina

A

nonspecific EKG changes

normal troponin and CK-MB

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73
Q

duration of clopidogrel therapy

A
  • minimum of one year with:
  • no stent
  • bare or drug eluding stent
  • CABG
  • ASA indefinately
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74
Q

Unstable angina

*angina at rest or minimal exertion, usually lasts >10 minutes

A
  • new onset of severe angina within the prior 4-6 weeks
  • recent increase in frequency and/or intensity of chronic angina

**if enzymes are +: NSTEMI

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75
Q

Unstable angina or NSTEMI

  • HIGH RISK: coronary angiography indicated in 24-48 hours
  • presence of any of these risk factors:
  • new ST segment depression
  • elevated troponin or CK MB
A
  • recurrent angina at rest or low level activity despite rx
  • strong + stress test
  • CHF symptoms or EF/= 3
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76
Q

TIMI risk score (>/= 3 is high risk)

  • age 65 or greater
  • 3 or more traditional CAD risk factors
  • ASA use in past week
A
  • documented CAD w 50%or greater stenosis
  • severe angina, 2 or more episodes within 24 hours
  • ST segmant deviation of .05mV or more\
  • elevated cardiac enzymes
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77
Q

Treatment of unstable angina or NSTEMI

  • ASA
  • clopidogrel or prasugrel or tricagrelor
  • beta blocker
A
  • nitrates
  • LMWH or UFH or fondaparinux
  • statin
  • if HIGH risk: coronary angiography to determine other options
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78
Q

GPI -> GP IIb/IIIa inhibitors

*abciximab, eptifibatide, tirofiban

A

not given before cardiac cath , decision to give these drugs or not is made at PCI

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79
Q

Indications for hospitalization in chest pain:

  • ST elevation on EKG
  • ST depression or T wave inversion on EKG
    • CK MB
A

+ troponin I or T

  • Hx suggestive of unstable angina w normal EKG
  • concurrent CHF, hypotension, or transient mitral regurgitatin
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80
Q

Tx STEMI

  • O2, MS, nitrates, beta blocker, asa and plavix
  • Heparin/LMWH 48 hours
  • ACE-start when the pt is Hemodynamically STABLE
  • high dose statin-atorvastatin 80mg
A
  • cath lab available-Primary PCI is superior to lysis **within 90 minutes “door to balloon”time of initial medicl contact
  • cath NOT available: fibrinolytic within 30 minutes or consider transfer to PCI able hospital
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81
Q

Transfer to primary PCI is favored if:

A
  • door to balloon time < 90 minutes
  • pt presenting >3 hours after onset of symptoms
  • cardiogenic shock
  • high risk of intracranial hemorrhage or bleeding
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82
Q

Indications for fibrinolytic therapy

A
  • acute CP typical of MI
  • EKG criteria of STEMI
  • ST elevation 1mm or more in 2 or more leads in inferior or lateral
  • ST elevation 2mm or more in at least 2 contiguous anterior leads
  • new LBBB
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83
Q

Use fibrinolytic therapy

A

*12 hours (PCI for those with ongoing ischemia or those at high risk)

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84
Q

fibrinolytic agents

A
  • tPA (alteplase), reteplase, tenecteplase, streptokinase(No heparin w streptokinase)
  • give IV heparin for 48 hours if the first 3 above agents are used, maintain PTT 1.5 to 2 X control (50-70)
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85
Q

benefits of fibrinolytic therapy

A
  • decrease infarct size
  • improvement in LV function
  • decrease mortality
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86
Q

bleeding complications of fibrinolytic therapy

A
  • intracerebral bleeding 1% (if occurs mortality 50-65%)

* risk factors:older age, lower body weight, female sex, prior stroke, systolic BP>160

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87
Q

Absolute contraindications to fibrinolysis

  • any prior intracranial hemorrhage
  • known structural cerebral vasc lesion-AV malformation
  • ischemic CVA within 3 months
A
  • known malignant intracranial neoplasm
  • suspected acute aortic dissection
  • active bleeding or bleeding diathesis (EXCLUDES menses)
  • significant closed head injury or facial trauma within 3 months
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88
Q

Relative contraindications fibrinolysis

  • BP >180/110 on presentation
  • prior ischemic stroke >3 months
  • prolonged CPR>10min
A
  • major surgery within 3 weeks
  • internal bleeding within 2-4 weeks
  • pregnancy
  • non compressible vascular punctures
  • active PUD
  • current use of anticoagulants
  • for streptokinase: prior exposure >5 days ago or prior allergic rxn
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89
Q

Feature that suggest successful reperfusion after fibrinolysis

A
  • complete resolution of CP
  • improvement of ST elevation >50% in EKG after 60 minutes
  • development of reperfusion arrhythmias:
  • accelerated idioventricular rhythm
  • PVCs
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90
Q

Indications for coronary angiography after fibrinolytic therapy

A
  • failure of reperfusion (persistent CP and ST elevation >90 min)
  • coronary artery reocclusion (re elevation of ST or recur CP)
  • recurrent angina in the early hospital course
  • positive stress test before discharge
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91
Q

Indications of full dose anticoagulation after STEMI

**UFH or LMWH followed by warfarin for 3-6 months

A
  • severe CHF
  • ventricular thrombus on ECHO
  • large dyskinetic region on anterior wall MI
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92
Q

Indicatons for PCI (angioplasty/stent) in acute STEMI:

  • can be done within 90 minutes
  • contraindications to fibrinolytic therapy
  • cardiogenic shock: SBP20, oliguria
A
  • hypotension and hemodynamic instability
  • pt presents >12 hr after onset of CP w cont CP or ST elevation
  • high risk pt tx initially w fibrinolytics in non PCI hosp transfer for diagnostic cath as soon as possible
  • non high risk pt transfer if ischemic symptoms persist
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93
Q

no benefit of late PCI (after one week) of

A

occluded infarct related artery

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94
Q

treatments that IMPROVE SURVIVAL after MI:

  • fibrinolytic tx or PCI in STEMI
  • ASA,Plavix
  • beta blockers
  • ACE inhibitors-even if normal LV function and normal BP
A
  • anti lipid therapy
  • smoking cessation
  • exercise
  • ICD insertion if EF 30% or less AFTER 30 days of MI
  • eplerenone in EF5)
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95
Q

Cardiovascular complications of Cocaine

A
  • myocardial ischemia and infarction
  • LVH
  • systolic dysfunction & dilated cardiomyopathy
  • reversible profound myocardial depression after binge use
  • cardiac dysrhythmias
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96
Q

First line tx of cocaine induced MI or ischemia

A
  • oxygen
  • nitroglycerine
  • benzodiazepine
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97
Q

second line therapy in cocaine induce MI or ischemia

A
  • verapamil
  • phentolamine
  • coronary angiography if conservative tx fails
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98
Q

agents to AVOID in cocaine induced MI or ischemia

A
  • **Beta blockers ***increase vasoconstriction induced by cocaine!
  • thrombolytics not routinely used
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99
Q

HOPE trial

A
  • Ramipril (ACE)
  • reduces risk of MI, CVA,death from CV dz in pt with known vascular disease (CAD, PVD, CVA) or diabetes and one additional risk factor
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100
Q

Heart protection study

A
  • statins
  • in patients at high risk of coronary event, simvastatin reduces risk of death, MI, CVA irrespective of cholesterol levels
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101
Q

Courage trial

A

*PCI in stable CAD does NOT reduce risk of death, MI or other major CV event even when added to optimal medical therapy

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102
Q

complications of PCI

A
  • mortality 0.1-0.3%
  • periprocedural MI 5-30%
  • stent thrombosis
  • restenosis
  • bleeding
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103
Q

recurrent CP with ST elevation lasting 20-30 minutes. no exertional CP

A
  • prinzmetal angina
  • no beta blockers
  • tx: acute: sublingual NTG, long term tx: nitrate or calcium channel blocker
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104
Q

a patient w anterior wall MI, EF 30%, LDL 140, what medications the pt should be discharged on?

A 
ASA
B blocker
statin
ACE
plavix x 1 year
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105
Q

elderly pt admitted w syncope and normal EKG on admission. after meals he feels dizzy and EKG shows ST elevation in II, III, AVF that lasts for 20 minutes. what does this indicate?

A

needs angiography

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106
Q

on 6th day after MI, patient lapses into coma, no pulse but EKG shows RSR

A

*cardiac rupture and pt in PEA

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107
Q

inferior wall MI + RBBB, what artery is involved?

A

right coronary

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108
Q

severe dyspnea on day 5 after MI with decreased BP, increased JVP, ECHO shows RV collapse in diastole. what is problem

A
  • cardiac tamponade
  • pericardialcentesis
  • stop anticoagulants
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109
Q

acute STEMI with SOA, BP 100/70, incr JVP,, crackles midway up both lungs. what drug is contraindicated?

A
  • beta blocker

* pt in frank heart failure with acute MI-NO BB’s given in this case

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110
Q

low back pain after cardiac cath with drop in HCT indicates

A

retroperitoneal hematoma

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111
Q

stable angina, 75% stenosis of circumflex, LDL 140. how should this patient be treated?

A

medical therapy

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112
Q

what to do if patient develops recurrent angina 2 weeks after acute MI?

A

cardiac cath

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113
Q

what is the initial treatment of a pt w second degree Mobitz II heart block after acute inferior MI?

A

atropine IV to increase vagal tone

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114
Q

how to treat a patient who develops broad complex regular tachycardia at rate of 100 after fibrinolytic therapy

A

observe

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115
Q

how to treat frequent PVCs within 24 hours after MI?

A

no tx

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116
Q

how to treat sustained VT or VF WITHIN 48 hours after MI?

A

amiodarone or procainamide if stable, if unstable cardiovert of defibrillate

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117
Q

how to treat sustained VT or VF 48 hour AFTER MI?

A

EP studies and ICD insertion

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118
Q

after an acute anterior MI, pt has SBP 70, confusion, poor urine output. right heart cath shows PCW of 22, cardiac index 1.4. how to treat?

A

pt in cardiogenic shock

*tx PCI or CABG so needs to go to cath lab to determine

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119
Q

how to evaluate exertional CP in pt with coronary stent?

A

exercise nuclear stress test

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120
Q

what are the neurological complications after CABG?

A

neurocognitive dysfunction

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121
Q

treatment of AF that is assoc w hemodynamic instability, pulmonary edema, unstable angina

A

urgent cardioversion

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122
Q

tx of AF in pt that is stable

A
  • slow heart rate w beta blocker, calcium channel blocker (diltiazem or verapamil), digoxin or combo
  • if AF persists-rate control and warfarin
  • if persists and need rhythm control, 48 hr need heparin & TEE before cardioversion
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123
Q

management of AF

  • rate control and chronic anticoagulation is recommended strategy for most patients, rhythm control is not superior to rate control.
  • all need long term anticoag w warfarin unless contraindication
A
  • 2 strategies to cardioversion
  • short term antigoag w heparin and cardioversion if TEE w no thrombus
  • 3 weeks of warfarin then cardioversion
  • if convert to sinus, rhythm maint meds not used in most
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124
Q

CHADS2 scoring

A 
CHF (any hx of it) or EF<35%   1 point
HTN (prior hx)    1 point
age 75 or older  1 point
diabetes  1 point
prior CVA,TIA, systemic embolic event  2 points
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125
Q

CHADS2 scoring and tx for AF

A

score 0: no rx or ASA
score 1: ASA or anticoagulant tx
score 2 or more: anticoagulant tx

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126
Q

anticoagulant therapy for AF

A
  • warfarin INR 2-3
  • pradaxa (dabigatran) direct thrombin inhibitor, 150mg BID
  • xarelto (rivaroxaban) factor Xa inhibitor, 20mg daily
  • eliquis (apixaban) factor Xa inhibitor 5mg BID
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127
Q

surgery in AF pt on warfarin

*LOW risk: CHADS2 score 0-2, interruption

A
  • HIGH risk: CHADS2 score 5-6, recent CVA/TIA, mech.mitral valve or rheumatic valve dz
  • stop warfarin 5 days before procedure
  • brige w LMWH or other starting 3 days before procedure
  • resume LMWH 24hr p minor surg, 488-72hr major surg
  • warfarin restart 122-24hr after surgery
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128
Q

AVNRT-AV nodal reentrant tachycardia

*antegrade conduction by slow pathway and retrograde conduction by fast pathway

A
  • TX:
  • vagal
  • adenosine, if no response-verapamil
  • maintenance-BB,digoxin, verapamil, flecainide, propafenone
  • recurrent-radiofreq. ablation
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129
Q

atrial tachycardia

  • originates site in atria other than the SA node
  • rate 140-250
A

*causes: dig toxic, pulmonary dz, prior cardiac surgery
*Tx: slow rate w BB, diltiazem or verapamil
attempt conversion w procainamide, or amiodarone
recur-cardioversion or catheter ablation

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130
Q

atrial flutter

*HR 250-350, vent.rate usually 150

A

*tx:same as a fib

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131
Q

WPW syndrome

*short PR interval, wide QRS complex, delta waves

A
  • indications for EP study and catheter ablation
  • AF, A flutter or SVT
  • unexplained syncope
  • recur palpitations
  • No tx for asymptomatic WPW
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132
Q

Wide complex tachycardia

**DO NOT use verapamil

A 
TX:
-IV amiodarone or procainamide
-cardioversion if hemodynamic compromise
-pulseless-defib
ICD for hemodynam. impt sustained VT and structural heart dz
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133
Q

Torsades de Pointes-causes (QT prolongation)

  • antiarrhythmic drugs
  • metabolic: hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypocalcemia, hypothyroidism
  • psychotropic drugs
A
  • antihistamines
  • antibiotics
  • congenital QT prolongation
  • starvation, anorexia, liquid protein diet, cisapride
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134
Q

Tx torsades de pointes

A
  • IV magnesium even if Mg is normal
  • stop offending drugs
  • over drive pacing
  • lidocaine or bretylium can be used
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135
Q

antiarrhythmic drugs

  • IA-quinidine, procainamide, disopyramide
  • IB-lidocaine, tocainide, mexilene
  • IC-flecanide, propafenone
  • II-beta blockers
A

*III-amiodarone, dronedarone, bretylium, sotalol, ibutilide, dofetilide
*IV-verapamil, diltiazem
Other-digoxin, adenosine

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136
Q

toxicity of antiarrhythmic drugs

A

all can cause proarrhythmic effect EXCEPT: BB & CCB

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137
Q

toxicity of quinidine

A

thrombocytopenia

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138
Q

potential toxicity of procainamide

A

SLE

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139
Q

potential toxicities of amiodarone

A
  • pulmonary fibrosis
  • NASH
  • hypo or hyperthyroidism
  • increase warfarin action
  • increase digoxin levels
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140
Q

potential digoxin toxicity

A
  • hyperkalemia
  • hypotension
  • renal failure
  • altered mental status
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141
Q

Indications for permanent pacemakers

  • alternating BBB
  • symptomatic complete or 2nd degree AV block-Mobitz 1 or 2
  • asymptomatic complete heart block with HR<40
A
  • sinus pauses
  • symptomatic bifascicular block
  • neurocardiogenic syncope w >3 second pauses induced by minimal carotid sinus pressure
  • AF w pauses >5 seconds
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142
Q

causes of syncope

A
  • neurally mediated-vasovagal
  • orthostatic-drug induced
  • autonomic nerv. system-diabetes, parkinsons
  • cardiac syncope
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143
Q

causes of cardiac syncope (6mo mortality >10%)

  • CAD
  • cardiomyopathy
  • valvular heart disease
  • tachy or bradyarrhythmias
A
  • genetic (family hx syncope or sudden death)
  • familial dilated cardiomyopathy, WPW, QT syndromes
  • arrhythmogenic RV cardiomyopathy
  • brugada syndrome
  • catecholalaminergic polymorphic VT
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144
Q

diagnosis of cardiac syncope

A
  • implantable loop recorder-greatest diagnostic yield and cost effectiveness
  • EKG,ECHO,stress test, tilt table, event and holter monitors
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145
Q

Long QT syndrome

  • QTC >460ms males, >440ms female
  • incr risk torsades
  • syncope and sudden death can occur
  • emotional & physical stress or loud noise can trigger sync/death
A

TX

  • Beta blocker, if ineffective> BB + ICD w dual chamber pacing
  • no participation in athletic activities
  • ICD for recurrent syncope, cardiac arrest or sustained VT
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146
Q

Brugada Syndrome

*EKG: incomplete RBBB, coved ST elevation lead V1 to V3
these patterns can be intermittent and makes dx difficult

A
  • hx of syncope increases risk of sudden death due to polymorphic VT
  • ICD placement for recurrent syncope
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147
Q

Radiofrequency ablation is indicated for

A
  • recurrent SVT-all types
  • WPW syndrome
  • atrial flutter-type I (II,III, aVF)
  • control of vent rate in A fib
  • idiopathic ventricular tachycardia
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148
Q

First degree heart block

A
  • PR interval >0.20s

* may be normal or caused by drugs: BB, diltiazem verapamil, digoxin

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149
Q

Second degree Mobitz I - Wenckebach

  • progressive increase in PR interval followed by a drop beat
  • narrow QRS
A

no tx needed

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150
Q

Second degree Mobitz II

  • fixed PR interval with drop beats in 2:1, 3:1, 4:1 fashion
  • QRS usually wide
A
  • may progress suddenly to complete AV block

* needs pacemaker

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151
Q

Third degree heart block - complete AV block

  • no conduction from atrium to ventricle
  • no relation of p wave to QRS
  • usually wide QRS
A
  • vent rate 30-50

* pacemaker needed

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152
Q

CHF - due to systolic dysfunction

A
  • dyspnea, edema
  • increased BNP
  • decreased EF
  • ECHO-dilated ventricles, incr LA size, decr contractility
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153
Q

CHF-due to diastolic dysfunction

  • dyspnea, edema, BNP increased
  • EF normal >50%
A

ECHO: normal contractility, increased LA size, ventricle size normal

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154
Q

treatment of systolic dysfunction CHF

A
  • ACE inhibitors, ARBs
  • diuretics-loop, may need add thiazide, spironolactone in tol.
  • digoxin-decreases hopitalizations
  • B blockers-coreg, metoprolol,bisoprolol
  • vasodilators-hydralazine, isosorbide
  • biventricular pacing, ICD
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155
Q

treatment of diastolic dysfunction CHF

A
  • diuretics
  • ACE,ARBs
  • BB
  • nondihydropyridine calcium blockers
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156
Q

CHF in blacks

A

*Isosorbide + hydralazine added to standard tx in blacks with stage III&IV heart failure reduces mortality

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157
Q

drugs to be AVOIDED IN CHF

A

NSAIDS
TZDs
diltiazem
verapamil

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158
Q

contraindication of beta blockers

A
  • signs of clinically unstable heart failure
  • asthma, COPD
  • HR<100
  • 2nd or 3rd degree heart block
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159
Q

BNP level and interpretation in CHF patient

A

*500 decompensated CHF

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160
Q

to do biventricular pacemaker in pt with heart failure must meet ALL of these criteria (also called cardiac resynchronization therapy)

A
  • NYHA class III-IV symptoms while on optimal therapy
  • QRS of 120 msec or greater
  • EF 35% or less

-this device assoc w 50% reduction in mortality for progressive CHF

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161
Q

Implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD)

A
  • NYHA class II & III on optimal tx and expect to survive >1yr
  • hx hemodynamically stable ventricular arrhythmia-syncope, near syncope, or cardiac arrest
  • ischemic or non isch. cardiomyopathy with EF 35% or less
  • EF 35% or less 40 days out from MI
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162
Q

ACC/AHA heart failure staging

A

A-at risk, no structural disease or symptoms
B-structural dz but no symptoms
C-structural dz w prior or current symptoms
D-refractory symptoms

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163
Q

NYHA functional classes

A

I-asymptomatic
II- slight limitation of physical activity
III-marked limitation of physical activity
IV-inability to perform any physical activity without symptoms

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164
Q

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

  • marked LVH without a cause
  • LV outflow obstruction> mitral regurgitation
  • mutatin, autosomal dominant transmission
  • s/s: dyspnea, angina, syncope, sudden death
A

*cardiac findings
-harsh midsystolic murmur, incr w stand/valsalva
-S4,brisk carotid upstroke, blowing murmur at apex (MR)
EKG:LVH, Qwaves in leads I, aVL, V5-V6

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165
Q

treatment of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

  • BB or nondihydro.CCB or disopyramide
  • pt w outflow obstr or symptoms on pharm therapy
  • dual chamber pacing, percutaneous septal ablation, surgical septal myectomy
A

*see above

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166
Q

Indications for ICD insertion in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

*pt w hx cardiac arrest, sustained VT, hx sudden death in first-degree relative

A
  • nonsustained VT on holter monitor
  • abnl BP response to exercise
  • syncope in young person, family hx of sudden death in 2 or more family members
  • marked ventricular hypertrophy >30mm
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167
Q

things to avoid in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

  • competative sports, alcohol, hot tubs, sauna
  • vasodilators-nitrates, dihydro CCB, hydralazine, ACE/ARBs, minoxidil, sildenafil
A

*positive inotropes:epi, norepi, isoproterenol, dopamine, dobutamine, digoxin

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168
Q

follow up on pt with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A
  • annual exercise stress test & holter monitor

* all first degress relatives should be screened by ECHO every 5 years

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169
Q

signs of severe aortic stenosis

A

+S4
paradoxical splitting of 2nd heart souns
late peaking of murmur

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170
Q

ECHO findings of aortic stenois

A

Moderate AS: mean gradient 25-40, valve area 1-1.5cm2

Severe AS: mean grad >40, valve area <1cm2

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171
Q

clinical features of severe aortic stenosis

A
  • angina, syncope, dyspnea, heart failure
  • acquired deficiency of von Willebrand factor due to stress-dependent cleavage of von W factor (Heydes syndrome)-GI bleeding from submucosal angiodysplasia
172
Q

Indications for aortic valve replacement

A
  • symptomatic pt w severe AS-angina, SOA, syncope
  • asymptomatic pt if: EF4.5cm or annual incr <0.5cm
  • asymptomatic pt w moderate-severe AS undergoing CABG or aortic aortic root reconstruction
173
Q

Normal cardiac measurements

A
  • LVEF >55%

* LVEDD <3.5cm

174
Q

Indications for surgery for severe MR

A
  • symptomatic w EF30%or more and LVESD 55mm or less
  • asymptomatic with: EF60%or less, LVESD 40mm or more
  • PASP 50mm or more at rest or 60 or more w exercise
  • new onset AF or pulm artery hypertension
  • Mitral valve repair if able otherwise MV replacement
175
Q

indications for surgery for severe AR

A
  • symptomatic

* asymptomatic if any of these: EF 55mm, LV diastolic dimension >70mm, PAP increase by 25mm or more after exercise

176
Q

Indications for surgery for Mitral stenosis

A
  • symptomatic with valve area 1.5cm2 or less or PASP of 50mm or more at rest or 60mm or more w exercise
  • asymptomatic w PAP increase of 25mm or more after exercise
  • percutaneous valvotomy is best if can and less than moderate MR present and no clot by TEE, others valve replaced
177
Q

types of prosthetic cardiac valves

A
  • biological

* mechanical-more durable

178
Q

anticoagulation after valve replacement

A
  • warfarin + aspirin 100mg x 3 month any type valve
  • biologic valve and low risk pt, can discontinue coumadin but take aspirin for life
  • mechanical valve-coumadin + asa indefinately, aortic valve INR2-3, mitral valve 2.5-3.5 INR
179
Q

bridge anticoagulation prior to surgery

  • indicated for mitral valve
  • indicated for aortic valve if other risk factors present:
A
  • A fib, prior thromboembolism, LV systolic dysfunction
  • hypercoagulable condition, older generation mech. valve
  • more than one mech valve, prosthetic valve that is not a bileaflet mech valve
  • in low risk, coumadin stop 48-72 hr before and restart 24hr after
180
Q

Indications for endocarditis prophylaxis

  • prosthetic heart valves-bioprosthetic and homograft valves
  • prior hx of endocarditis
  • unrepaired cyanotic congenital heart defects
A
  • completely repaired congenital heart defect w prosthetic material or device during the first 6 months after the procedure
  • repaired congenital heart dz w residual defects at the site or adjacent to the site of the prosthetic device
  • cardiac valvulopathy in a transplanted heart
181
Q

Conditions not requiring prophylaxis

A
  • acquired valvular heart dz
  • MVP w or without MR, thickened or redundant leaflets
  • bicuspid aortic valve
  • hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
  • 6 mo after repair of congenital heart defect
182
Q

Procedures requiring prophylaxis

  • all dental procedures where involvement of gingival tissue or periapical region of teeth or perforation of oral mucosa
  • resp procedures that involve incision or bx of resp mucosa-tonsils, adenoids, bronchoscopy w biopsy
A
  • GI/GU procedures only w active GI/GU infection
  • procedures on infected skin, skin structures or musculoskeletal tissue
  • surgery to place prosthetic heart valve or prosthetic intravascular or intracardiac material
183
Q

dental procedures not requiring prophylaxis

A
  • routine anesthetic injections
  • dental xrays
  • placement and removal of orthodontic appliances or adjustments of those, or placement of braces
184
Q

respiratory procedures not requiring prophylaxis

A
  • intubation
  • bronchoscopy without biopsy
  • tympanostomy tube placement
185
Q

GI procedures not requiring prophylaxis

A
  • TEE

* endoscopy with or without biopsy

186
Q

GU procedures not requiring prophylaxis

*vaginal delivery or c sections

A

*in UNINFECTED tissue:

foley cath, D&C, therapeutic abortion, sterilization procedures. insertion/removal of IUD

187
Q

other procedures not requiring prophylaxis

A
  • heart cath, angioplasty, pacemaker , defibrillator insertion, coronary stents
  • circumcision
  • piercings and tattoos
188
Q

standard regimen for endocarditis prophylaxis
*dental or respiratory: amox 2 gm 30-60 min prior to procedure or ampicillin 2gm IV/IM or cefazolin or ceftriaxone 1 gm IV/IM
PCN allergy: clindamycin 600mg po, cefalexin 2 gm po, or azith or clarithromycin 500mg po

A
  • GU/GI at time of active infection
  • amox 2gm po or ampicillin 2gm IV/IM
  • PCN allergy-vanco 1-2gm over 1-2 hrs
  • if PCN causes anaphylaxis, angioedema or urticaria-avoid cephalosporins
189
Q

PFO-patent foramen ovale

  • remains patent in up to 30% of population
  • suspect in young pt w cryptogenic stroke
  • stroke more common if PFO assoc w atrial septal aneurysm
  • incr risk severe decompression syndrome
A
  • best diagnostic test: TEE w saline injection to show R-L shunt
  • consider closure if recurrent stroke
190
Q

Causes of acute pericarditis

A
  • idiopathic 80+%
  • infectious-viral TB bacterial
  • acute MI,aortic dissection, trauma, chest radiation, card.surgery
  • neoplasm, uremia, autoimmune dz
  • drugs:dantrolene,doxorubicin, hydralazine,INH,procainamide,phenytoin
191
Q

Poor prognostic factors with acute pericarditis

  • Temp >38
  • subacute onset-several weeks
  • cardiac tamponade
A
  • immunocompromised
  • hx oral anticoagulants
  • trauma
  • myopericarditis
  • large pericardial effusion (echo free space >20mm)
192
Q

Treatment of acute pericarditis

  • ASA or NSAID+colchicine
  • steroids if no response to above
A
  • pericardiocentesis-if pericardial tamponade or suspect purulent or neoplastic pericarditis
  • recur rate 15-30%
193
Q

Best prophylaxis for recurrent pericarditits

A

colchicine

194
Q

definition of primary pulmonary hypertension

A

*mean PA pressure >25mm at rest or >30mm with exercise

increase incidence in women age 40-50

195
Q

Clinical features of primary pulmonary hypertension

  • gradual onset of dyspnea
  • incr JVP with prominent a waves
  • edema
  • loud P2
A
  • EKG: RV hypertrophy, right axis deviation
  • ECHO: RV and RA enlargement , RVH, TR
  • PFT: nl or mild restrictive
  • lung scan: diffuse patchy defects
  • spiral CT-may be needed to determine PPH from PE
196
Q

complications of primary pulmonary hypertension

A
  • RV failure

* sudden death

197
Q

treatment of primary pulm hypertension (PPH)

A
  • diuretics, nifedipine, sildenafil
  • warfarin, INR 2-3
  • oral bosentan-endothelial receptor antagonist
  • IV epoprostenol-refractory
  • lung transplant
198
Q

Causes of pulmonary artery hypertension

  • primary
  • collagen vasc dz:CREST,scleroderma, SLE,RA
  • cardiac L to R shunts: ASD,VSD, PDA
  • HIV
A
  • drugs and toxins
  • pulm venous hypertension: LV dysfxn, L side valve dz
  • hypoxemic lung dz: COPD, interstitial lung dz, sleep apnea, obesity, hypoventilation syndrome, chronic pulmonary thromboembolic disease
199
Q

diagnostic work up for pulmonary artery HTN

A

ANA, HIV, TSH
ECHO
PFT
CT chest

200
Q

clinical features aortic dissection

A
  • sudden onset severe anterior or posterior chest pain
  • obstr of branches of aorta may lead to :
  • MI, CVA, unequal carotid or brachial pulses
  • acute AR -> CHF
201
Q

types of aortic dissection

A

type A-ascending aorta

type B-limited to transverse or descending aorta

202
Q

causes of aortic dissection

A
  • HTN
  • marfan syndrome
  • Ehlers-danlos syndrome
  • coarctation, bicuspid aortic valve
  • 3rd trimester pregnancy
203
Q

treatment of aortic dissection

A
  • lower SBP 100-120 with IV beta blockers (HR 60) + IV nitroprusside followed by oral therapy
  • surgery for type A w ascending aorta involvement
204
Q

diagnosis of peripheral artery disease

*ABI-systolic ankle pressure/brachial pressure measured by doppler

A

1-1.3 normal
.91-.99 borderline
.41-.90 mild-moderate
<.40 severe

205
Q

PAD- location of claudication and site of disease

A
  • buttock-aortoiliac dz
  • thigh-common femoral
  • upper calf- superficial femoral
  • lower calf- popliteal
206
Q

PAD-risk factor modification

A
  • treat hypertension and elevated lipids
  • quit smoking
  • supervised exercise program **most effective therapy of claudication
207
Q

PAD- pharmacological therapy

A
  • antiplatelet agents: ASA or clopidogrel

* pletal (cilostazole), ginko biloba, statin, ramipril

208
Q

PAD-revascularization

A
  • for lifestyle-limiting claudication or to salvage a threatened limb
  • angioplasty-for short-segment stenosis in large caliber vessel
  • surgery-preferred for popliteal & tibial arteries or multivessel dz
209
Q

abdominal aneurysm screening

A
  • one time screening w ultrasound for men ages 65-75 who have ever smoked
  • men 60 or older w first degree relative w abdominal aortic aneurysm
210
Q

Indications for surgery for abdominal aneurysm

A
  • size 5.5cm or larger or rate of expansion >.5cm/yr
  • symptomatic aneurysm of any size
  • semiannual screen for asymptomatic aneurysm >4cm
211
Q

Indications for surgery for thoracic aneurysm

  • symptomatic: dysphagia, back pain, hoarseness
  • dissection
A
  • ascending aortic diameter >50-60mm
  • descending aortic diameter >60-70mm
  • descending aortic diameter 70mm or more in pt w high surgical risk
  • rapid growth 10mm or more in a year in aneurysm <50mm
212
Q

monitoring of thoracic aneurysm in pts dont meet criteria for repair

A

*serial CTor MRI

213
Q

Athletic heart

  • physiological increase in LV thickness, cavity size in response to intensive endurance training.
  • ECHO:symmetric LVH, wall thickness<12mm, LA size & filling pattern is normal
A 
EKG: sinus bradycardia
         sinus arrest
         wandering pacemaker
         Mobitz I
         no Q waves or deep T wave inversion, incr QRS voltage
214
Q

superficial thrombophlebitis-clinical features

A

*erythema
*tenderness and edema along involved vein
TX:local heat, elevation, NSAID, compression stockings

215
Q

superficial thrombophlebitis-indications for ultrasound

A
  • involvement of saphenous vein
  • evidence of clinical extension
  • edema of leg > than expected
  • if diagnosis is uncertain
216
Q

Risk factors for extension to deep veins with superficial thrombophlebitis

  • more than 5cm of superficial thrombophlebitis
  • location close to deep system-5cm or less from saphenofemoral/saphenopopliteal junction
A

*medical risk factors for DVT

217
Q

rhythm-normal

A

Pwaves upright in II,aVF and inverted in aVR
each QRS preceded by p wave
PR interval is constant

218
Q

long PR interval

A

first degree AV block

219
Q

short PR interval

A

WPW

nodal rhythm

220
Q

widened QRS interval (.06-.1s)

A 
LBBB
RBBB
VPCs
hyperkalemia
quinidine toxicity
221
Q

Prolonged QT interval

A

congenital
hypokalemia
hypocalcemia
drugs

222
Q

normal axis

A

lead I +

lead aVF +

223
Q

right axis

A

lead I -

lead aVF +

224
Q

left axis

A

lead I +

lead aVF -

225
Q

ST elevation seen in

A

MI
pericarditis
coronary spasm

226
Q

inverted T waves seen in

A 
MI
ventricular strain
increased intracranial pressure (subarachnoid bleed)
digitalis effect
hypokalemia, hypocalcemia
227
Q

infarction

A

ST elevation
T inversion
Q waves

228
Q

Ischemia

A

ST depression or symmetric T wave inversion

229
Q

Pericarditis EKG

A

diffuse ST elevation w concavity upward

absence of reciprocal changes and t wave inversions

230
Q

Hypokalemia EKG

A

prominent U wave
ST depression and T wave inversion
prominent P waves in II, III, aVF

231
Q

44 y/o white male hx exertional dyspnea w minimal activity for a few weeks. known idiopathic congestive cardiomyopathy for one year, meds: dig, lasix, ace, coreg, spironolactone. EKG-LBBBw QRS duraton 140ms. ECHO: EF 22%, marked LV enlargement, severe systolic dysfxn, recommend?

A

biventricular pacemaker and ICD insertion

232
Q

50 y/o male seen for annual exam, has S3, midsystolic click followed by systolic murmur that radiates to axilla, louder w standing. ECHO-severe MR and prolapse of posterior mital valve leaflet. LVED diameter 52mm and EF 46%. recommend?

A

Mitral valve surgery

233
Q

40y/o asymptomatic female routine exam. extremities brisk distal pulses w “pistol shot” heard w auscultation over peripheral arteries, early decrescendo diastolic murmur LLSB, ECHO-severe AR. EF 40%, recommend?

A

aortic valve replacement

234
Q

16 y/o male has 4/6 holosystolic murmur LLSB. does not change with respiration, increases w hand grip. likely diagnosis?

A

VSD

235
Q

45 y/o male sudden onset L hemiparesis. hx low grade fever, wt loss, exertional dyspnea , few episodes of sudden syncope for past few weeks. BP 130/80, weak L arm & leg. heart-loud P2, low pitch early diastolic sound & apical syst. murmur that changes w positon. Hgb 9, sed rate 90. likely diagnosis?

A

atrial myxoma

236
Q

20 y/o male on basketball team routine exam. HR 50, BP 110/70, soft S3 and grade I syst ejection murmur LLSB, decreases w standing and valsalva, incr after exercise. EKG: Mild LVH sinus brady and sinus arrest w pause up to 1 second. ECHO normal. recommend?

A

no tx needed

237
Q

16 y/o female w recurrent LOC, most recent w awakening by alarm clock. exam HR 60, BP 120/80, no neuro deficits. heart exam normal. EKG shows prolonged QT interval. most impt question to ask her

A

if there is history of sudden death in the family

238
Q

64 y/o pt w one month hx of exertional CP and 2 episodes of syncope after exertion in last 2 weeks. exam: HR&BP good . S4+ and grade 3 ejection m LLSB and aortic area. and radiates to carotids and decr intensity w standing. ECHO: 40mm gradient aortic valve and mild LVH. recommend?

A

Coronary angiography then aortic valve replacement

239
Q

26 y/o male to ER w palpitations of 2 hours. exam HR 170, BP 110/70, regular cannon waves on JVP w each heart beat . EKG shows narrow complex SVT. now recommend?

A

IV adenosine

240
Q

exam of the heart in a pt w WPW will show

A

loud S1

241
Q

54 y/o black male w long hx HTN presents w 2 hr hx severe CP radiating to back. right carotid pulse is weaker, early diastolic mumur LLSB. EKG: LVH, ST elevation II,III, aVF. CXR: widening of the mediastinum. now recommend?

A

IV beta blockers

242
Q

52 y/o white male w recur attacks of CP on exertion for 3 months. last a few min and are relieved by rest. exam normal, resting EKG normal. exercise stress: 3mm horizontal ST depression lasting >.08s in leads V2-5 w 4th minute of Bruce protocol and HR is 90. test stopped . ST depression persists 10 min p exercise, no CP during the test. now recommend?

A

cardiac cath

243
Q

26 y/o male w brief syncopal episode while playing football. denies any SOA, Palpitations or CP. Exam: S4+, grade 4 crescendo-decrescendo syst. murmur LSB. louder w stand and valsalva. decreases w squatting. likely diagnosis?

A

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

244
Q

16 y/o male routine exam. no complaints. very active-football. exam: S2 wide split no change w respiration, grade 2 mid-syst. murmur pulmonary area and mid-diastolic murmur LLSB. likely diagnosis?

A

ASD

EKG-may see RBBB
CXR- prominent pulm artery, large RV

245
Q

46 y/o male ICU acute anteroseptal MI. thrombolytics given, IV NTG,heparin, propranolol, asa. 3rd day sudden SOA. exam-rales both lungs, loud grade 4 holosystolic murmur LSB. does not change w respiration. Swan: RA,RV,PCW pressures all increased, O2 sats: RA 72%, RV 84%, PA 85%. likely diagnosis?

A

rupture of interventricular septum

246
Q

42 y/o male w severe substernal CP x 2 hours. nausea & diaphoresis. exam: jugular venous engorgement w + kussmauls sign, BP 82/60, HR 90, +S4, no murmur. CXR-clear lungs. EKG: inferior MI. swan: pressures normal, except RA incr at 18. sats equal. tx

A

volume loading

thrombolytics

247
Q

68 y/o female confused, disoriented. no hx available, exam HR 100, BP 80/60, T99, marked confusion, Hgb 9.5,wbc 12K, bun/cr 40/1.8, cxr normal. swan pressures all normal but SVR is decreased. likely cause of shock?

A

septic shock

248
Q

38 y/o female w 4 mo hx fatigue, incr SOA, ankle edema, abdominal swelling, born in China, here for 3 years. exam: engorged jugular veins, +kussmauls, 2+ ankle edema, 2+ ascites, enlarged liver, sharp early 3rd heart sound CXR-incr pulm marking EKG: low voltage limb leads. ECHO: incr RA&RV pressure incr PCW pressure. now recommend?

A

surgical stripping of pericardium

249
Q

42 y/o male progressive SOA and marked weakness x 3days. hx chronic RF on dialysis x 1 year. exam: BP 86/70, syst pressure drop to 66 after deep inspiration, engorg. neck veins, HR 100 and paradoxical pulse of 20mm. EKG low voltage limb leads. ECHO pericard effusion w RV collapse, CXR cardiomegaly, lungs clear. R heart cath:RA,RV,PA,PCW pressures incr, recommend?

A

pericardiocentesis

250
Q

32 y/o female progressive SOA for 6 hours. exam-mod resp distress, BP 130/80, HR 100, lungs rales b/l to mid lungs. +S3 +S4, loud grade 4 pansystolic murmur at apex. decr intensity w inspiration. R heart cath all pressures increased, dx and tx

A

Acute mitral regurg

IV nitroprusside to get stable then surgical consult

251
Q

55 y/o male recurrent CP w exertion, exam unremarkable, EKG normal. exercise stress: 3mm horizontal ST depression anterior leads stage 2 Bruce and HR 100. test terminated due to CP. ST depression persists 10min p exercise. coronary angiogram : triple vessel dz w EF 32% recommend?

A

CABG

** 3 vessel disease and low EF => surgery

252
Q

50 y/o black male w acute inferior MI, 10 min after completion of thrombolytics he has slight nausea and EKG shows short run of wide complex rhythm. best approach?

A

observe

253
Q

44 y/omale has acute anterior wall MI tx w thrombolytics, heparin, asa , propranolol. hosp course is uncomplicated. stress test shows no ischemia and EF 52%. night before discharge, rhythm on monitoring shows short run of v tach, now recommend?

A

discharge on asa and propranolol

254
Q

44 y/o female passes out at home and presents to ER. recently started on quinidine for control of premature beats found on holter monitor. she is alert and VSS. EKG is normal. one hour later its noted she has torsades de point. recommend?

A
  • stop quinidine
  • give magnesium
  • atrial or ventricular over drive pacing
255
Q

72 y/o female w SOA. Hx HTN on HCTZ many years. BP 180/100, HR 110, engorg neck veins, rales to mid scapula b/l.+S3, +S4 EKG: LVH. CXR pulm edema initially tx w IV diuretics w improvement in symptoms, now recommend?

A

B blocker

256
Q

54 y/o pt has grade 2 syst ejection murmur and grade 3 early diastolic murmur . ECHO: severe AR with mild LV dilation, EF 56% now recommend?

A

medical follow up and repeat ECHO and gated blood pool study in one year

257
Q

drugs shown to improve survival after MI

A

aspirin
B blockers
thrombolytic tx

258
Q

drugs capable of causing the proarrhythmic effect

A

quinidine
procainamide
sotalol

259
Q

digoxin trial showed

A
  • works well in a fib w RVR w heart failure if unable to take BB
  • shown to decrease hospitalizations
  • withdrawal of digoxin is detrimental
260
Q

SOLVD trial - enalapril

A

DECREASES: death, hospitalizations, CHF

261
Q

carvedilol study

A

decreases mortality

decreases cardiovascular hospitalizations

262
Q

2 FDA drugs approved in Heart failure

A

coreg-target 25mb BID

toprol XL - target 200mg/d

263
Q

AHEFT trial

A

combination Isosorbide dinitrate & hydralazine:

increases survival of african americans, esp females

264
Q

treatment of symptomatic a fib

A

anticoagulate
control rate
AV node ablation & permanent pacemaker
improves EF and quality of life

265
Q

CHADS2 of 1 or less

A

can use ASA alone in a. fib

266
Q

CHADS2 of 2 or more

A

tx a fib with coumadin or pradaxa

267
Q

pradaxa

A

inhibits thrombin so less hemorrhage risk except if hx GI bleed
decreases strokes by 34% over coumadin

268
Q

medication contraindicated in right ventricular infarct

A

NTG

269
Q

treatment of right ventricular infarct

A

volume expansion

if not successful-dobutamine

270
Q

think RV infarction in patient with

A

inferior wall MI-ST elevation II, III, aVF
hypotension
+JVD
CLEAR lungs

271
Q

indications for urgent CABG in STEMI

A
  • persistent ischemia w signif heart muscle at risk and cant do PCI or fibrinolytics
  • failed primary coronary intervention
  • cardiogenic shock <age 75w ST elev, LBBB, post MI within 36hrs of STEMI and surgery within 18 hours of shock
  • lifethreatening ventricular arrhy w 50% or greater L main or 3 vessel disease
272
Q

fibrinolysis for STEMI preferred if

A

less than 3 hours onset of symptoms and invasive tx not available
door to balloon > 90minutes or
door to needle >60 minutes

273
Q

primary coronary intervention for STEMI- always better outcome than thrombolytics especially if:

A
  • door to balloon time 3 hours from onset of symptoms

* diagnosis is in doubt

274
Q

high risk unstable angina:

  • ischemic discomfort >20 minutes
  • ongoing rest pain
  • accelerated tempo of ischemia
A
  • exam: pulm edema, S3, new MR murmur, hypotension, brady or tachycardia, age >75
  • EKG: transcient ST-Tchanges >0.05mV, new BBB, new sustained VT
  • cardiac markers increased
275
Q

7 independent predictors-risk score unstable angina:

  • 3 or more CAD risk factors
  • ASA used in past 7 days
  • known CAD w stenosis of 50% or more
A
  • 2 or more angina events in past 24 hours
  • ST segment deviation >0.5mm
  • elevated cardiac markers-CK-MB or troponin
276
Q

bare metal stents

A

use if poor compliant patient
risk of bleeding
non cardiac surgery

277
Q

drug eluding stents

*work by decreasing small muscle hyperplasia-inhibit cell cycle-local effect of stent

A
  • decreases rate of restenosis

* STRICT- MUST take ASA and plavix forever

278
Q

PTCA indicated for patient w 2 or 3 vessel disease with:

A

significant proximal LAD lesion
suitable anatomy
no diabetes
normal LV function

279
Q

Class I indications for aCABG with stable angina

A
  • significant Left Main disease

* 3 vessel disease (survival benefit best in those w EF <50% or ischemia

280
Q

avoid adenosine or persantine stress testing if

A

COPD

281
Q

avoid dobutammine stress test if

A

arrhythmia

282
Q

“RULES” for stress testing

A
  • can exercise-do exercise stress test
  • abnormal EKG- add imaging
  • can not exercise-pharmacologic stress plus imaging
283
Q

S/S constrictive pericarditis

A
  • fatigue
  • dyspnea
  • wt gain-increased abdominal girth
  • nause
  • edema
284
Q

treatment for constrictive pericarditis

A

pericardiectomy

285
Q

on cardiac cath if see all pressures almost identical:

RA=PA=PCW think

A

pericardial tamponade

286
Q

Becks triad-cardiac tamponade

A

= atrial and pericardial pressures
pulsus paradoxus
hypotension (late sign)

287
Q

EKG differentiation of acute MI vs pericarditis

A
  • acute MI T’s are inverted

* pericarditis T’s are upright

288
Q

S/S acute pericarditis

A
  • pericardial friction rub
  • chest pain
  • diffuse ST elevation
  • *needs ECHO to check for effusion and get hemodynamics
289
Q

Most common causes of acute pericarditis

A

idiopathic
infection
dresslers
trauma/surgery

290
Q

Chronic mitral regurg- indications for surgery:

  • acute symptomatic
  • chronic symptomatic
  • asymptomatic with:
A
  • EF,60%
  • or LVESD >40mm
  • or new a fib
  • or PHTN >50 at rest or >60 with exercise
291
Q

symptoms of acute severe mitral regurg

A
  • acute volume overload:pulm edema, acute PHTN
  • shock
  • S3, early diastolic rumble
  • *urgent surgery, to get to surgery may need balloon pump, nitroprusside, dobutamine
292
Q

causes of acute severe mitral regurgitation

A

ruptured chordae tendinae
ruptured papillary muscle
endocarditis

293
Q

etiology of mitral regurg

dilated cardiomyopathy

A 
MVP
rheumatic
CAD
endocarditis 
drugs
294
Q

common symptoms MVP

A 
palpitations
atypical CP
panic, anxiety
dyspnea
fatigue
295
Q

mid systolic click

A

MVP

296
Q

dx MVP

A

ECHO: 2mm prolapse

297
Q

surgical indications for mitral stenosis

A
  • repair is preferred over replacement
  • NY heart III-IV
  • severe MS w PHTN>60mm
298
Q

mitral valve percutaneous balloon valvotomy indications:

  • NY class II-IV (symptomatic)
  • asymptomatic w PHTN 50 at rest, >60 w exercise (PASP)
A
  • moderate to severe mitral stenosis
  • NO LA clot
  • No more than mild mitral regurgitation
  • non operative patient
299
Q

asymptomatic severe mitral stenosis can suddenly progress to pulmonary edema due to

A

1: A fib

  • poor prognosis -75% die within 10 years
  • all need long term anticoagulation
300
Q

Medical tx mitral stenosis

A
  • avoid extreme physical exertion
  • B blockers
  • lower rate w CC blockers
  • salt restriction
  • occassionally need diuretics
301
Q

Indications for AVR in aortic regurgitation

A
  • symptomatic
  • asymptomatic w EF75 or LVESD >55
  • having CABG or heart surgery and has chronic severe AR
302
Q

medication to avoid in severe chronic aortic regurg

A

Beta blockers-prolong filling time and worsen condition

303
Q

chronic severe aortic regurg medical treatment

A 
*vasodilators;
hydralazine
nifedipine
felodipine
ACE
304
Q

severe aortic regurgitation on ECHO see

A

pressure 1/2 time <150ms

premature closure of mitral valve

305
Q

acute aortic regurgitation S/S and treatment

A
  • urgent surg eval
  • pulm edema, shock, ischemia
  • CXR may be normal
  • may not have murmur
  • confirm diagnosis w ECHO
306
Q

common causes of aortic regurgitation

A
  • bicuspid or calcified valve
  • rheumatic heart disease
  • endocarditis
  • HTN
  • ascending aortic dissection
307
Q

aortic stenosis indications for valve replacement

A
  • severe AS w EF<50%-ALL
  • severe AS and symptomatic
  • severe AS to moderate AS and need CABG/heart surgery
  • *balloon valvuloplasty is not done except for palliative pt only
308
Q

Aortic stenosis exercise testing

A

**contraindicated if symptomatic

*useful in asymptomatic-see if really is symptomatic

309
Q

aortic stenosis surveillence

A
  • severe-yearly
  • moderate- every 1-2 years
  • mild-every 3-5 years
310
Q

lateral MI leads

A

I, aVL, V5, V6

311
Q

inferior MI leads

A

II,III, aVF

*right ventricular infarct will usually see: hypotension, +JVD, lungs CLEAR

312
Q

right ventricular MI leads (usually due to RCA obstruction)

A

V4R

313
Q

murmur mitral stenosis

A
  • Austin flint

* no opening snap

314
Q

ICD benefit for

A
  • EF 35% or less

* class 1 month after MI

315
Q

anterior MI leads

A

V1-2-3-4

316
Q

use of iontropic meds in heart failure

A
  • *increase mortality in all studies
  • only use as palliative tx w refractory heart failure so pt can be dismissed and is not candidate for transplant or surgery
317
Q

austin flint murmur indicates

A

functional mitral stenosis due to severe aortic regurg

318
Q

opening snap is heard with

A

mitral stenosis

319
Q

for pt undergoing qualifying procedure, for what heart condition is infective endocarditis prophylaxis indicated?

A

prosthetic cardiac valve

320
Q

for patient w qualifying heart condition, what procedure is infective endocarditis prophylaxis recommended?

A

dental extraction

321
Q

1st degree AV block

A

PR >200ms
observe
if symptomatic: stop BB & CC blockers

322
Q

2nd degree AV block -Mobitz I (wenchebach)

A

progressive lengthening of p wave until drop QRS then repeats

observe
discontinue nodal blockers if symptomatic

323
Q

2nd degree AV block- Mobitz II

A

***needs pacemaker!!
multiple blocked beats
can progress to complete heart block

324
Q

3rd degree AV block-complete heart block

A

no relation p waves to QRS

**needs pacemaker

325
Q

SVT DO NOT GIVE

A

Beta blockers
treat underlying cause ie asthma, dehydration…
if no cause and recur-catheter ablation

326
Q

CHADS2 scoring (for tx of atrial fib)

  • score 1 or less-aspirin
  • score 2 or more-coumadin or pradaxa
A 
CHF
HTN
age 75 or older
DM
S2: 2 points if prior TIA/CVA or embolic event,mitral stenosis or prosthetic valve
327
Q

WPW EKG clues

A

delta wave-slur up on QRS
short PR interval

**needs ablation-only cure

328
Q

EKG with hypercalcemia

A

short ST

329
Q

alternans on EKG think

A

pericardial effusion

tamponade

330
Q

EKG with hyperkalemia

A

peak T waves
wide QRS-looks like diffuse ST elevation
slow conduction

331
Q

Long QT syndrome

A

first deflection of Q to end of T wave

*Tx: non select BB then ICD

332
Q

cardiogenic shock in acute MI

*due to large MI with extensive damage >40% of myocardium in most

A

7% of Acute MI’s
90% occur at hospital
**#1 cause of hospital deaths

333
Q

hemodynamic criteria of cardiogenic shock in acute MI

A

SBP 15 (high filling pressures)

334
Q

clinical criteria of cardiogenic shock in acute MI

A

hypoperfusion:
* cool extremities
* mottled skin
* decreased urinary output

335
Q

therapy of cardiogenic shock in acute MI

A
  • intra-arterial BP monitoring
  • right heart monitoring of cardiac index
  • inotropics
  • intra-aortic balloon counterpulsation
  • early revascularization-improves 6 month survival
336
Q

ICD of benefit for:

A

EF 35% or less
>1 month AFTER MI if indicated
class <3 NY heart classification

337
Q

ICD implantation is NOT indicated for:

A
  • class 3 or higher of NY heart
  • first month after acute MI
  • EF >35%
  • VT in first 24-48 hours after MI-this has no longterm prognostic implication during this time
338
Q

47 y/o male w ischemic cardiomyopathy, prior CABG, has EF 25%, has dyspnea on moderate exertion. consider what treatment?

A

ICD

339
Q

67 y/o male in ER w one hour CP, 164/96-hr 94, EKG marked ST elevation V1-V6, I, aVL. tx w ASA, LMWH, TNKase, NTG, B blocker and no resolution of ST elevation =>transferred, now SBP 100, HR 94, EKG 5mm ST elevation of same leads. signs of systemic hypoperfusion likely cause?

A

cardiogenic shock due to severe LV dysfunction

optimal tx for this patient is urgent PCI

340
Q

70 y/o male longstanding ischemic dilated cardiomyopathy w EF 25%, to ER w 2 wk history of increased fatigue, SOA, wt gain and increased sleepiness. BP 92/78, HR 110. expected on physical exam?

A

JVD
displaced apical pulse
cool extremities
(Not kussmauls sign)

341
Q

60 y/o male active & asymptomatic, referred for new LBBB on screening EKG. vs: 140/70, hr 68, no JVD, no S3, no murmur. ECHO: mild enlarged LV, EF 30%, CXR: mild cardiomegaly. what meds should be started?

A

ACE

B blocker

342
Q

72 y/o female previously healthy has acute anterior MI. ECHO EF 20% w mild MR, EKG sinus w QRS 115ms, ACE and B blockers started. do you recommend EP study, ICD or cardiac resyncrinization prior to discharge?

A

NO-this is acute, so none are indicateddd

343
Q

79 y/o female to ER w SOA at rest, Hx of HTN, recent ECHO:concentric LVH, EF 60%, no valve disease. VS: 192/68, hr 124, rr 20 sat 86% on room air. EKG: a fib w RVR, CXR: pulmonary edema. what treatment?

A

control BP and HR, diuretics are mainstay of tx for her

344
Q

48 y/o male had inferior MI 2 days ago, uncomplicated, now has new onset of CHF w +S3, holosystolic murmur at apex, BP 122/82, HR 94. next step in evaluation?

A

ECHO

diagnosis is either ventricular septal perforation or mitral regurg, both can be complication of AMI

345
Q

35 y/o female w multiple ER visits for CP assoc w stress. EKG normal, exam-soft late systolic murmur and possible click. appropriate test?

A

exercise ECHO because she has murmur-likely MVP

346
Q

75 y/o male w COPD, HTN, DM pre-op evaluation for fem-pop bypass. exam-+S3, EKG: LVH. appropriate test to evaluate chest pain?

A

dobutamine ECHO- he has CPOD

347
Q

heart murmur which does not need ECHO evaluation?

A

grade 2 mid systolic murmur
usually aortic sclerosis
very common

348
Q

55 y/o female w severe mitral stenosis. asymptomatic, VSS. wants to join gym and wants to know if this is ok?

A

she can engage in any degree of exercise, limited only by her symptoms

349
Q

62 y/o male w DM has + stress test: 2mm ST depression at end of stage 1 Bruce protocol. heart cath: L main 25%, LAD 85%. L circ 75% , RCA 50%, EF 45%. meds:asa, diltiazem, glipizide. next step?

A

CABG
Reason: Diabetic, 2 vessel disease (inclusing LAD), mild decreased LV function (EF 45%), High risk stress test + in stage I

350
Q

68 y/o female hx angioplasty 4 yr ago. Increase angina , relief w NTG past 3-4 wks. now 30” CP no relief w 3 NTG. Meds: asa, statin, B blocker, VSS, EKG: 1.5mm ST depression V3-V6. 20” of IV heparin and NTG and pain is gone and EKG normal. first troponin is mildly incr. most appropriate disposition?

A

admit, ASA, heparin, load on plavix, schedule heart cath in AM

351
Q

79 y/o female in ER-dizzy, CP X 24hours. Hx HTN. no HRT. exam: 95/65, HR 114, +JVD 12cm, lungs clear, +kussmauls, + pulsus paradoxus. EKG: ST elevation II,III,aVF, depression I,aVL,V1-3. in addition to prompt reperfusion, most appropriate initial management?

A

volume expansion

352
Q

60 y/o male, hx HTN.asymptomatic & active. normal recent stress test, soft early diastolic murmur. VSS. ECHO: severe AR, EF 55%. care strategy?

A

monitor and tx w ACE inhibitor during surveillence

353
Q

70 y/o female. Hx HTN,hyperlipid, severe aortic stenosis. admit w heart failure, pulm edema and hypotension. labs ok. EKG: 1-2mm ST depression II,III, V5, V6. CXR: pulm edema. ECHO: severe aortic stenosis & normal LV function. appropriate management?

A

coronary angiography then proceed directly to aortic valve replacement

354
Q

65 y/o male. Hx HTN, hyperlipid. ECHO (has murmur):severe AS, normal LV function. says asymptomatic and walks daily, golfs frequently. next step?

A

exercise treadmill test

  • to determine if truely asymptomatic w exercise
  • if is asymptomatic the ECHO in 6 months to 1 year
  • if he is symptomatic, needs surgery
355
Q

36 y/o male has sudden squeezing, sharp CP radiating to neck & shoulders. VSS. + friction rub. CXR-mild heart enlargement silhouette. EKG: diffuse 2-3mm ST elevation. labs normal. diagnosis and next step?

A

acute pericarditis
get ECHO to r/o compression from effusion , other pathology
Tx- if above w/up negative, treat w NSAIDS

356
Q

definition of a positive ETT-exercise treadmill test

A

flat or down sloping ST segment depression >1mm and occuring 80msec following the J point

357
Q

reasons to discontinue ETT

A

ST segment depression >2mm
decrease in SBP >15 mm Hg
development of VT
development of CP, SOA, lightheadedness

358
Q

false + ETT

A

occur in 15-20% overall, up to 20-30% in females- so pre test probability is important

359
Q

likely cause of reversible ST segment elevation on ETT

A

coronary artery spasm

360
Q

MPI-myocardial perfusion imaging- with adenosine (not exercise) is the test of choice for patients with

A

LBBB

paced ventricular rhythm

361
Q

MPI stress tests use thallium or technetium IV that are tracers that distribute to heart tissue in proportion to BLOOD FLOW.injected at the peak of stress they can show:

A
  • ischemia-these areas take up LESS tracer than surrounding tissue but will show normal distribution at rest some time (hours) later.
  • infarcted areas- show under perfusion both during exercise and at rest
362
Q

gold standard for the diagnosis of CAD

A

coronary angiography

carries 1%complication rate

363
Q

normal RA pressure

A

*7 in upright position=JVD

364
Q

normal RV pressure

A

30/7

365
Q

normal PCWP

A

<12

366
Q

PCWP >15-18

A

LV failure

367
Q

PCWP 15-25 causes

A

dyspnea at rest
orthopnea
interstitial edema

368
Q

PCWP>35 acutely causes

A

frank pulmonary edema

369
Q

if diastolic pressures in all 4 chambers of the heart think:

A

pericardial tamponade

constrictive pericarditis

370
Q

septic shock is mainly due to

A

*low SVR-systemic vasc resistance

*pt will have LOW: BP,SVR,PCWP
and HIGH:CO

371
Q

alcoholic cardiomyopathy

A

cant be dx by biopsy, it is dx by history and exclusion of other causes

372
Q

Pulsus paradoxus-

*see in: constrictive & pericardial conditions, asthma, tension pneumothorax

A
  • decreased pulse volume with inspiration,SBP decreases by >10mm with inspiration
  • when severe, may hear heartbeat but no pulse felt during inspiration.
373
Q

pulsus bisferiens

A

*bifid with 2 systolic peaks per cardiac cycle
*see with: aortic regurgitation ( w or w/o stenosis!)
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

374
Q

Pulsus alternans

A
  • varying pulse pressure with a regular pulse rate

* see with: severe LV disease of any cause

375
Q

Pulsus tardus

A

slow upswing

*aortic stenosis

376
Q

pulse in aortic dissection

A
  • pulse asymmetry
  • can see good pulses in upper extremities and diminished pulses or absent pulses in lower extremity , or can see pulses on one side of body and not on other
377
Q

PAD pulses

A

may see decreased or absent pulses

378
Q

fixed split S2

A

ASD

379
Q

S3

A
  • normal in children

* if present >age 40 is abnormal:acute ventricular decompensation, severe aortic or mitral regurgitation

380
Q

S4

A

caused by ventricular filling during atrial contraction, ventricle is so stiff & delayed relaxation

  • ischemic heart dz, AS,MR, hypertrophic & diabetic cardiomyopathy, hypertensive heart dz w concentric LVH
  • NOT heard w a fib
381
Q

systolic abdominal bruits suggest

A
  • renal vascular HTN

* renal artery stenosis dx-renal angiography, CT angiogram or MRA

382
Q

VSD is seen more commonly with these MI types

A
  • anterior

* inferior

383
Q

with ACS, arrhythmias in the first 48 hours

A
  • due to acute ischemia

* do NOT imply need for long term antiarrhythmic therapy

384
Q

Plavix (clopidogrel)

used for all proven ACS scenarios except NOT used if CABG id imminent or going immediately to cath lab

A
  • but all who do go to cath lab will be put on it
  • genetic test CYP2C19-this liver enzyme is required for plavix to work properly and 2-14% are poor metabolizers (they dont make the plavix active)
  • PPI’s decrease effectiveness of plavix
385
Q

fibrolytic therapy

*NOT given to patient with unstable angina or NSTEMI-it INCREASES mortality!!

A

*give to STEMI or new LBBB if no contraindications

386
Q

antiarrhythmic drugs in ACS

A

preferred is amiodarone for VT,VF
lidocaine only if needed-if no VT,VF do not give it. it has increased half-life in pt w HF and those on propranolol. prophylactic use is harmful

387
Q

primary risk factors for CAD

  • age
  • family hx of early CAD
  • smoking
A
  • HTN
  • male
  • diabetes
  • elevated LDL
388
Q

HDL is increased by

A

exercise
estrogens
niacin
small amounts of ETOH intake

389
Q

HDL is decreased by

A

smoking

androgens

390
Q 
LDL goals:
>160 = high risk
130-159 = borderline high
101-129 = ok
<100 =optimal
A

<70 if has CAD or diabetes

  • *lipids may be falsely low for up to 2 months after MI or cardiac surgery
  • once LDL tx, then HDL is targeted, then TG
391
Q

CABG

  • for all w significant Left Main or left main equivalent (proximal LAD plus proximal circumflex)
  • for all with 3 vessel disease
A

*all with 2 vessel disease and significant prox LAD and either abnormal LV function (EF<50%) or ischemia on noninvasive testing

392
Q

CABG improves SYMPTOMS & SURVIVAL in:

A
  • left main dz or left main equivalent (2 vessel dz with one vessel being proximal LAD)
  • 3 vessel dx w LV dysfunction
  • diabetes
393
Q

CABG improves symptoms of angina in 1 and 2 vessel disease but

A

does NOT improve survival!

394
Q

complications after STEMI

*rupt of papillary muscle: 3-7 days after INFERIOR MI, get ECHO and urgent cariothoracic surgery

A
  • VSD: 3-7 days after ANTEROSEPTAL MI , rapid shock, loud, holosystolic murmur, ECHO and surgery urgently
  • free wall rupture of the LV: 3-7 days after LARGE ANTERIOR MI, most are elderly hypertensive women, see sudden syncope, few heroic saves w surgery
395
Q

Peripheral artery disease causes

  • atheriosclerosis: most common middle age and older, 2 risk factors:smoking, diabetes, they are at incr risk MI and stroke
  • trauma
A
  • arteritis-Takayasu arteritis, connective tissue disease
  • Buerger dx (thromboangitis obliterans) esp male <age 30. often affects wrists/hands
  • entrapment-thor. outlet syndr, popliteal artery entrapment-young man w claud calf or foot arch w walking, but NOT w running
396
Q

PAD diagnosis

A

ABI before & after exercise:best for degree of functional impairment
doppler u/s: visualize artery and blood flow
*arteriogram: best test for location of the disease
CT & MR angiography- good noninvasive artery imaging

397
Q

Tx of PAD

  • noninvasive
  • stop smoking
  • exercise 30” daily
  • pletal (cilostazol)-only if normal LV
  • trental (pentoxifylline)
A
  • many tx w percutaneous angioplasty & stents

* acute occlusion: heparin to protect collateral circulation the embolectomy is TOC

398
Q

Vasospastic disorders:

  • Primary raynauds
  • constriction of small arteries and arterioles
  • acrocyanosis when cold
  • may see livedo reticularis
A

-tx:
calcium channel blockers
biofeedback
nitroglycerine if CCB ineffective

399
Q

Patients with atherosclerotic carotid artery disease are at a HIGHER RISK OF

A

MI than of having TIA/CVA

400
Q

carotid endarterectomy

A
  • indicated for lesions >70% stenosis
  • stenting if high risk for endarterectomy
  • medical rx: asa or plavix
401
Q

suspect spontaneous dissetion of the internal carotid artery if:

  • unilateral headache
  • TIA
  • dilated pupil
A
  • cholesterol emboli on funduscopic exam

* usually resolve w no tx, excellent recovery im most

402
Q

causes of cerebral embolic events of cardiac origin

  • atrial fib 45%
  • acute MI 15%
A
  • ventricular aneurysm
  • mechanical valve
  • valvular heart disease
  • endocarditis
  • other cardiac abnl
403
Q

TIA

*

A

*no longer related to duration of symptoms
*definition: a period of ischemia without infarction
*Ischemic stroke definition: ischemia w infarction
CNS includes: brain, sp cord, retina

404
Q

most emboli to the lower extremities originate

A

in the heart

405
Q

Thoracic aortic aneurysms

A
  • tend to dissect as well as rupture
  • Predisposing factors:HTN,cystic medial necrosis, bicuspid aortic valve, coarctation aorta, 3rd trimester pregnancy
  • aortic dissection is major cause death in Marfan syndrome
406
Q

aneurysm diagnosis

A

CT & MRI for possible dissection.

TEE is accurate for descending thoracic aortic dissection

407
Q

Tx aortic aneurysm

A
  • decrease BP immediately w B blockers and nitroprusside in needed
  • ascending aortic dissections at greater risk complications and always need surgery
  • descending are usually medically treated
408
Q

thoracic aortic aneurysms

A
  • ascending: surgery if 5.5cm, 5 cm if Marfans
  • descending: 6.5cm
  • also surgery if small but enlarging, or if have symptoms, or putting pressure on surrounding structures or of trauma origin
409
Q

AAA-abdominal aortic aneurysm

  • tend to rupture rather than dissect
  • monitor with u/s or CT every 6mo - 1 year if 4-5.4cm
  • 5.5cm need repair, or if expanding >.5cm in 6 mo need surgery
A
  • patients are placed on B blockers during observation period
  • endovascular stenting-most common way to repair localized infrarenal aneurysm
  • peri-operative for aneurysm, acute MI or CAD related problems are cause of 70% of peri-op mortality
410
Q

sick sinus syndrome

A 
do not need electrophysiologic testing
prognosis is good
only 2 indications for tx w pacemaker:
-symptomatic
-tachyarrhythmia needing tx that may precipitate bradycardia
411
Q

indications for permanent pacemaker

A

Mobitz II

complete heart block

412
Q

atrial flutter

  • atrial rate 230-320, 2:1 AV block most common, usually reentry
  • usually indicates heart or pulmonary disease
  • vagal maneuvers or adenosine slow vent rate and allow better dx
  • r/o pulm emboli (often multiple) and thyroid dx
A
  • most effective Tx: electrical DC cardioversion, low energy 10-50J
  • always shock if hemodynamically unstable, but dont keep doing shocks if they keep going back in
  • antiarrhythmic drugs
  • anticoagulate w chronic a flutter,radiofreq ablation cure most
413
Q

anticoagulation in atrial fibrillation, 2 choices:

*anticoag X 3weeks, then cardiovert , then 4 more weeks anticoag

A
  • IV heparin or LMWH, do TEE, cardiovert within 24 hours, then anticoag for 4 more weeks
  • *if <48hours since onset of a fib you can cardiovert all patients without any anticoagulation**
414
Q

MAT-multifocal atrial tachycardia

  • see mostly in pulm dz and those on theophylline
  • can be due to very low K+ and Mg++
A

if theophylline cant be stopped, put on diltiazem or verapamil to suppress

415
Q

PSVT

A
  • rate 150-230
  • narrow compleses
  • tx: vagal, adenosine(drug of choice) or verapamil
  • radiofreq ablation can cure many of these
416
Q

WPW

  • preexcitation syndrome
  • PR interval <.12s due to delta waves
  • tx: most symptomatic and no dysrhythmias
A
  • WPW w narrow complex tachycardia:vagal, cardioversion, adenosine, procainamide, verapamil -as any SVT
  • *never tx acute A fib or flutter in person w WPW with :DIGOXIN,VERAPAMIL OR B BLOCKERS, DO use procainamide if any shock or deterioration, CURE-ABLATION
417
Q

PVC’s

*in pt w hx MI and EF<40%, freq PVCs are an indication of high risk of sudden cardiac death

A

simple PVC’s that are asymptomatic-no tx needed if LV function is normal.

  • B blockers are first line tx
  • complex PVCs -pairs, triplets-do not need tx if asymptomatic and no heart disease
418
Q

DO NOT USE THIS DRUG FOR ANY WIDE COMPLEX TACHYCARDIA IN THE EMERGENCY SETTING!!

A

verapamil

30% would rapidly deteriorate

419
Q

Torsades de points

  • form of polymorphic VT
  • preceded by prolonged QT interval and sometimes U waves
A
  • common causes:
  • quinidine, procainamide, class Ia antiarrhythmics, dofetilide and other class III AADs(sotalol)
  • tricyclics are common cause
  • very low K+ or Mg++
420
Q

treatment of torsades

  • increase the atrial rate with isoproterenol
  • overdrive pacing
A
  • Mg++ sulfate-give if pt has contraindications to the above 2 options (acute MI, severe ischemic heart disease)
  • shock only as a last resort
  • DO NOT give quinidine,procainamide or any class Ia-worsens!!
421
Q

AVOID VERAPAMIL WITH:

A
  • atrial fib or flutter occurring in WPW
  • wide complex tachycardias
  • B blockers-relative contraindication because both are negative chronotropes and negative inotropes
422
Q

OKAY to use VERAPAMIL

  • MAT
  • PSVT (2nd choice after adenosine)
  • WPW with narrow complex tachycardia
  • HTN
A
  • severe concentric LVH
  • symptomatic tx in HCM
  • to control the ventricular response to A fib or flutter in otherwise healthy heart
423
Q

syncope due to autonomic dysfunction:
*orthostatic hypotension due to autonomic dysfunctioncauses symptoms with no increase in heart rate with standing or during vertical phase of tilt table test

A
  • first tx is support hose and increased salt intake

* midodrine or fludrocortison can be added

424
Q

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (prior called IHSS)

  • *assoc w sudden cardiac death-likely due to ventricular arrhythmia
  • no cure except cardiac transplant
  • sudden death is most frequent in young pt w familial form
A
  • person w this often present c hx of exercise induced syncope or severe dyspnea
  • EKG may be normal but often see inferior to lateral Q waves (hypertrophied septum) and LVH
  • confirm dx w ECHO, also need holter & radionuclide stress
425
Q

restrictive cardiomyopathy

A
  • this is not reversible

* causes:amyloidosis, sarcoidosis, hemochromatosis, lipid storage diseases

426
Q

Immediate tx of acute pulmonary edema

  • sit with legs dangling-decreases venous return
  • 100% O2
  • morphine-decrease anxiety and decrease vasoconstriction
A
  • lasix-causes venodilation even before the diuresis
  • digoxin if not on it and no contraindication to it
  • IV NTG or nitroprusside if SBP>100
  • dobutamine if SBP<90
427
Q

Eisenmenger syndrome

*occurs in patients with large intracardiac shunt when the pulmonary vasc resistance becomes greater than systemic vasc resistance so the shunt becomes right to left

A
  • result of severe pulm HTN which can occur early or late in pt w large cardiac left to right shunt of any type.
  • cyanosis comon
  • only tx is heart-lung transplant

GI (10 decks)

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