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RUSVM Bacteriology > Bacteriology Exam 1 Material > Flashcards

Bacteriology Exam 1 Material Flashcards

1
Q

Strains within a species with distinctive antigenic properties are known as ___________

A

serovars

Ex: Leptospira interrogans serovar Pomona

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2
Q

T/F: Capsule, flagella, and pili are present in all bacteria

A

False

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3
Q

What is the site of translation in a bacterial cell?

A

ribosomes

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4
Q

The genetic material of the bacterial cell is called the:

A

chromosome

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5
Q

Flagella are composed of a protein called _________

A

flagellin

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6
Q

What type of flagella are present in the image?

A

Peritrichous flagellum

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7
Q

What type of flagella are present in the image?

A

Amphitrichous flagellum

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8
Q

Woah, nice flagella!

What type of flagella are present in the image?

A

Lophotrichous flagellum

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9
Q

What type of flagella are present in the image?

A

Monotrichous flagellum

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10
Q

__________ are short, hair-like structures on the surfaces of prokaryotic cells

A

**Fimbriae, **or pili

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11
Q

Fimbriae are very common in Gram-_________ bacteria

A

Fimbriae are very common in Gram-negative bacteria

Fimbriae are most often involved in adherence of bacteria to surfaces, substrates and other cells or tissues in nature.

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12
Q

The Gram-__________ cell wall is mainly composed of peptidoglycan

A

The Gram-positive cell wall is mainly composed of peptidoglycan

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13
Q

The capsule of *Bacilllus anthracis *is composed of:

A

poly-D-glutamate

this is one of the principal virulence factors during anthrax infection

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14
Q

Bacterial **murein **is a unique type of ____________

A

Peptidoglycan

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15
Q

Which feature distinguishes bacteria from archaea?

A

The cell walls of archaea do not contain murein!!!

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16
Q

The cells walls of archaea do not contain _________. This feature distinguishes archaea from bacteria.

A

murein

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17
Q

The Gram-positive cell wall contains a unique group of molecules called __________ acids

A

teichoic acids

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18
Q

The outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria invariably contains ____________, which is toxic to animals

A

Lipopolysaccharide

**(LPS **or* *endotoxin)

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19
Q

The toxic component of endotoxin (LPS) is:

A

Lipid A

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20
Q

Most bacteria reproduce by:

A

binary fission

(each cell increases in size and divides into two cells)

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21
Q

the length of time required for a single bacterial cell to yield two daughter cells is called the:

A

generation time

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22
Q

involution forms of bacteria can be seen during which stage of bacterial growth?

A

Decline phase

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23
Q

Most bacteria use organic chemicals as sources of energy and carbon, and are therefore known as:

A

chemoheterotrophs

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24
Q

Name the growth factors that are required for synthesis of nucleic acids

A

Purines and** pyrimidines**

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25
Q

Name the growth factor(s) that is/are required for synthesis of proteins

A

Amino acids

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26
Q

Organisms with an optimum growth temperature near 37°C are called:

A

mesophiles

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27
Q

Organisms with an optimum growth temperature between about 45°C and 70°C are called:

A

thermophiles

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28
Q

Microorganisms which grow at an optimum pH well below neutrality (7.0) are called:

A

acidophiles

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29
Q

Microorganisms that grow best under alkaline conditions are called:

A

alkaliphiles

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30
Q

T/F: Bacteria require water for growth

A

TRUE

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31
Q

___________ is the **universal currency **of energy exchange in biological systems

A

ATP

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32
Q

What are the two ways cells can produce ATP?

A

Substrate level phosphorylation and Electron transport phosphorylation

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33
Q

Heterotrophic metabolism is driven mainly by two metabolic processes: ___________ and ____________

A

fermentations and respirations

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34
Q

How much ATP and how much NADH is gained (per glucose) at the end of glycolysis?

A

2 ATP and 2 NADH per glucose

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35
Q

In fermentation, all ATP are produced by:

A

substrate level phosphorylation

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36
Q

E. coli have specialized pilus, called __________, that stabilizes mating bacteria

A

F or sex pilus

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37
Q

Gram-positive bacteria have a(n) ______________, which is a link of amino acids that link peptides together

A

interpeptide bridge

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38
Q

In hypertonic solutions, bacterial cells shrink. An exception to this is ________________

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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39
Q

The segment of a gene with a coding sequence is called a(n):

A

Exon

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40
Q

The segments of gene with non-coding sequences are called:

A

introns

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41
Q

The Ziehl-Neelsen stain distinguishes what type of bacteria?

  • Those with a high peptidoglycan content
  • Those that are acid fast positive
  • Those that ferment lactose
  • Those that have no cell wall
A

Those that are acid fast positive

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42
Q

The Gram stain separates bacteria into two groups based on:

  • Cell wall composition
  • Capsular composition
  • Flagellar proteins
  • Spore formation
A

Cell wall composition

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43
Q

T/F: Infection & disease are synonyms

A

False

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44
Q

Which component of bacterial cells is most influential in the Gram stain?

A

peptidoglycan

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45
Q

What is stained in an acid-fast stain?

A

mycolic acid (waxy)

(long cell wall fatty acids)

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46
Q

Bacteria that can grow with or without O2are referred to as:

A

facultative anaerobes

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47
Q

Which of the following microorganisms are prokaryotic?

  • Algae
  • Bacteria
  • Fungi
  • Algae & Bacteria
  • All of the above
A

Bacteria

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48
Q

What is the major function of ribosomes in bacteria?

  • cell wall rigidity
  • motility
  • protein synthesis
  • adherence to host cells
A

protein synthesis

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49
Q

What is the major function of fimbriae in bacteria?

  • cell wall rigidity
  • motility
  • protein synthesis
  • adherence to host cells
A

adherence to host cells

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50
Q

T/F: All bacteria have a cell wall

A

False

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51
Q

T/F: Beta hemolysis is complete hemolysis

A

True

Alpha hemolysis is an alteration of hemoglobin where you would see greening of the blood agar.

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52
Q

T/F: Resistant bacteria tend to be more virulent than other, less resistant bacteria

A

False.

Bacterial resistance does not affect virulence

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53
Q

Endotoxins are found in:

  • All bacteria
  • Gram positive only
  • Gram negative only
A

Endotoxins are found in Gram-negative bacteria only

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54
Q

Is *Staphylococcus aureus *catalase-positive or catalase-negative?

A

catalase-positive

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55
Q

Which contain teichoic acids:

Gram-positive or Gram-negative?

A

Gram-positive

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56
Q

The resistance of endospores is attributed largely in part to their high ___________ acid content

A

dipicolinic acid

dipicolinic acid, which is not found in vegetative cells, occurs in the spore wall in combination with large amounts of calcium

57
Q

What is the universal currency for energy?

A

**ATP**

Apparently this has been on every exam

58
Q

Which stage of bacterial growth is there no increase in bacterial number?

A

Stationary phase

59
Q

PCR is the amplification of DNA _________

(in vitro or in vivo)

A

PCR is the amplification of DNA in vitro

60
Q

Identify the species of Microsporum. How can you tell?

What type of mycoses?

A

M. canis

6 or more cells

cutaneous mycoses

61
Q

Identify the species of Microsporum. How can you tell?

What is the natural habitat?

A

M. gypseum (6 cells or fewer)

Soil reservoir

62
Q

Identify the species of Microsporum. How can you tell?

What disease does it cause?

A

M. nanum

2 cells (doesn’t look like the others)

Causes porcine ringworm

63
Q

What is the most common dermatophyte of domestic animals?

A

Microsporum canis

64
Q

Which species doesn’t lose its hair when infected with ringworm?

A

Pigs (only species that doesn’t)

65
Q

Bovine ringworm is usually caused by:

A

Trichophyton verrucosum

66
Q

Trichophyton verrucosum, the major cause of Bovine ringworm, requires __________ and __________ to grow.

A

inositol and thiamine

67
Q

Name the genus associated with these classic “shoe-print” yeast cells

A

Malassezia spp.

68
Q

What are the two most common agents of equine dermatophytosis?

A

Trichophyton equinum and Microsporum gypseum

69
Q

What are the two forms of fungi?

A

Yeast & Mold

70
Q

T/F: Cryptococcus is dimorphic

A

False.

71
Q

Which laboratory test would you use to distinguish definitively between Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus dysgalactiae?

A

Catalase test

72
Q

Feeding a high protein diet is most likely a predisposing factor for which bacteria in sheep?

A

Cornyebacterium renale

73
Q

Most bovine ringworm infections are caused by:

A

Trichophyton verrucosum

74
Q

Most porcine ringworm infections are caused by:

A

Microsporum nanum

75
Q

The two most common agents of equine ringworm are:

A

*Microsporum gypseum *and Trichophyton equinum

76
Q

“Woah, look at that sexy uracil” is only something that you could say about:

(DNA or RNA)

A

RNA

DNA does not contain uracil

77
Q

“Hey thymine you’re so fine. You’re so fine you blow my mind - hey thymine, hey, hey, hey thymine” is only something that you could say about:

(DNA or RNA)

A

DNA

78
Q

_______ is a molecular biology procedure for the in vitro amplification of DNA

A

PCR

79
Q

PCR relies on _____________, consisting of cycles of repeated heating & cooling of the reaction for DNA meltins and enzymatic replication of the DNA

A

thermal cycling

80
Q

In gel electrophoresis, the agarose gel is stained with ____________ after the run is complete

A

ethidium bromide

81
Q

Name the two types of asexual fungal spores:

A

Sporangiospores

Conidia

82
Q

Name the specimen that you would collect to help diagnose dermatophytosis and oncyomycosis

A

Hair, skin, and nails

Collect them in a paper envelope (dry conditions inhibit overgrowth of contaminants)

83
Q

Name the specimen you would collect to help diagnose histoplasmosis:

A

Urine

84
Q

Name the specimen you would collect to help diagnose cryptococcosis

A

CSF in a sterile tube

85
Q

Name the specimen you would collect to help diagnose systemic mycoses

A

transtracheal/bronchial washings

86
Q

Name the specimen you would collect to help diagnose nasal aspergillosis & guttural pouch mycosis

A

nasal flush in a sterile tube

87
Q

Name the specimen you would collect to help diagnose ocular blastomycosis

A

ocular fluid

88
Q

What species is the primary reservoir for Microsporum canis?

A

cats

89
Q

In dogs, Malassezia pachydermatis causes:

A

Otitis externa & Seborrheic dermatitis

90
Q

Fungal infections of the hair shaft are termed:

A

Piedra

91
Q

Name the microorganism responsible for sporotrichosis in a variety of animals

A

Sporothrix schenckii

92
Q

What is/are the reservoir(s) associated with Sporothrix schenckii?

A

plant material & soil worldwide

93
Q

Regarding Sporothrix schenckii:

examination of exudates is not usually very helpful, except in which species?

A

cats.

In cats, the exudate usually contains abundant yeast cells

94
Q

Name the microorganism responsible for these ulcerative pyo- or fibrogranulomatous skin infections in horses & dogs.

The condition is also called “Swamp Cancer” and “Florida Horse Leeches”

A

Pythium insidiosum

95
Q

Chromoblastomycosis is rare in nonhuman mammals. Large (~12µm) pigmented __________ bodies will be present

A

Chromoblastomycosis is rare in nonhuman mammals. Large (~12µm) pigmented sclerotic bodies will be present

96
Q

Mason-Fontana silver stain can be used to demonstrate ____________

A

melanin

97
Q

Coccidioidomycosis is caused by:

A

Coccidioides immitis and* Coccidioides posadasii*

the two differ in their preferred geographical habitats, but both are found in the western hemisphere only!

98
Q

Regarding Coccidioides: What is the main infected domestic animal?

A

dogs.

99
Q

How is Coccidioides typically transmitted?

A

inhalation of arthroconidia

Arthroconidia resist drying and tolerate heat and salinity better than competing soil organisms. Arthroconidia has also been bioweaponized!!

100
Q

What is the treatment of choice for Cryptococcus neoformans?

A

Fluconazole

  • “Crypto crypto pigeon poo,*
  • up a cat’s nose, then treat it with the flu*
  • (fluconazole)”*

Yep.

101
Q

What is Malassezia pachydermatis known to cause in West Highland terriers?

A

Seborrhoeic dermatitis and epidermal dysplasia

102
Q

What is the most common Aspergillus spp. in humans and animals?

A

Aspergillus fumigatus

103
Q

Pathogens that cause oomycosis belong to the kingdom:

A

Kingdom Stramenopila

**NOT KINGDOM FUNGI, biatch!

104
Q

Name the genus and species.

What species does it commonly infect?

What disease does it cause?

A

Trichophyton mentagrophytes

Commonly infects canines

Responsible for canine and porcine ringworm

Infection by T. mentagrophytes leads to intense inflammation (kerion)- swelling, ulceration and purulent exudation

105
Q

What disease is this? Describe its symptoms.

What fungus causes this?

A

Feline ringworm (usually asymptomatic)

Microsporum canis

106
Q

What fungus causes this?

A

Malassezia pachydermatis

107
Q

This fungus causes otitis externa and saborrheic dermatitis:

A

Malassezia pachydermatis

108
Q

Effective ____________________ helps to control the multiplication of the yeast Histoplasma capsulatum var. capsulatum

A

Effective cell-mediated immune response helps to control the multiplication of the yeast Histoplasma capsulatum var. capsulatum

109
Q

What is shown here and what disease are they associated with?

What lesion does it cause on the exterior of the body?

A

Sclerotic bodies of Chromoblastomycosis.

Warts on the exterior

110
Q

What’s that?

A

Curvularia spp.

111
Q

Identify.

A

Coccidiodes immitis arthrospores

112
Q

Name the organism responsible for these adorable little trees

A

Sporothrix schenckii

113
Q

Which one is Penicillium? Eh?

A

a

114
Q

In general (not species specific), what should be the top 3 organisms on your differential list for mastitis?

A
  1. Staphylococcus aureus
  2. Streptococcus agalactiae
  3. E. coli
115
Q

In general, what should be the top 2 organisms on your differential list for pectoral abscess?

A
  1. Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
  2. Staphylococcus aureus
116
Q

This saprophytic, encapsulated yeast usually found in air (indoor and outdoor) and sometimes on human skin was found in the ocular tissue of a 5-year-old Doberman Pinscher.

Identify the organism.

A

Cryptococcus albidus

**see case studies on eCollege**

117
Q

Coagulase converts _________ to thrombin, which converts __________ to ___________.

Why is coagulase important in Staphylococcus?

A

Coagulase converts prothrombin to thrombin, which converts fibrinogen to fibrin.

Most of the pathogenic Staphylococcus aureus are coagulase positive. Coating the surface of bacteria with fibrin protects them from phagocytosis.

118
Q

Why is **M protein **important in Streptococcus?

A

M Protein is a fibrillar surface protein and is important to Streptococcus because it _binds fibrinogen and Factor H (making it antiphagocytic_). M Protein is also _toxic to phagocytes_, further protecting Strep from phagocytosis

119
Q

**Navel ill of Foals **is caused by which bacterial organism?

A

Streptococcus equi subsp. zooepidemicus

Navel ill of Foals is a postnatal infection of foals <5 days old (the liiiiiittle guys). Hematogenous spread from the umbilicus leads to bacteremia or septicemia

120
Q

What is the typical chronic disease associated with Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis?

A

Granuloma

121
Q

Histoplasma capsulatum var. farciminosum causes what type of mycosis?

(cutaneous, subcutaneous, systemic)

A

Subcutaneous

Histoplasma capsulatum var. farciminosum causes epizootic lymphangitis (pseudoglanders), a chronic pyogranulomatous diseases of equine

122
Q

What is the cause of these tumor-like masses in the cat?

A

Pythium insidiosum

123
Q

I say “Septate hyphae bearing spherical to pyriform microconidia and tuberculate macroconidias (thick walled spheroidal cells),” you say:

A

Histoplasma capsulatum var. capsulatum

(the saprophytic phase - remember, H. capsulatum is a dimorphic fungi)

124
Q

Pulmonary lesions and osteomyelitis in a dog are likely caused by which saprophytic fungi?

A

Coccidioides immitis

125
Q

Histoplasma capsulatum var. farciminosum is known to cause _______________, a chronic pyogranulomatous disease of equines

A

epizootic lymphangitis (pseudoglanders)

126
Q

The purpose of the cell wall is to prevent damage to the underlying __________

A

protoplast

127
Q

T/F: The bacterial cytoplasm is composed of phospholipids, proteins, and sterols

A

False.

Sterols are in FUNGI ONLY.

128
Q

What is the purpose of nested PCR?

A

To increase specificity.

Reduces non specific binding in products from amplification of unexpected primer binding sites

129
Q

iron-binding compounds that can extract iron from lactoferrin or transferrin to supply iron to cells for growth are called:

A

siderophores

130
Q

Examples of antibiotic synergism?

A
  • Penicillins and aminoglycosides
  • Sulfonamides and trimethoprim
131
Q

Which class of antibiotics acts by disrupting the DNA?

A

Metronidazole

132
Q

Which class of antibiotics acts by inhibiting cell wall synthesis?

A

Beta-lactams

133
Q

Which class of antibiotics acts by disrupting the cell membrane?

A

Polymyxins

134
Q

What are some examples of antibacterial agents that prevent cross-linking of peptidoglycan chains, thereby inhibiting cell wall synthesis?

A
  • Penicillin and cephalosporins (β-lactam ring)
  • Bacitracin and vancomycin (without β-lactam ring)
135
Q

T/F: Penicillins are mainly active against fully grown Gram-positive bacteria

A

False.

Penicillins are mainly active against growing Gram-positive bacteria

136
Q

Name an antibiotic class that exhibits antimycobacterial activity and inhibits nucleic acid synthesis by blocking DNA-directed RNA polymerase

A

Rifampins

137
Q

Sterols are unique to ________

A

Sterols are unique to fungi

138
Q

T/F: Amphotericin B is an antibiotic

A

False.

Amphotericin B is an antifungal

139
Q

The presence of ________ with endospores is diagnostic for Coccidioides immitis

A

The presence of spherules with endospores is diagnostic for Coccidioides immitis

RUSVM Bacteriology (4 decks)

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