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[Ther 201] 1st Exam Transes > SIM: Mechanism of Drug Action and Signaling Mechanisms (Cecilia A. Jimeno, MD) > Flashcards

SIM: Mechanism of Drug Action and Signaling Mechanisms (Cecilia A. Jimeno, MD) Flashcards

1
Q

What chemicals were systemically injected into chicks in Langley’s Experiment? What did these drugs cause?

A

Curare and nicotine; paralysis

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2
Q

In Langley’s Experiment, what did additional nicotine injection produce?

A

Contraction of certain muscles

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3
Q

In Langley’s Experiment, what did co-administration of curare do?

A

Reduced nicotine response

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4
Q

What are the two distinct cell constituents revealed by Langley’s Experiment?

A
  1. Effector or target tissue/organ

2. Receptors

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5
Q

What substances produce their effects by combining with the receptive substance? Do axon endings matter?

A
  1. Nicotine
  2. Curare
  3. Atropine
  4. Pilocarpine
  5. Strychnine

…and other alkaloids!

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6
Q

A structure to which drugs bind, causing an action which results to observable effects?

A

Receptor

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7
Q

What do you call the agents that bind to receptors?

A

Ligands

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8
Q

The agent that binds to a receptor and causes an alteration in cellular function.

A

Agonist

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9
Q

The agent that is devoid of activity and prevents action of an endogenous agonist.

A

Antagonist

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10
Q

Endogenous substances that serve as signalling mechanisms to enable biologic effects

A

Second Messengers

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11
Q

Tightness with which a drug binds to its receptor.

This applies to which substances?

A

Affinity

Agonists and antagonists

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12
Q

Measure of a drug to produce physiologic effects

This applies to which substances?

A

Intrinsic Activity

Agonists only

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13
Q

What are the properties of receptors?

A
  1. Saturability
  2. Reversibility
  3. Stereoselectivity
  4. Agonist Specificity
  5. Tissue Specificity
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14
Q

Define: Saturability

A

Receptors present in FINITE numbers

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15
Q

Define: Reversibility

A

Non-covalent interactions present

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16
Q

Define: Stereoselectivity

A

Variation in +/-, l/d, and S/R forms of optical isomers

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17
Q

Define: Agonist Specificity

A

Preference for closely related agonists

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18
Q

Define: Tissue Specificity

A

Binding to tissues known to be sensitive to drug and at concentrations consistent with physiologic concentration of agent

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19
Q

T/F: Acetylcholine is used by all motor neurons.

A

True

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20
Q

What are the precursors of acetylcholine?

A

Acetyl CoA and Choline

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21
Q

What is the enzyme responsible for production of acetylcholine?

A

Choline O-Acetyltransferase

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22
Q

How many subunits does the Ach receptor have?

A

5 (2 alpha, 1 beta, 1 gamma and 1 delta)

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23
Q

Where do the Ach molecules bind on the receptor?

A

On the two alpha subunits

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24
Q

What is tubocurarine?

A

The purified form of curare that was used as a skeletal muscle relaxant.

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25
Q

Describe: Tubocurarine

A

It is a neuromuscular blocking drug and antagonist of acetylcholine.

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26
Q

Describe the relationship between dosage and effect of tubocurarine.

A

Small doses - sub threshold potentials

Larger doses - blockade

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27
Q

What has tubocurarine been replaced by?

A

Non-depolarizing anaesthetics

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28
Q

What are the effects of tubocurarine?

A
  1. Weakens neuromuscular transmission
  2. Diminishes Ach-esterase inhibitors
  3. Blocks pre junctional sodium channel
  4. Interferes with mobilisation of Ach at nerve endings
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29
Q

Describe the ion concentrations of Na+, K+ and Cl- inside and outside of the cell.

A

Na+ and Cl- concentrations are greater in the ECF.

K+ concentration is greater in the cell.

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30
Q

What is the resting membrane potential?

A
  • 70mV
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31
Q

What is the threshold membrane potential?

A
  • 55mV
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32
Q

Increased conductance of K+ leads to what?

A

Hyperpolarization

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33
Q

Increased conductance of Na+ leads to what?

A

Depolarization

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34
Q

Increase conductance of Cl- leads to what?

A

Hyperpolarization

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35
Q

What enzyme is responsible for the formation of GABA?

A

Glutamic acid decarboxylase

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36
Q

Describe: GABA

A

Inhibitory substance released at presynaptic terminal that causes presynaptic inhibition of postsynaptic neurons

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37
Q

Describe: GABA receptor

A
  1. It has five subunits (2 alpha-1, 2 beta-2 and 1 gamma-2)
  2. Exhibits various pentameric combination
  3. Attenuates excitatory effect by opening ion channels
  4. Two types - GABAa and GABAb
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38
Q

Describe: GABAa receptor

A
  1. Opens Cl- channels

2. Mediate fast IPSPs

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39
Q

Describe: GABAb receptor

A
  1. Inhibit Ca2+ channels or open K+ channels

2. Mediate slow IPSPs

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40
Q

Where does the GABA ligand bind on the receptor?

A

Between the alpha-1 and beta-2 subunits

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41
Q

Where does benzodiazepine bind to?

A

Close to alpha-1 and gamma-2 subunits

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42
Q

What is the clinical significance of GABA receptor drugs?

A
  1. Prevent transmission of pain signals

2. Cause coma and respiratory depression

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43
Q

Describe: Diazepam

A
  1. Allosteric activator for GABA

2. Lipid-soluble and long-acting benzodiazepine

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44
Q

When is diazepam used?

A
  1. Short-term treatment of anxiety and acute alcohol withdrawal (orally)
  2. Sedative, anticonvulsant, skeletal muscle relaxant, amnestic and anti-anxiety agent (parenterally)

WARNING: long-term use can result in habituation and withdrawal

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45
Q

Enumerate effects of GABA and Benzodiazepines

A
  1. Sedation (block cortical and limbic arousal pathways)
  2. Muscle relaxation (depress motor nerve function)
  3. Anticonvulsion
  4. Anesthesia (BDPs given through IV may penetrate brain)
  5. Heart failure (if hypovolemic)
  6. Medullary respiratory center depression
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46
Q

GPCRs are also called what?

A

Serpentine receptors

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47
Q

T/F: The same ligand can activate many different GPCR family members.

A

True

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48
Q

What is the main mechanism of action of GPCRs?

A

Binding and hydrolysis of GTP, which leads to amplification of transduced signal

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49
Q

Example of GPCRs

A
  1. Muscarinic Ach Receptor
  2. Adrenoreceptor
  3. Dopamine Receptor
  4. Serotonin (5-HT) Receptor
  5. Opiate Receptors
  6. Peptide Receptors
  7. Olfactory Chemoreceptors
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50
Q

Upon activation of the GPCR, the G-protein dissociates into what?

A
  1. Alpha subunit

2. Beta-gamma complex

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51
Q

What are the two types of G-proteins with respect to adenylyl cyclase interaction?

A
  1. Inhibitory G-protein (Gi)

2. Stimulatory G-protin (Gs)

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52
Q

Where does the alpha subunit of the G-protein travel to first upon activation?

A

Adenylyl cyclase

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53
Q

Describe the structure of cAMP-dependent protein kinase A (PKA)

A

It has two catalytic and two regulatory subunits.

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54
Q

Where does cAMP bind on PKA?

A

Regulatory subunits, which releases them

55
Q

What is the function of PKA?

A

Catalyzes transfer of phosphates to serines and threonines of CREB, which recruits CBP for gene transcription and protein synthesis

56
Q

What do CREB and CRP stand for?

A

CREB - cAMP response element binding protein

CBP - CRE-binding protein

57
Q

Enumerate effects mediated by increase in cAMP concentration

A
  1. Thyroid hormone synthesis and secretion
  2. Cortisol secretion
  3. Progesterone secretion
  4. Glycogen breakdown
  5. Bone resorption
58
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of cholera toxin on the Gs protein

A

It alters the alpha subunit, disabling GTP hydrolysis. This keeps it cAMP formation active.

Elevated cAMP levels leads to efflux of Cl- and water into the gut.

59
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of pertussis toxin on Gi protein

A

ADP ribosylation of the alpha subunit of Gi. Bound GDP is retained.

60
Q

T/F: Sympathetic control of the airway leads to bronchoconstriction.

A

False

It leads to bronchodilation.

61
Q

What is the receptor of norepinephrine?

A

Beta-2 receptor

62
Q

T/F: Beta-adrenergics are strong vasodilators.

A

True

63
Q

If beta-2 agonists are given in high doses, what may result?

A
  1. Tachycardia
  2. Tremors
  3. Hypokalemia
64
Q

What is the mechanism of action of norepinephrine?

A

It activates PKA, which lowers Ca2+ concentrations. Myosin Light Chain Kinase (MLCK) will not be activated due to the low Ca2+.

65
Q

Function: Myosin Light Chain Kinase (MLCK)

A

Phosphorylation of myosin. This enables binding of actin to myosin.

66
Q

Describe the action of salbutamol

A

It stimulates the sympathetic nervous system to induce bronchodilation. Note that it is a beta-2 adrenergic agonist.

67
Q

Why does salbutamol cause tremors and tachycardia at high concentrations?

A

Its affinity for the beta-2 adrenergic receptor is decreased.

68
Q

T/F: Salbutamol is used as a tocolytic to relax the uterine smooth muscle (delay premature labor) if administered intramuscularly.

A

False

This is true if it’s administered intravenously.

69
Q

What molecule is responsible for mediating the muscarinic effect of the acetylcholine receptors in the lungs?

A

Phospholipase C

70
Q

Parasympathetic control of the airway leads to (1)

A

(1) bronchoconstriction

71
Q

How is acetylcholine exocytosed?

A

Ca2+ mediates this.

72
Q

What receptors are responsible for bringing the heart back to normal after the action of the sympathetic nervous system?

A

M2 Receptors

73
Q

Describe: Atropine

A
  1. Racemic mixture D- and L-hyscyamine (main effector)

2. Anti-cholinergic drug

74
Q

If a person has asthma, would you give anti-cholinergics or beta-adrenergics? Why?

A

Beta-adrenergics

Anti-cholinergics aren’t as effective. They’re more important in resting bronchial tone like COPD, emphysema, and chronic bronchitis.

75
Q

T/F: Anti-cholinergics may cause a decrease in secretion of saliva and mucus.

A

True

76
Q

What is another name for kinase-linked receptors?

A

Enzyme-associated receptors

77
Q

What does signal transduction involve for kinase-linke receptors?

A

Dimerization and autophosphorylation

78
Q

Describe the tyrosine kinase insulin receptors

A
  1. Heterodimers made up of 2 alpha and 2 beta subunits linked by disulphide bonds
  2. The alpha subunits house the insulin-binding domains.
79
Q

What does insulin receptor substrate (IRS) phosphorylation lead to?

A

Release of PI3P and increase in GLUT4

80
Q

T/F: Insulin insensitivity or decrease in insulin receptor leads to Type 1 diabetes.

A

False

It leads to Type 2 diabetes.

81
Q

What are the actions of tyrosine kinase receptors?

A
  1. Gene expression and growth regulation
  2. Glucose utilization
  3. Glycogen/lipid/protein synthesis
82
Q

What are the most prevalent forms of oestrogen?

A

Estradiol and estrone

83
Q

Where is estrone made?

A

Adrenal glands

84
Q

What are the two main targets of oestrogen?

A

Breast and uterus

85
Q

What other organs does oestrogen target?

A

Brain, bone, liver and heart

86
Q

What stabilise oestrogen receptors?

A

Heat shock proteins (HSP90)

87
Q

What are the domains of intracellular protein receptors?

A
  1. Cytoplasmic
  2. Intranuclear
  3. Dome-associated with cell surface membrane
88
Q

T/F: The two oestrogen receptors have equal affinity for estradiol.

A

True

89
Q

Describe: ER-alpha

A
  1. Present in endometrium and breast cancer cells

2. ER-alpha-estradiol complex activates transcription

90
Q

Describe ER-beta

A
  1. Present in granulose cells and osteoblasts
  2. Undergoes dimerisation upon activation
  3. Possesses compressor proteins against antagonists
91
Q

What molecule is a major autocrine mediator of estrogen-stimulated growth and estrogen-dependent growth of cancer cells?

A

Transforming Growth Factor alpha

92
Q

Describe: TGF-alpha

A

It occurs in normal breast tissue, breast tumours and breast caner cells.

93
Q

Describe: TGF-beta

A
  1. Regulates growth and morphogenesis
  2. Inhibits epithelial proliferation and induces apoptosis
  3. ECM deposition and modelling
94
Q

What do growth factors act on?

A

Serine-threonine kinases (i.e. MAP kinase)

They active non-liganded ER by phosphorylation

95
Q

Describe the proliferation of a tumor cell.

A
  1. Estrogen binds to estradiol.
  2. Tumor secretes TGF-alpha and IGF-1.
  3. Growth, anchorage and proliferation occur
96
Q

Describe: Tamoxifen

A
  1. Competitive, partial agonist inhibitor of estorgen
  2. Non-steroidal prodrug
  3. Possesses cytostatic effects (G1 & G0 locking)
  4. Anti-estrogenic in breast
  5. Estrogen agonist in bone and uterus
97
Q

How is Tamoxifen activated?

A

Processed in the liver to become 4-hydroxytamoxifen or endoxifen

98
Q

Describe: Endoxifen

A

4-hydroxytamoxifen is an ER antagonist, inhibiting transcription of estorgen-responsive genes.

99
Q

Describe: Raloxifen

A

Highly estrogenic in bone but mildly anti-estrogenic in breast and uterus.

100
Q

What is Tamoxifen used for?

A

Treatment of early and advanced breast cancer. It also prevents its return and the emergence of new breast cancer.

101
Q

What is Tamoxifen’s effect on other molecules?

A
  1. Suppresses IGF-1
  2. Upregulates TGF-beta (apoptosis)
  3. Downregulates TGF-alpha
102
Q

When is Tamoxifen effective in treating breast cancer?

A

If the patient has ER+ breast cancer.

However, there may be Tamoxifen resistance in women.

103
Q

What causes Tamoxifen to fail?

A
  1. Tamoxifen resistance

2. Failure of endoxifen metabolism (CYP2D6 and CYA3P4 variants)

104
Q

What are slow mechanisms of receptor regulation?

A
  1. Transcriptional/translation changes in level

2. Changes in migration to surface

105
Q

What are fast mechanisms of receptor regulation?

A
  1. Covalent modification
  2. Association with other proteins
  3. Changes in subcellular location
106
Q

Define: Homologous Desensitisation Response

A

Loss of responsiveness of receptors exposed to sustained activation by agonist

107
Q

Give an example of a homologous desensitisation response.

A

Phosphorylation by G protein-coupled receptor kinase (GRK)

108
Q

In the homologous desensitisation response, prolonged exposure to the agonist leads to what?

A

Delivery of internalised receptors to lysosomes

109
Q

Define: Heterologous Desensitisation Response

A

Desensitisation of one receptor results in desensitisation of another receptor not directly activated by agonist

110
Q

Give an example of a heterologous desensitisation response.

A

Second messenger feedback (PKA phosphorylation of beta receptors)

111
Q

What happens when beta-2 receptors couple to Gq proteins in the heterologous desensitisation response?

A

PKC phosphorylates serine residues in the 3rd cytoplasmic loop and COOH terminal tail of beta-2 receptor.

112
Q

What is used to reverse the toxic effects of heavy metals?

A

Chelating agents

113
Q

When is CaNaEDTA used intravenously?

A

Cases of lead poisoning and lead encephalopathy

114
Q

Why is there limited clinical use for CaNaEDTA?

A

Its affinity for Ca2+

115
Q

What happens to the calcium component of CaNaEDTA when it encounters a metal in the body?

A

It is displaced by divalent/trivalent metal to form water-soluble hexadentate chelate.

116
Q

What other chelating agent is used in treating lead poisoning?

A

Succimer

117
Q

What chelator is used against copper poisoning?

A

Penicillamine

118
Q

What is dimercaprol used for?

A

Arsenic, mercury, gold, lead, antimony and other toxic metal poisoning.

119
Q

Define: Osmotic Diuretics

A
  1. Filtered but not reabsorbed by the kidneys

2. Causes osmotic pressure that pulls water into lumen

120
Q

Describe the ADME, onset, and dosage of mannitol.

A

A - 20% through IV over 30 mins
D - ECS and extracts water from IC compartment
M - Liver
E - 80% by the kidney
Onset: 30 - 60 mins post-administration; 1.5 - 3 hrs duration of action
Dosage: 1 - 2 gm/kg body weight

121
Q

Describe osmotic effect of mannitol on the kidneys

A

Major effect in proximal tubule and descending loop of Henle

122
Q

Can mannitol relieve edema? If yes, how?

A

Yes, by increasing plasma oncotic pressure, which will pull fluid back into the blood vessels.

123
Q

Describe mannitol’s effect on urine flow rate and Na+ reabsorption.

A

It increases urine flow rate, leading to decreased contact of filtrate and thus decreased Na+ reabsorption.

124
Q

What are the therapeutic uses of mannitol?

A
  1. Treat oliguric phase of acute renal failure
  2. Promotes excretion of toxins
  3. Reduce intracranial pressure
125
Q

What are the adverse effects of mannitol?

A
  1. Convulsions
  2. Thrombophlebitis
  3. Pulmonary congestion
  4. Headaches, chest pain, tachycardia, blurred vision, chills and fever
126
Q

Function: Alkalinizing Drugs

A
  1. Increases absorption of other drugs (non-ionized form)

2. Used in acid-peptic diseases, where mucosal erosions can be pathologic

127
Q

Give the chemical reaction involving use of antacids

A

HCl + NaHCO3 -> NaCl + H2CO3 -> NaCl + CO2 + H2O

128
Q

What are the symptoms of excess CO2?

A

Abdominal distension, belching and flatulence

129
Q

What are the symptoms of excess NaCl absorption?

A

Fluid retention leading to heart failure, HPN and renal insufficiency

130
Q

Give examples of antacid formulations

A
  1. Calcium carbonate
  2. Alka seltzer
  3. Magnesium hydroxide
  4. Aluminum hydroxide
131
Q

Function: Acidifying Drugs

A

Correct metabolic alkalosis

132
Q

How does ammonium chloride lower blood pH?

A

Metabolism to urea and HCl

133
Q

How does ascorbic acid act as an acidifying drug?

A

Directly acidifies urine

134
Q

How does acetazolamide act as an acidifying drug?

A

Increases excretion of bicarbonate

[Ther 201] 1st Exam Transes (11 decks)

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