Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Block 6 Week 5 > Intro to Medical Mycology- Kozel > Flashcards

Intro to Medical Mycology- Kozel Flashcards

1
Q

What has the most fungal species?

A

plants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How many common fungal human species are there?

A

50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Mammals are intrinsically (resistant/suscpetible) to fungus?

Why?

A

resistant

  • they have intact immune systems
  • mammalian endothermy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is mammalian endothermy?

A

ability to generate and regulate body temp, every 1 degree celcius above 30 degrees kills 6% of fungal species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

FUngi emerged as human pathogens only in the (blank).

Why?

A

1950
Introduction of antibiotics
HIV
immunosuppresive therapies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Is there a high probability for emergence of new pathogens with fungi?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the plasma membrane of fungus made out of?

A

ergosterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the fungal cell wall made out of?

A

chitin
beta (1,3) glucan
beta (1,6) glucan
Mannoproteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What kind of mannoprotein is found on Saccharomycetes?

A

mannan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What kind of mannoprotein is found on Euascomycetes?

A

galactomannan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Where do you find beta 1-6 glucan? WHere do you find beta 1-3 glucan?

A

towards the cytoplasm

making a giant X from the outside of the cell wall towards the plasma membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does GPI do?

A

anchoring protein that fixes the cell wall to the plasma membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

(blank) is a unicellular fungus that reproduces vegetatively by budding or fission

A

Yeast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

(blank) is a string of budding cells marked by constrictions rather than septa at the junctions.

A

pseudohyphae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

(blank) is a multicellular structure that enlongates at the the tip by apical extension

A

hyphae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

(blank) is a hollow, multinucleate hyphae

A

Coenocytic hyphae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

(blank) is asexual reproductive elements (spores) produced by budding at the top or side of a hyphae

A

Conidia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

(blank) are asexual reproductive elements produced by fragmentation of hyphae

A

arthroconidia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

(blank) are asexual spores produced inside a containg sack-like structure (sporangium)

A

sporangiospores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the four asexual spore?

A
  • Sporangiospores of the Mucorales
  • Arthroconidia of Coccidioides immitis
  • Conidia of Penicillium spp.
  • Conidia of Aspergillus spp.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the 5 groups of pathogenic fungi?

A 
Mucormycetes
Basidiomycetes
Pneumocystidiomycetes
Saccharomycetes
Euascomycetes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the morphology of mucormycetes?

A

broad, thin-walled hyphae w/ multiple nuclei (coenocytic); septae are rre; sporangiospores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the 2 most common mucormycetes?

A

Rhizopus

Mucor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the morphology of Basidiomycetes?

A

budding yeast, septate hyphae with camp connections and arthroconidia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the three most common Basidiomycetes?

A

Cryptococcus
Malassezia
Trichosporon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the morphology of pneumocystidiomycetes?

A

trophic forms and cystlike structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the most common pneumocystidiomycetes?

A

pneumocystis jirovecii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the morphology of Saccharomycetes?

A

budding yeast and hyphae, pseudohyphae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the 2 most common saccharomycetes?

A

Candida

Saccharomyces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the morphology of Euascomycetes?

A

budding yeasts, septate hyphae, asexual conidia on specialized structures and arthroconicia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the 5 most common Euascomycetes?

A 
Dermatophytes
Blastomyces
Histoplasma
Aspergilus
Coccidioides
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the 6 ways to diagnose fungal infections?

A 
culture
direct microscopy
histopathology
serology
molecular methods
antigen detection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the gold standard in fungal diagnosis and what are its pitfalls?

A

culture

  • requires highly skilled lab tech
  • takes days to weeks for results
  • often negative for disseminated diseases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Does culturing allow for sensitivity testing?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How do you use a microscope to diagnose fungal infections?

A

scrapings w/ KOH to digest tissue

use negative stain of CSF for encaspulated cryptococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How do you use histopathy to diagnose fungal infections?

A

Cytologic preparations, fine-needle aspirations, body fluids, and exudates.
usually requires invasive sample

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the routine stains for diagnosis of fungal infection? special stains?

A

H & E

Gomori methenamine silver, PAS, mucicarmine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How can serology diagnose fungal infection?

What is its pitfall?

A
  • detects antibody to fungal antigen
  • complement fixation or other immunoassay formats
  • good for coccidiodomycosis and histoplasmosis

May not reflect active infection; IgM vs. IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How can molecular methods diagnose fungal infections?

What are its pitfals?

A
  • Detects nucleic acids via PCR
  • Useful for identification of cultured fungi

Problematic for identification in blood or tissue
NO FDA-cleared test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How can antigen detection diagnose fungal infections?

What are the three antigens it works well on?

A

detects circulating antigens

  • cryptococcal antigen (CrAg) very useful for cryptococcosis
  • Beta glucan-detects cell wall glucan in blood
  • galactomannan-detects histoplasmosis, blastomycosis, coccidioidomycosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is an Azole (such as fluconzole)?

A

antifungal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the structure of an Azole?

A

imidazoles (2 rings)

triazoles (3 rings)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the 2 imidazoles of the Azoles family?

A

Ketoconazole

Miconazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the 3 triazoles of the Azoles family?

A

fluconazole
itraconazole
voriconazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the MOA of Azoles?

A

inhibit lanosterol 14-alpha-demathylase

Blocks ergosterol synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How can you get resistance to Azoles?

A

target with decreased affinity
efflux pump
overexpression of target

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the clinical use of the Azole Ketoconazole?

A

limited use due to toxicity and less efficacy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the clinical use of the Azole Fluconazoe?

A

candidiasis, cryptococcosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the clinical use of the Azole Itraconazoe?

A

broad spectrium antifungal activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the clinical use of the Azole voriconazole?

A

broad spectrum; invasive aspergillosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the absorption, fate and excretion of Azoles?

A

great oral absorp
low protein binding
good distribution to organs/tissues including CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the toxicity and side effects of Azoles?

A

Fluconazole-low toxicity
Other azoles-variable toxicity
inhibitor of cytochrome p450 so lots of drug interaxns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is Allylamine?

A

a antifungal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are the 2 allylamines?

A

terbinafine

naftifine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the MOA of terbinafine?

A

inhibition of squalene epoxidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the clinical use of allyamines (terbinafine, naftifine)?

A

topical treatment of dermatophyte infection

systemic treatment of dermatophyte infection

57
Q

What is the absorption, fate, toxicity and excretion of allyamines (terbinafine, naftifine)?

A

well absorbed, rapidly metabolized in liver
high conc. in fatty tissue, skin, hair and nails
well tolerated ORALLY
pregnancy category B.

58
Q

What is flucytosine and what is its structure?

A

it is an antifungal and is a prodrug.

59
Q

How do you activate flucytosine?

A

deaminate to active 5-fluorouracil in yeast cell

60
Q

What is the MOA of flucytosine?

A

antimetabolite-competes with uracil

INHIBITOR of DNA and RNA synthesis

61
Q

What causes resistance in Flucytosine?

A

relatively common in monotherapy
decreased uptake
failure to convert to active form

62
Q

What is the clincal use of Flucytosine?

A
  • used in combination with Amphotericin B

- treatment of cryptococcal meningitis

63
Q

What is the absorption, fate, and excretion of flucytosine?

A

taken orally, rapidly absorbed from GI tract.
widely distributed in body, good CNS penetration
Excreted unchanged in urine

64
Q

What is the toxicity and side effects off flucytosine?

A

depresses bone marrow

hepatoxicity

65
Q

What are Echinocandins- caspofungin? What is its structure?

A

fungal antibiotic

cyclic lipopeptide

66
Q

What is the MOA of Echinocandins-caspofungin?

A

inhibits glucan synthesis

67
Q

How can you get resistance to Echinocandins (caspofungin)?

A

RARE

in lab- altered target w/ decreased sensitivity

68
Q

What is the clinical use of Echinocandins- Caspofungin?

A

used for fungi where 1,3 beta-glucans are the dominant cell wall glucan component
Invasive candidiasis
Invasive aspergillosis

69
Q

What is the absorption, fate, and excretion of Echinocandins?

A

administered IV
POOR ORAL
Extensive protein binding
limited CNS penetration

70
Q

What is the toxicity and side effects of Echinocandins?

A

generally well tolerated

Pregnancy category C

71
Q

What are the structures of polyenes?

A

Amphotericin B
Lipid formulations of AmB
Nystatin

72
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Polyenes?

A

binds to ergosterol

DIRECT membrane damage

73
Q

How can you get resistance to Amphotericin B?

A

RARE

Mutiple mechanisms: reduced ergosterol content. ergosterol w/ reduce binding, masking of ergosterol to block binding

74
Q

What is the clinical use of Polyenes (amphotericin B)?

A

established agent
broad spectrum
lipid formulations less toxic but expensive

75
Q

What is the absorption, fate, and excretion of amphotericin B?

A

-Given IV; BECAUSE GI absorption is negligible
(pharm properties differ w/ formulation)
negligible excretion in urine

76
Q

What happens to conventional AmB?

A

remains in plasma, largely bound to protein

77
Q

What happens to Liposomal AmB?

A

has highest plasma concentration at therapeutic doses

78
Q

What is the toxicity and side effects of AmB?

A

considerable nephrotoxicty (azotemia -nitrogen compounds in blood- found in 80% of patients given conventional AmB)

79
Q

How can you reduce nephrotoxicity w/ AmB?

A

w/ lipid formulations

80
Q

The patient is a 70-year-old woman with uncontrolled type 2 diabetes mellitus who presented with a one-month history of non-specific headaches associated with progressive swelling of her left eye. A diagnosis of invasive mucormycosis was made from a tissue biopsy taken from the internasal septum. She was successfully treated with intranasal and systemic amphotericin B. What is the mechanism of action of this antifungal agent?
A) Inhibits lanosterol 14-α-demethylase to block ergosterol synthesis
B) Binds to ergosterol to damage cell membranes
C) Inhibits glucan synthesis
D) Inhibitions squalene epoxidase
E) Inhibits DNA and RNA synthesis

A

B!!

81
Q

The government of a country in Southeast Asia instituted prophylactic treatment of all AIDS patients with fluconazole to prevent development of cryptococcal meningitis. Over time, there was no increase in fluconazole resistance by Cryptococcus neoformans, but there was a dramatic increase in the resistance of Candida albicans. What is the most likely mechanism for the increased resistance to fluconazole?

A) An alteration or decrease in the amount of ergosterol in the cell membrane
B) Production of a lanosterol 14 α-demethylase with decreased affinity for the drug
C) Alterations in fungal genes that produce a failure to convert the drug into an active form
D) Alterations in genes that encode proteins involved in glucan synthesis
E) Production of squaline epoxidase with reduced binding to the drug

A

B.Production of a lanosterol 14 α-demethylase with decreased affinity for the drug. Multiple mechanisms for resistance to fluconazoles have now been identified due to the widespread use of the antifungal. The other major mechanism is production of an efflux pump.

82
Q

What are the four types of pathogenic fungi?

A

Superficial mycoses
Cutaneous and subcutaneous mycoses
Endemic Mycoses
Opportunistic mycoses

83
Q

What are the four endemic mycoses?

A

Blastomycosis
Histoplasmosis
Coccidiodomycosis
Penicilliosis

84
Q

What are the five opportunistic mycoses?

A 
Aspergilosis
Candidiasis
Cryptococcosis
Mucormycosis
Pneumocystosis
85
Q

Where will you find superificial mycoses?

A

superficial skin surfaces of skin and hair

86
Q

Are superificial mycoses destructive?

A

no, they are of cosmetic importance

87
Q

What are the diseases associated with superficial mycoses?

A

Pityriasis versicolor- Malassezia furfur
Tinea nigra- Hortaw werneckii
Black piedra- Piedraia hortae
White piedra- Trichosporon spp.

88
Q

What causes pityriasis versicolor?

A

Malassezia furfur

89
Q

What causes Tinea nigra?

A

Hortae werneckii

90
Q

What causes Black piedra?

A

Pieraia hortae

91
Q

What causes White piedra?

A

Trichosporon spp.

92
Q

(blank) is infection of keratinized layers of skin, hair and nails

A

cutaneous mycoses

93
Q

What is the pathology of cutaneous mycosis due to?

A

host respose

94
Q

What are the three cutaneous mycoses?

A

microsporum spp.
trichophyton spp.
epidermophyton floccosum

95
Q

What are the diseases associated with cutaneous mycoses?

A

Dermtophytoses
Tinea Unguium
Onychomycosis

96
Q

What is dermatophytoses?

A

infection of the skin

97
Q

What is tinea unguium?

A

infection of the toes

98
Q

What is onychomycosis?

A

infection of nails

99
Q

What are subcutaneous mycoses?

A

infections of deep layers of skin, cornea, muscle and connective tissue

100
Q

What causes subcutaneous mycoses?

A

hyaline molds

pigmented fungi

101
Q

What 2 fungi are hyaline molds?

A

acremonium spp, fusarium spp.

102
Q

What 2 fungi are pigmented gunfi?

A

alternaria spp, Cladosporium spp, exophila spp.

103
Q

What are the diseases associated with subcutaneous mycoses?

A
  • infection via traumatic inoculation
  • abscess formation, nonhealing ulcers, draining sinus tracts
  • localized; rarely disseminate
104
Q

THe same fungus can present in 2 different ways, what is this called?

A

dimorphism

105
Q

What are the 2 phases called of fungus?

A

Saprobic phase (eats dead stuff) and parasitic phase (eats live stuff)

106
Q

What are the five fungi that present with a saprobic phase and a parasitic phase making them dimorphic?

A 
histoplasma capsulatum
blastomyces dermatitidis
paracoccidioides brasiliensis
coccidioides immitis
penicillium marneffei
107
Q 
What is this:
dimorphic fungus
   -parasitic phase (in tissues)-broad based yeast
-saprobic phase- non descript mycelium
found in decaying organic matter
broad based yeast
A

Blastomyces dermatitidis

108
Q

Where is blastomyces dermatitidis found?

A

ohio and mississippi river valleys

109
Q

What diseases does blastomyces dermatitidis cause?

A
  • pulmonary disease
  • extrapulmonary- skin, GU, CNS
  • disseminated disease in immunocompromised patient
110
Q 
What is this:
dimorphic fungus
-in tissues-intracellular budding yeast
-saprobic phase-tuberculate macroconidia
Found in soil with high nitrogen content-bird/bat droppings
A

Histoplasma capsulatum

111
Q

Where is histoplasma capsulatum found?

A

Ohio and mississippi river valleys, Mexico, central and south america

112
Q

What are the diseases associated with histoplasma capsulatum?

A
  • acute pulmnary-(90% asymptomatic)
  • chronic pulmonary
  • progressive disseminated
113
Q 
What is this:
Dimorphic fungus
-in tissues- endosporulating spherule
-saprobic phase- athroconidia
Found in soil and dust
A

Coccidioides immitis/posadasii

114
Q

Where can you find coccidioides immitis/posadasii?

A

southwestern U.S., mexico, central and south america.

115
Q

What are the diseases associated with coccidioides immitis/posadasii?

A

Primary pulmonary (often asymptomatic)
Progressive pulmonary
Disseminated- usually immunocompromised

116
Q

What is this:
dimorphic fungus
-tissue-sausage shaped yeast
-saprobic phase- pigmented mold

A

penicillium marneffei

117
Q

What are the diseases associated with Penicillium marneffei?

A 
Disseminated infection (more commin in AIDS)
Resembles histoplasmosis, cryptococcosis or TB
118
Q 
What is this:
Dimorphic fungus
-in tissue-large, multiply budding yeast
-saprobic phase- nondescript mold
Found in soil
A

Paracoccidiodes brasiliensis

119
Q

Where do you find paracoccidiodes brasiliensis?

A

south and central america

120
Q

What diseases are associated with paracoccidioides brasiliensis?

A

self-limiting pulmonary disease
progressive pulmonary
disseminated
[more common in children and immunocompromised patient]

121
Q

A 27-year-old man from Mexico with newly diagnosed AIDS presents to the clinic with 4 weeks of fever, chills, night sweats, myalgias, dry cough, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. He recently had a negative tuberculin skin test. He is initially treated for presumptive Pneumocystis pneumonia and atypical pneumonia. Two weeks later, however, fungal blood cultures show growth of hyphal elements shown in the figure. What is the diagnosis?

A

Disseminated histoplamosis. The figure shows the tuberculate macroconidia of Histoplasma capsulatum when the fungus is grown at room temperature. Tissue or growth at 37°C would show small budding yeast. The fungus is endemic in the Ohio and Mississippi river valleys, Mexico and Central and Southern America

122
Q 
A 71-year-old Chinese male was admitted with complaint of chronic cough, malaise and transient low-grade fever. The patient received a procedure of right middle lobe and lower lobectomy. Histopathology and results of culture at room temperature are shown. It is likely that a travel history would show that the patient had visited the following region of the U.S
A)	New England
B)	Florida
C)	Ohio river valley
D)	Desert southwest
E)	Pacific northwest
A

Desert southwest
The histopathology and culture show, respectively, the spherules and arthoconidia of Coccidioides immitis. C. immitis is endemic in Southwestern U.S., Mexico, and Central and South America.

123
Q

What is this:

  • several species
  • ubiquitous in air, soil, decaying matter
  • infection by inhalation of spores
  • septate, branching hyphae in tissue
A

Aspergillus spp.

124
Q

What diseases are associated with aspergillus spp.?

A
  • allergic reactions
  • obstructive paranasal or bronchial
  • invasive pulmonary and disseminated
125
Q

Who will get invasive pulmonary and disseminated disease from aspergillus spp?

A

neutropenic or immunodeficient patient (BMT, solid organ transplant, HIGH FATALITY)

126
Q

What is this:

  • multiple species
  • yeast-like forms with buds, pseudohyphae and germ tubes
  • normal flora of humans
A

Candida spp.

127
Q

What is the most common species of Candida spp.?

A

C. albicans

128
Q

What are the diseases associated with Candida spp. ?

A

Oropharyngeal infection -thrush
Esophagitis - AIDS
Vulvovaginal
Hematogenous disseminated

129
Q

What is this:

  • encapsulated yeast
  • ubiquitous saprophyte-pigeons, trees
  • immunoassay for capsular antigen
A

Cryptococcus neoformans

130
Q

What are the diseases associated with Cryptococcus neoformans?

A
  • pulmonary cryptoccosis
  • cryptococcal meningitis
  • opportunistic -AIDS or other immune suppresion
  • major disease in AIDS in resource-imited countries
131
Q

What are the 2 species of cryptococcus neoformans?

A

neoformans and gattii

132
Q

What is this:

  • Mucorales e.g. Mucor and Rhizopus
  • Aseptate (coenoytic) hyphae
  • Ubiquitous in soil, decaying vegetation
  • Acquired by inhalation of spores
A

Mucormycocis

133
Q

What diseases are associated mucormycocis?

A

rhinocerebral
pulmonary
disseminated, angioinvasive
Patient with metabolic acidosis and hematologic malignancy

134
Q

What are 2 common mucormycocis species?

A

mucor and rhizopus

135
Q

What is this:

  • sexual and asexual life cycle
  • tropic, sporocyst and cyst forms
  • cysts seen as empty, collapsed balls
  • Human reservoir most likely
A

Pneumocystis jirovecii

136
Q

What diseases are associated with Pneumocystis jirovecii?

A
  • Natural resistance very high
  • likely infects most normal humans
  • AIDS, immunosuppression, infants
  • Interstitial plasma cell pneumonitis
  • high mortality if untreated
137
Q

The patient is a homeless 24-year-old male who presents with shortness of breath, fever and a non-productive cough. The patient was diagnosed with AIDS on the basis of CD4 counts and viral load. Examination of induced sputum showed cysts suggestive of Pneumocystis infection. What is the initial source of infection by Pneumocystis jirovecii?

A) An infected animal
B) An infected human
C) Contamination in the domestic water system
D) Water in an air-conditioning cooling tower
E) Contaminated soil

A

B!!
The reservoir for Pneumocystis jirovecii is not known with certainty. However, given the fact that the microbe is highly adapted to its host, the reservoir is most likely an infected human.

138
Q

The patient is a 32-year-old male who presents with headache, fever, cranial nerve palsies, memory loss and lethargy over several weeks. A lumbar puncture was done. CSF analysis showed lymphocytic pleocytosis, decreased glucose and slightly elevated protein. A stain of CSF is shown. What is the most likely cause of this patient’s infection?

A. Cryptococcus neoformans
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Nocardia asteroides
D. Staphylococcus aureus
E. Listeria monocytogenes
A

A!!!

Cryptococcus neoformans

Block 6 Week 5 (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions