2006 RO Flashcards
Given the following conditions:
• The plant was tripped from 100% power due to loss of load.
• The operating crew has completed EOP-1.0, “Standard Post-Trip Actions”, and
transitioned to EOP-2.0, “Reactor Trip Recovery”.
• Two minutes later, a forklift operator delivering barrels of EHC fluid to the turbine
building loses control of the forklift and tears a large hole in the bottom of Condensate
Storage Tank T-2.
• Alarm EK-1115 CONDENSATE STORAGE TANK T-2 LO-LO Level is received.
• The operating crew secures all AFW pumps to prevent damage after receiving a low
suction pressure trip on AFW P-8A.
• Both Main Feedwater Pumps are operating at minimum speed.
Which of the following describes the actions the crew is directed to take to restore Steam
Generator feedwater, per EOP-2.0?
A.) Maintain PCPs operating and align service water to P-8C.
B.) Secure PCPs and use the Main Feed Reg Valve Bypasses.
C.) Secure PCPs and align service water to P-8C.
D.) Maintain PCPs operating and use the Main Feed Reg Valve Bypasses.
D.) Maintain PCPs operating and use the Main Feed Reg Valve Bypasses.
A) Incorrect - EOP-2 does not allow the use of service water. The listed action is from EOP-
7, “Loss of All Feedwater Recovery”, which is not appropriate for these conditions.
B) Incorrect - EOP-2 does not direct securing primary coolant pumps for a loss of feedwater.
The listed action is from EOP-7 which is not appropriate for these conditions.
C) Incorrect - EOP-2 does not direct securing primary coolant pumps for a loss of feedwater,
this is from EOP-7 which is not appropriate for these conditions.
D) Correct - EOP-2 allows the operator to recover steam generator levels using Main
Feedwater. Staying in EOP-2 is preferred to transitioning to EOP-7 since it allows the
plant to maintain PCPs that will aid in a more controlled shutdown.
During a routine containment tour on ‘B’ shift with the plant at full power the upper sensing
line for a pressurizer level indication shears off causing a vapor space LOCA. The HP Tech
that was accompanying the AO on rounds calls from the airlock and says that there was a
loud bang followed by a squealing noise. He thinks the AO has had a heart attack and says
he needs help to get the AO out of containment. Dose rates in the general area have risen to
40 rem/hr and the rescue is expected to take 10 minutes.
You are an extra NCO on-shift, and are directed to assist in rescuing the AO. Which one of
the following is true?
A.) Since the dose rate in the general area exceeds 25R/hour, you may assist in this
rescue only as a volunteer.
B.) Since it is projected that you will receive more than 5R, you may assist in this rescue
only as a volunteer.
C.) You do not have to be a volunteer for this rescue, but you must wear electronic
dosimetry, in addition to primary dosimetry..
D.) You do not have to be a volunteer for this rescue, but you must receive a briefing from
the HP Supervisor prior to the rescue.
D.) You do not have to be a volunteer for this rescue, but you must receive a briefing from
the HP Supervisor prior to the rescue
A) Incorrect - The decision on whether the task is volunteer or not is based expected dose
received, not solely on dose rate.
B) Incorrect - The cutoff point for a rescue which requires only volunteers is 25R, not 5R
(Federal limit for non-emergency exposure).
C) Incorrect - Candidate correctly recognizes that volunteering is not required. Facility
procedures specify that NO electronic dosimetery is required for emergency entry.
D) CORRECT - Per provided reference, a brief from HP Supervisor is required for these
conditions, and since expected dose is less than 25R, this task does not require
volunteers.
With the plant at normal operating pressure and Charging Pump P-55A in service, the
controlled bleedoff line for Primary Coolant Pump P-50A breaks off between the pump and
the first manual isolation valve.
What is the response of charging system flow to a PCS leak in this location?
A.) Raise by 0 to 1 gal/min
B.) Raise by 2 to 3 gal/min
C.) Raise by 4 to 8 gal/min
D.) Lower by 1 to 2 gal/min
A.) Raise by 0 to 1 gal/min
A) Correct - This LOCA will result in a reduction in flow to the VCT but would not
significantly change charging flow, The leak rate through the PCP pump will be slightly
higher since it now discharges to containment atmosphere and not to the VCT that is
slightly pressurized.
B) Incorrect - This is approximately the leak rate created by this failure.
C) Incorrect - This is approximately the leak rate if there were not check valves preventing
the controlled bleedoff from the other pumps to reach the break.
D) Incorrect - This answer might be chosen by a candidate who believed this leak was down
stream of the stop check valve.
During a Large Break Loss of Coolant Accident inside containment the operator notes that the
Plant Process Computer (PPC) displayed value for containment pressure has changed color
from MAGENTA to WHITE.
How is this information verified on the PPC and what is its significance?
A.) Depress “URGNT” hardkey. Containment pressure is now LESS THAN the alarm level
setpoint.
B.) Depress “ALARM” hardkey. Containment pressure is now ABOVE the alarm level
setpoint.
C.) Depress “EVENT” hardkey. A Containment High Pressure (CHP) has just actuated.
D.) Depress “UPDATE” hardkey. Criteria for resetting Containment High Pressure are
now met
A.) Depress “URGNT” hardkey. Containment pressure is now LESS THAN the alarm level
setpoint.
a. CORRECT - Per PPC operating manual the URGNT hardkey is used to access the
information, and it is interpreted as shown here.
b. Incorrect - Though this hardkey does exist, it would not be used for the condition;
candidate also misinterprets the significance of the indication.
c. Incorrect usage of this hardkey; candidate also misinterprets the significance of the
indication.
d. Incorrect - UPDATE key is a commonly used key on the PPC, but not for this application;
further, candidate misinterprets significance of the indication.
Which of the following describes the Component Cooling Water interlock associated with
Primary Coolant Pump P-50A?
a. Automatically trips the PCP if CCW FLOW to the PCP integral heat exchanger drops to
less than 80 gpm, to protect PCP seals from overheating and damage.
b. Automatically trips the PCP if CCW TEMPERATURE out of the integral heat exchanger
exceeds 175º F to protect from overheating the thrust bearing.
c. Prevents starting the PCP if CCW FLOW to the integral heat exchanger is less than 80
gpm to ensure adequate oil cooling capability.
d. Prevents starting the PCP if CCW PRESSURE supplied to the integral heat exchanger
is less than 80 psig to ensure adequate oil cooling capability.
c. Prevents starting the PCP if CCW FLOW to the integral heat exchanger is less than 80
gpm to ensure adequate oil cooling capability
A) Incorrect, there is no pump trip interlock for the PCP on CCW Flow.
B) Incorrect, there is no pump trip interlock for the PCP on CCW Temperature
C) Correct, there is a start permissive associated with CCW flow to the primary coolant pump
to ensure that it is adequately cooled prior to being run to avoid damage/failure.
D) Incorrect, there is no start permissive associated with CCW pressure for the primary
coolant pump.
Given;
• Plant is operating in Mode 1.
• Charging Pump P-55A is out of service for maintenance.
• Charging Pumps P-55B and P-55C are in manual, with P-55B in-service.
• A loss of all Forced Circulation occurs.
• PCS pressure returns to 2060 psia.
How will indicated charging flow change, and why? Indicated flow will…
A.) lower because of reduced PCP controlled bleedoff.
B.) not change due to design of Palisades charging pumps.
C.) rise because Tave will lower as a result of the loss of pump heat.
D.) lower because core delta T will rise causing coolant volume to swell.
B.) not change due to design of Palisades charging pumps
A) Incorrect - Candidate believes that controlled bleedoff flow will affect charging. With a
constant speed charging pump in service this will have no effect.
B) Correct - B Charging Pump is a constant speed, positive displacement pump.
C) Incorrect - Reflects the effect on PCS volume the loss of pump heat may have.
D) Incorrect - Reflects the effect on PCS volume the larger delta T that will be required will
cause.
Given the following conditions:
• The PCS is being filled from Reduced Inventory.
• It is day 5 of a forced outage to replace a PCP seal package.
• Current PCS level is 628’ 5”.
• Both SGs have level at approximately 50%.
• Current Average Qualified CET temperature is 140 o
F.
• Shutdown Cooling has been lost.
The PCS will reach 200 o
F in _______ minutes.
A.) 14 to 18
B.) 20 to 24
C.) 30 to 34
D.) 60 to 70
B.) 20 to 24
a. Plausible if candidate uses incorrect curves or data points. Incorrect curves or data
points used.
b. Using ONP-17, Attachment 1, page 4, intersection of 5 day line and 140 o
F initial
temperature is approximately 21 minutes.
c. Plausible if candidate uses incorrect curves or data points. Incorrect curves or data
points used.
d. Plausible if candidate uses incorrect curves or data points. Incorrect curves or data
points used
The plant is operating at full power. An auxiliary operator (AO) is in the field performing an oil
change on the motor of Component Cooling Water Pump P-52B. The AO calls the control
room to report that there is a lot of noise coming from the pump seal area of the operating
CCW pump, P-52A. While discussing what actions to take in the control room, the operating
crew receives the following alarms:
• EK-1167 COMPONENT CLG PUMPS P-52A, P-52B, P-52C TRIP
• EK-1169 COMPONENT CLG PUMP DISCHARGE LO PRESS
The control room enters ONP-6.2, Loss of Component Cooling. The AO in the field reports
that CCW P-52A has now tripped and that the seal appears to have been damaged causing
an approximately 2 gpm leak. CCW Surge T-3 level is 50% and lowering slowly. P-52C is
NOT running.
Per ONP-6.2 should the control room operator manually start P-52C, and why?
A.) No. P-52C should have started in standby and cannot be started until the cause of
this failure is known.
B.) No. Starting P-52C will cause more leakage, it cannot be started until P-52A is
isolated.
C.) Yes, since P-52C should have started in Standby and CCW surge tank level is
sufficient and will auto fill.
D.) Yes, since the AO in the room can verify the required valve lineup and make
necessary heat exchanger adjustments
. C.) Yes, since P-52C should have started in Standby and CCW surge tank level is
sufficient and will auto fill.
A) Incorrect - The pump should have started in standby but the procedure does not require
that this be resolved prior to starting the pump.
B) Incorrect - Starting P-52C will probably cause more leakage but there is no requirement
in the procedure to stop all leakage. This leakage will be compensated for by the make
up to the CCW Surge Tank. The AO is in the room and would be able to isolate the
pump shortly after the P-52C was started. A crew may choose to wait until the pump is
isolated, but the procedure does not require it, and waiting too long could preclude the ability to attempt to start P-52C. (10 minute limit) This would result in a plant trip. This
is a much higher consequence than additional leakage.
C) Correct - as stated in step ONP-6.2, Loss of CCW, step 4.1.
D) Incorrect - ONP-6.2 does not require that the valve lineup be verified or that heat
exchanger dP be reviewed. While these checks may be performed by the crew after
restoration of the pump they are not required as part of ONP-6.2 which is what the
question asks.
With the plant at full power the input signal to the B channel Pressurizer Pressure Control fails
low. The B channel of Pressurizer Pressure Control is the in-service channel. Which of the
following is an expected procedural direction from the CRS that would restore Pressurizer
pressure to normal?
A.) Operate 1/LIC-0101 Heater Control Selector switch to “Channel A” position.
B.) Manually open the pressurizer spray valves using the handswitches.
C.) Take manual control of the in-service pressure controller.
D.) Manually close the pressurizer spray valves using the handswitches.
C.) Take manual control of the in-service pressure controller
A) Incorrect - While the ONP does allow the CRS to direct transfer to the other controller,
simply transferring control will not result in pressure returning to normal. Since the out of
service controller will be at 50% output signal, pressure will continue to rise. The CRS
would also have to provide direction to take manual control or transfer to automatic
control.
B) Incorrect - The spray valves cannot be manually opened using the handswitches. There
is direction in the ONP to close the sprays using the handswitches if pressure is lowering,
that is why this was chosen as a distractor.
C) Correct - one of the options provided by the procedure.
D) Incorrect - This action can be taken but it will not aid in recovering pressurizer pressure
With the Plant at full power the control room receives EK-0548, “125V DC BUS
UNDERVOLTAGE/TROUBLE” along with several other alarms. Following a quick scan of the
panels the Reactor Operators report position indication for CV-0510, S/G E-50A MSIV has
been lost and CV-2009, Cont Letdown Isolation has failed closed.
Which of the following is an additional condition that the operators should be able to observe?
A.) CV-1359, Non-Critical Service Water Isolation failed closed.
B.) Auxiliary Feedwater P-8B in-service.
C.) Control Power to Bus 1C lost.
D.) Control Power to Bus 1D lost.
B.) Auxiliary Feedwater P-8B in-service
A. Incorrect - Caused by a failure of another part of the DC system, not by failure of D-11-1.
B. Correct - The automatic start of P-8B on a loss of D-11-1 is part of the ATWS
modification. This question tests whether or not the student can recognize the a loss of
D-11-1 and then if they know that this causes an auto start of P-8B.
C. Incorrect - Failure that is caused by a loss of a different section of the DC system.
D. Incorrect - Failure that is caused by a loss of a different section of the DC system.
During a Steam Generator Tube Rupture which of the following is an automatic action
initiated by RIA-0707 Steam Generator Blowdown monitor and the basis for the action?
The monitor signals the ……
A.) isolation of both outer bottom blowdown valves (CV-0770, 0771) to limit the spread of
contamination in the blowdown system.
B.) isolation of both surface blowdown valves (CV-0738, 0739) to prevent contamination
from reaching chemistry’s sample panel.
C.) isolation of PCV-6003, Flash Tank T-29A Pressure Control to minimize Main
Condenser contamination.
D.) trip of both S/G blowdown pumps to prevent spread of contamination from the
blowdown system.
A.) isolation of both outer bottom blowdown valves (CV-0770, 0771) to limit the spread of
contamination in the blowdown system
A.) Correct - The outer isolation valves get a close signal and isolate the blowdown system.
B.) Incorrect - Chemistry’s continuous sample points come off the bottom blowdown lines
and upstream of RIA-0707
C.) Incorrect - This valve doesn’t receive a signal from RIA-0707.
D.) Incorrect - RIA-0707 doesn’t provide a signal to the blowdown pumps.
With the plant at full power the main steam line on the B Steam Generator fails inside
containment. Which of the following instruments are affected by degraded containment
conditions in a way that prevents using direct readings in determining if Safety Injection
Throttling Criteria are met?
A.) Pressurizer Level
B.) Steam Generator Level
C.) Reactor Vessel Level Monitoring
D.) PCS Temperature
A.) Pressurizer Level
A.) Correct - Pressurizer level must be corrected for containment conditions before it is
used to verify SIAS throttling conditions.
B.) Incorrect - Steam generator level does have to be corrected to read level accurately,
however only a rising trend is required to meet throttling criteria and this can be done
without correction.
C.) Incorrect - This parameter is used for validating throttling criteria but is not affected by
the given conditions.
D.) Incorrect - This parameter is used for throttling criteria but is not affected by containment
conditions, however during an ESDE the loss of PCP often requires the use of CETs,
but this does not match the stem of the question.
The Plant has tripped due to a Loss of Off-site power at 1300. Emergency D/G 1-1 will not
start. Power control has been contacted and is unable to project when power will be restored
to the switchyard.
Assuming operators take all required actions which of the following design capacities will be
the FIRST to be exceeded before power is restored?
A.) Diesel Generator Fuel oil inventory.
B.) Condensate inventory.
C.) Station Battery Voltage.
D.) ADV Nitrogen backup supply
B.) Condensate inventory
A.) Incorrect - The day tank contains 15 hours of fuel oil and there are no given problems
with fuel oil transfer pumps.
B.) Correct - The required inventory is sufficient to supply the AFW system for 8 hours.
Without power there is no way to retrieve addition volume from other tanks.
C.) Incorrect - The station batteries are designed for only 4 hours, however the procedures
direct supplying both busses from a single operating diesel generator.
D.) Incorrect - Operating air for the ADVs can be provided via a D/G 1-2 powered air
compressor. The back-up Nitrogen supply is from the bulk nitrogen tank and not a
nitrogen bottle station
The state of Michigan has been affected by a large system blackout. Palisades tripped and
initially neither diesel generator would supply its associated bus. Subsequently the on-shift
crew was able to replace control power fuses on the output breaker for D/G 1-1 and it is now
supplying Bus 1C. Shift management has decided that it is the right time for the on-shift crew
to be relieved.
Which of the following information is NOT required to be reviewed during turnover between
the off-going and on-coming NCOs?
A.) All completed steps in the work order to replace fuses on the D/G 1-1 output breaker.
B.) Status of in-progress Station Battery load stripping per EOP Supplements 7 and 8.
C.) The station log and associated notes.
D.) Current control bands and methods of control
A.) All completed steps in the work order to replace fuses on the D/G 1-1 output breaker.
A.) Correct - This would not be an operations evolution and the status of the completed
steps is not a required turnover item.
Distractors B, C, and D are all required by the conduct of operation procedures.
The plant is at full power when a problem with a breaker failure relay in the switchyard causes
a loss of F bus. After stabilizing the plant the operating crew observes the following
indications;
• D/G 1-1 is not operating.
• D/G 1-2 is running with its output breaker closed.
• Bus 1C is indicating 2380 VAC.
• Bus 1D is indicating 2405 VAC.
• Bus 1E is indicating 2380 VAC.
• Bus 12 is indicating 0 Amps.
• Bus 13 is indicating 81 Amps (normal).
• Station Power Transformer 15 is indicating 110 Amps (normal).
• Station Power Transformer 16 is indicating 0 Amps
Based on these indications which of the following statements is accurate?
A.) D/G 1-1 should have started.
B.) Bus 1E should have de-energized.
C.) Bus 12 should be carrying some load.
D.) Transformer 16 should be carrying some load.
C.) Bus 12 should be carrying some load.
A) Incorrect - All safety related busses will have fast transferred to startup power.
B.) Incorrect - Bus 1E also fast transfers to startup power.
C) Correct - Although there was a problem with Bus 1D it is now being supported by its
diesel generator and Bus 12 doesn’t load shed.
D) Incorrect - There is a lockout on the breaker for transformer 16 (PZR heaters) to ensure
that it doesn’t re-energize without operator action (plant modification ~ 1 year ago).
E-17 Sheet 10
A loss of Preferred AC bus Y-10 has caused the following indications (along with several
others) to fail low. Of the indications listed which one does NOT have a redundant instrument
that operators could use to trend level changes in the associated components?
A.) LIA-0102A PZR Level (Cold Calibrated)
B.) LIA-0920 CCW Surge Tank Level
C.) LIA-0365 SIT T-82A level
D.) LI-0751A A Steam Generator Level
C.) LIA-0365 SIT T-82A level
A.) Incorrect - This instrument does have a redundant indication.
B.) Incorrect - This instrument does have a redundant indication.
C.) Correct - Level switches can provided a form of redundancy, but cannot be used to
provide a trend.
D.) Incorrect - This parameter has 3 additional indications (this is a steam generator level
input to the RPS and is powered by Y-10).
When a Safety Injection Actuation signal is generated the Service Water inlet isolation valve
CV-0869, for Containment Air Cooler #4 goes closed. Why does this valve close?
A.) To ensure there is adequate Service Water to the other three coolers during a loss of
Bus 1D.
B.) To ensure there is adequate Service Water to the other three coolers during a loss of
Bus 1C.
C.) To isolate Containment Air Cooler #4 since it is not rated for use in accident
conditions.
D.) To minimize the potential for vapor binding of the SW piping inside containment.
B.) To ensure there is adequate Service Water to the other three coolers during a loss of
Bus 1C.
A.) Incorrect - Containment cooling capacity remains adequate, since two Cont. Spray
pps. are still powered. It is also likely, per procedural actions, that Service Water to
containment will have manually isolated.
B) Correct - This train doesn’t rely on SW. It isolates and raises flow to the other coolers.
C.) Incorrect - It is not isolated because it is not rated for accident conditions. In fact the
outlet valve still gets an open signal so the CAC is not even isolated in an emergency.
D) Incorrect - Since the downstream valve is open, there is no vapor binding concer
The plant has experienced a plant trip followed by a complete loss of instrument air. Per
EOP-9, “Functional Recovery Procedure” the CRS directs the NCO to match the handswitch
positions of the air operated valves with their failed positions.
Why does the EOP direct this action?
A.) To conserve inventory of nitrogen back up systems.
B.) To ensure that valves do not spontaneously change position while air is lost.
C.) To ensure that the valves do not reposition when air is restored.
D.) To place all valves to their safety related position.
C.) To ensure that the valves do not reposition when air is restored.
A.) Incorrect - A valve that was being held open by a nitrogen back up system would not
be repositioned. This attachment does not conserve nitrogen back up system
inventory.
B.) Incorrect - Moving the handswitches will not affect valves during the event. Since there
is no air pressure the handswitches cannot keep valves from changing position.
C.) Correct - The handswitches are placed in the failed position to ensure that the valves
do not reposition during restoration of air.
D.) Incorrect - There are no directions in the checklist to match valves with their safety
related position. The checklist directs matching the handswitch regardless of whether
it has failed to its safety position or not
Given the following conditions:
• The plant is in MODE 5.
• PCS is at 623’ with S/G nozzle dams installed.
• The Shutdown Cooling System is controlling PCS temperature at 103°F.
• T-91, Utility Water Storage Tank, batch release is in progress
• The batch release calculation assumed two Service Water Pumps in operation.
• Main Condenser East and West Waterboxes are open for installation of a modification.
• Service Water Pumps P-7A and P-7B are in service.
• Service Water Pump P-7C is tagged out for bearing replacement.
• Both Cooling Tower Pumps P-39A/B are available, but not in service.
• The Canal Sample Pump is in service.
The Secondary AO reports that the basket strainer on P-7A discharge appears to be clogging
as indicated by differential pressure trending steadily upward. A crew brief is held to discuss
removing P-7A from service to disassemble and clean the basket strainer.
For the above plant conditions, what are the implications of the proposed maintenance on the
SW pump basket strainer?
A.) Plant will have Required Actions per LCO 3.4.8 PCS Loops - MODE 5, Loops not
filled. Terminate the batch release before stopping P-7A.
B.) Plant will have Required Actions per LCO 3.4.8 PCS Loops - MODE 5, Loops not
filled. Establish 15 minute periodic sampling of batch release flow.
C.) Plant will have Required Actions per LCO 3.7.8 Service Water System. Terminate the
batch release before stopping P-7A.
D.) Plant will have Required Actions per LCO 3.7.8 Service Water System. Start a
Dilution Water Pump before stopping P-7A.
A.) Plant will have Required Actions per LCO 3.4.8 PCS Loops - MODE 5, Loops not
filled. Terminate the batch release before stopping P-7A.
A.) Correct - The Service Water LCO does not apply below MODE 4. The batch release requires that the dilution flow requirements be met. Securing a Service water pump
would violate these requirements and require that the batch be secured while the
release calculations are updated. In Mode 5 with the loops not filled two SDC trains are
required to be operable. To be operable each train needs to have a separate SW
pump. With only one pump operable only one train could be considered operable.
B.) Incorrect - See explanation in A above.
C.) Incorrect - See explanation in A above.
D.) Incorrect - See explanation in A above.
Planned maintenance is to be conducted on RIA-1113, Waste Gas Discharge Monitor. To
conduct the maintenance, the following valve lineup was performed, per SOP-18A,
Radioactive Waste System - Gaseous:
● MV-WG117, Waste Gas Radiation Monitor Inlet CLOSED
● MV-WG119, Waste Gas Radiation Monitor Outlet CLOSED
● MV-WG118, Waste Gas Radiation Monitor Bypass OPEN
AFTER the maintenance is completed, the following valve lineup is noted:
● MV-WG117, Waste Gas Radiation Monitor Inlet OPEN
● MV-WG119, Waste Gas Radiation Monitor Outlet OPEN
● MV-WG118, Waste Gas Radiation Monitor Bypass OPEN
Which one of the following correctly evaluates the above AFTER maintenance valve lineup?
A.) The monitor inlet valve should be CLOSED, since the monitor is placed in service only
as part of preparations for a planned gas batch release.
B.) The monitor bypass valve is OPEN to allow a release path in case RV-1111, Waste
Gas Surge Tank Relief, lifts.
C.) The monitor outlet valve is OPEN to ensure the monitor will not overpressurize when
RV-1111, Waste Gas Surge Tank Relief, lifts.
D.) The monitor bypass valve should be CLOSED, to ensure the monitor will sense a high
radiation condition.
D.) The monitor bypass valve should be CLOSED, to ensure the monitor will sense a high
radiation condition.
A) Incorrect - This monitor is normally aligned for service.
B) Incorrect - The bypass should be closed, this is the reason the valve is opened for
maintenance.
C) Incorrect - Candidate misapplies function of monitor’s normal flowpath.
D) Correct -,This is the required in-service line up, per procedure.
The plant is nearing the end of a long production run with elevated PCS activity due to a failed
fuel rod. Operators note a rising sump trend along with elevated counts on the Containment
Gas monitor. The crew enters ONP 23.1 for a PCS leak and the reactor is manually tripped.
During the immediate actions of EOP-1 the NCO at the controls notes that EK-1363
“CONTAINMENT HI RADIATION” has annunciated.
Based on this alarm which of the following accounts for the above conditions and describes
any required actions?
A.) At least one containment radiation monitor has gone into WARNING. Ensure
containment is isolated.
B.) At least one containment radiation monitor has gone into ALARM. No manual actions
are required.
C.) At least one containment radiation monitor has gone into ALARM. Ensure
containment is isolated.
D.) At least two containment radiation monitors have gone into ALARM. No manual
actions are required.
C.) At least one containment radiation monitor has gone into ALARM. Ensure
containment is isolated.
A.) Incorrect - Warning function exists, but does not provide containment isolation function.
B.) Incorrect - This alarm will come in when the first containment monitor goes into alarm.
The operator is expected to check the monitors when the alarm comes in and manually
initiate containment isolation if the alarm is valid.
C.) Correct - This alarm will come in when the first containment monitor goes into alarm.
Containment doesn’t automatically isolate until at least two Containment Radiation
monitors go into alarm. This is a knowledge item from EOP-1 because an operator is
expected to check the monitors when the alarm comes in and isolate containment if
necessary.
D.) Incorrect - This alarm annunciates when one or more containment radiation monitors
have alarmed.
A fire in the Electrical Equipment room has resulted in a loss of Bus 1D and D/G 1-2. Bus 1C
is still being powered by the Safeguards Transformer. The reactor has been tripped and
operators are stabilizing the plant and supporting the fire brigade. Per ONP-25.1 “FIRE
WHICH THREATENS SAFETY RELATED EQUIPMENT” the CRS directs an NCO to
dispatch the safe shutdown AO to align the alternate power supply to the D/G 1-1 Room
ventilation fans.
For the stated conditions, this action is taken to ensure that the vent fans ….
A.) do not spuriously start and over cool the room.
B.) are available to prevent engine damage in the event that D/G 1-1 is needed.
C.) are available to maintain room habitability in the event that D/G 1-1 is needed.
D.) are powered by a safety related power supply that is unaffected by the fire.
B.) are available to prevent engine damage in the event that D/G 1-1 is needed.
A.) Incorrect - This is not the reason for performing this action. If this were a concern
outside air temperature would be part of the prerequisites.
B.) Correct - Per the caution in ONP-25.1.
C.) Incorrect - The vent fans are needed for engine operability not operator comfort.
D.) Incorrect - This action actually aligns the fans to a non-safety related power supply.
A fire in the cable spreading room associated with the DC power to the ADVs is in progress.
The fire causes the ADVs to open. In order to close the ADVs both DC shunt trip buttons
have been pushed. Due to the fire and the loss of indication the control room has been
evacuated.
If offsite power becomes unavailable to Bus 1C and Bus 1D, would either D/G auto start?
A.) Yes, both diesels will start.
B.) Yes, only D/G 1-1 will start.
C.) Yes, only D/G 1-2 will start.
D.) No, neither D/G will start
A.) Yes, both diesels will start.
A.) Correct - Pushing the shunt trip push buttons isolates the batteries from everything
except the control power for the diesels and Bus 1C and Bus 1D.
B.) Incorrect - Candidate incorrectly believes this requires manual control of the D/G or use
of the RLT switches which would mean that only D/G 1-1 could be started.
C.) Incorrect - Candidate incorrectly believes this requires manual control of the D/G and
misapplies understanding of the RLTS, and concludes that only D/G 1-2 will start.
D.) Incorrect - Candidate misunderstands the scope of what part of the system is isolated
when using the shunt trip pushbutton feature.
The plant has experienced an excess steam demand event caused by the failure of a main
steamline inside containment. The pressure in containment caused the tubing associated
with the containment sump level indication to fail resulting in a leak of the containment sump
to East Safeguards that cannot be isolated. Containment pressure was 40 psia when the leak
was discovered and estimated to be 3 gpm.
What will the leak rate be if containment pressure is lowered to 20 psia?
(Assume atmospheric pressure is 15 psia.)
A.) 0.60 gpm
B.) 1.37 gpm
C.) 1.50 gpm
D.) 2.12 gpm
B.) 1.37 gpm
The leak rate will be proportional to the square root of the differential pressure. The
candidate has to remember this fact and recognize the units of the containment pressure are
PSIA. This is the unit that would be available in the control room. The correct answer is
3gpm*5psig^0.5/25psig^0.5 = 1.37 gpm. The other answers are the result of either using
the wrong units, assuming a straight ratio, or both.
The head has just been re-installed and tensioned. The PCS is filled to 628 feet and is stable
at 110ºF. Based on decay heat it will take 60 minutes to reach 200ºF if Shutdown Cooling is
secured. No primary coolant pumps have been started yet. To support troubleshooting on
CV-3006, SDC HX BYPASS, operations has been requested to secure shutdown cooling.
Can Shutdown Cooling be secured, and if so, how long can it be secured without violating
Technical Specifications for Shutdown Cooling or PCS Heatup/Cooldown rates?
A.) SDC cannot be secured under these conditions.
B.) SDC cannot be secured for more than 13 minutes.
C.) SDC cannot be secured for more than 26 minutes.
D.) SDC cannot be secured for more than 60 minutes.
B.) SDC cannot be secured for more than 13 minutes.
A) Incorrect - Candidate believes conditions do not allow securing SDC,
B) Correct - TS allows SDC to be secured for up to an hour. However for the conditions
given the heat up rate is such that 20ºF/hour heatup rate limit will be exceeded in 13.3
minutes. PCS will heat up to 200 F in 60 from references provided.
C.) Incorrect - candidate believes the limit on heatup rate is 40F/hr
D) Incorrect - candidate believes that shutdown cooling can be secured for a full hour
The reactor trips while the NCO Turbine is out of the control room. As a result neither Main
Feed Pump is slowed and both Steam Generators are overfilled. When the NCO turbine
arrives in the control room he quickly slows both Main Feed Pumps, closes both Main Feed
Reg Valves, and plant conditions begin to recover. The following readings represent the plant
conditions at the point at which the primary coolant system begins to recover;
• Pressurizer Pressure - 1432 psia
• SIAS has actuated.
• PCS Thot - 480°F
• PCS Tcold - 478°F
• Actual Pressurizer Level - 32%
• A Steam Generator Level - 89%
• B Steam Generator Level - 88%
Assuming no operator action what would be the status of the Pressurizer heaters when
pressurizer level recovers to 40%?
A.) Both banks of heaters would be energized.
B.) Only the heaters powered by Bus 1E would be energized.
C.) Only the heaters powered by Bus 1D would be energized.
D.) None of the heaters would be energized
D.) None of the heaters would be energized
A. Incorrect SIAS de energ Bus 1E which powers one bank of htrs. D Bus Deenergizes when low Lpzr heater cutout occurs
B. Incorrect. SIAS deenergizes Bus 1 E
C. Incorrect Bus 1D deenergizes when low Lpzr hearter cutout occurs
D. Correct Bus 1D htrs do not reset after low Lpzr cutout and Bus 1E was load shed on SIAS
While operating at full power the control room receives EK-0734 “CHARGING PUMPS SEAL
COOLING LO PRESS”, the NCO at the boards notes that Charging Pump P-55B has started.
Additionally, the NCO notes that sump level is rising.
Initially the containment sump level rate of rise was 0.05 gpm, the VCT was at 78.0%, and the
Pressurizer was at 56.9%. After 10 minutes the rate of rise in the sump is 7.9 gpm (actual
rate of rise based on level change, not PPC calculation), the VCT is at 73.7%, and the
Pressurizer is at 57.1%. PCS Temperature has remained stable.
Which of the following is the required action?
A.) Trip the reactor.
B.) Perform an emergency downpower per ONP-28.
C.) Continue to gather leakrate data and start a downpower per GOP-8.
D.) Attempt to isolate the leak and prepare for a downpower per GOP-8.
A.) Trip the reactor.
A.) Correct - The leakrate is greater than 10 gpm. This is trip criteria per ONP-23.1.
B.) Incorrect - Candidate incorrectly calculates leak rate, or misapplies guidance in the
procedure.
C.) Incorrect - Candidate incorrectly calculates leak rate, or misapplies guidance in the
procedure.
D.) Incorrect - Candidate incorrectly calculates leak rate, or misapplies guidance in the
procedure.
The stem provides some information concerning the leakrate into the sump. This leakrate
would not necessarily be indicative of all leakage. The candidate should expect that sump fill
rate would lag actual leakrate due to moisture not immediately condensing in areas that would
drain directly to the sump. The additional clarification on rate of containment sump rise is due
to the fact that the value calculated on the PPC is a 15 minute average.
With the plant at 10% power, RIA-1805, Containment Area Radiation Monitor, suffers a short
causing it to fail high. While investigating this issue Preferred AC Bus Y-30 de-energizes.
What effect does this have on the plant?
A.) A reactor trip due to closure of the MSIV’s.
B.) A turbine trip due to closure of the MSIV’s.
C.) Loss of Instrument Air to the Pressurizer Spray Valves.
D.) PCP controlled bleed-off being controlled by a relief valve.
D.) PCP controlled bleed-off being controlled by a relief valve.
A.) Incorrect - MSIVs do not close on a CHR. Candidate confuses CHP and CHR. Power
level also plausibility of these choices as it leads them down the path of turbine only trips.
B.) Incorrect - MSIVs do not close on a CHR. Candidate confuses CHP and CHR. Power
level also plausibility of these choices as it leads them down the path of turbine only trips.
C.) Incorrect - Instrument air does not isolate on a CHR.
D.) Correct - This will result in a loss/trip of 2 of 4 Containment Area Radiation Monitors
(loss of Y-30 results in loss of power to RIA-1807) which will cause a containment
isolation on high radiation (CHR). The MSIV’s will not close.
Which of the following provides the correct power supply for each of the Component Cooling Water pumps? P-52A P-52B P-52C A.) Bus 1D Bus 1D Bus 1C B.) Bus 1D Bus 1C Bus 1D C.) Bus 1C Bus 1D Bus 1C D.) Bus 1C Bus 1C Bus 1D
C.) Bus 1C Bus 1D Bus 1C
A) Incorrect - Candidate incorrectly recalls the power supply configuration of the
containment spray pumps as the Component Cooling Water pumps power supply
configuration.
B) Incorrect - Candidate incorrectly recalls the power supply configuration of the Service
Water pumps as the power supply configuration of the Component Cooling Water pumps.
C.) Correct - This is the correct power supply configuration for the Component Cooling
Water pumps.
D) Incorrect - Candidate fails to identify the correct power supplies for the Component
Cooling Water pumps.
Operations has aligned Charging Pump P-55C to its alternate power supply to support
maintenance on its breaker. If a fault on Bus 1C resulted in a loss of the front bus in the
switchyard, which charging pumps would have power?
A.) All three charging pumps P-55A, P-55B, and P-55C
B.) Only charging pumps P-55A and P-55B
C.) Only charging pump P-55C
D.) None of the charging pumps will have power.
B.) Only charging pumps P-55A and P-55B
A.) Incorrect - See explanation below.
B.) Correct - See explanation below.
C.) Incorrect - See explanation below.
D.) Incorrect - See explanation below.
P-55C is normally powered by LCC-11 off Bus 1C. When on its alternate supply it is powered
by LCC-13. LCC-13 is powered by Bus 1C. A fault on Bus 1C that de-energized the front
bus would cause Bus 1D and Bus 1E to fast transfer to startup power. P-55C would loss
power.
