Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

What is the criteria for diagnosis of neurofibromatosis type I?

A

2 or more of the following:
- >= 6 cafe au lait spots
>> Prepubertal: >5mm
>> Postpubertal: >1.5cm
- >= 2 neurofibromas of any type or one plexiform neurofibroma
- >= 2 Lisch nodules of the iris
- Optic glioma
- Freckling of the inguinal or axillary region
- A distinctive bony lesion: sphenoid dysplasia, cortical thinning of the bone
- 1 confirmed case in a first-degree relative

C: Cafe au lait spots (at least 6)
A: Axillary freckling
F: Fibromas
E: Eye (Lisch nodules)
S: Skeletal lesions - sphenoid dysplasia
P: Parents - positive family history
O: Optic glioma

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2
Q

What is the mode of inheritance of neurofibromatosis type I?

A

Autosomal dominant
- 50% are the result of sporadic/new mutations

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3
Q

What is the mode of inheritance of neurofibromatosis type II?

A

Autosomal dominant

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4
Q

What is the criteria for diagnosis of neurofibromatosis type II?

A

Either:
- First degree relatives with NF-2 confirmed
- Any of the following:
>> Neurofibroma
>> Meningioma
>> Glioma
>> Schwannoma

OR

  • Bilateral vestibular schwannomas +/- Posterior subcapsular cataracts
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5
Q

What are the clinical features of tuberous sclerosis?

A
  • *Cutaneous lesions**
  • Ash leaf spots: better seen under Wood’s light
  • Shagreen patches: isolated raised plaque over the lower back and buttocks
  • Adenoma sebaceum: often malar distribution
  • *Brain/Neurological lesions**
  • Cerebral cortical tubers
  • Subependymal nodules
  • May evolve into giant cell astrocytomas >> obstructive hydrocephalus
  • Seizures (infantile spasms very responsive to vigabatrin >> look out for visual field defects in long-term use)
  • Mental retardation
  • *Others**
  • Cardiac rhabdomyomas
  • Kidney angiomyolipomas
  • Polycystic kidneys
  • Subungal fibromata
  • Phakomata: dense white areas on retina from local degeneration
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6
Q

What is the mode of inheritance of tuberous sclerosis?

A

Autosomal dominant

>> 50% are new/sporadic mutations

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7
Q

What is the mode of inheritance of Sturge-Weber syndrome?

A

Sturge-Weber disease is NOT inherited, but is congenital.

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8
Q

How does Sturge-Weber syndrome present?

A

Extensive port-wine stain involving the V1 area: usually present at birth

  • *Eye abnormalities**
  • Neonatal glaucoma

Leptomeningeal/brain abnormalities
- Angiomatous malformations of the brain
>> Contralateral hemiparesis
>> Contralateral hemiatrophy
- Seizures
- Mental retardation
- Microcephaly
- Cortical blindness

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9
Q

What are the possible investigations to help confirm the diagnosis of neurofibromatosis?

A
  • Slit lamp examination for Lisch nodules
  • MRI brain, orbits and spinal cord for neurological lesions
    (deep plexiform neurofibromas)
  • Genetic testing
  • Excision/biopsy of any lesions suggesting malignant changes
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10
Q

What is the general management plan for neurofibromatosis?

A
  • Genetic counseling
  • Mainly SUPPORTIVE
  • Annual comprehensive vision exams for signs of optic glioma (usually till 8 years)
  • Orthopedic surgery for skeletal abnormalities such as scoliosis, tibial bowing etc.

>> Screening for phaeochromocytoma with urine catecholamine measurement is indicated for any NF1 patient who will undergo general anesthesia (phaeochromocytoma is related to mutations of the genes NF-1, RET, VHL, SDHN and SDHD)

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11
Q

What are the possible causes of headache in children?

A

Primary

  • Migraine with aura
  • Migraine without aura
  • Tension-type headache
  • Cluster headache

Secondary
- Infectious
>> CNS infections
:: Meningitis
:: Encephalitis
:: Brain abscess
>> Non-CNS/ENT infections
:: Orbital abscess
:: Otitis media
:: Sinusitis
:: Pharyngitis
:: Dental infections
- Increased ICP
>> Tumours
>> Hydrocephalus
>> Intracranial hemorrhage
>> Idiopathic intracranial hypertension
- Others
>> Hypertensive encephalopathy
>> TMJ dysfunction
>> Poisoning: carbon monoxide, drugs etc.

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12
Q

What are the four patterns of headaches?

A
  1. Acute
  2. Acute-recurrent
  3. Chronic non-progressive
  4. Chronic progressive
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13
Q

What are the physical signs of increased intracranial pressure in children?

A
  • *General examination**
  • Irritability/Lethargy
  • Poor feeding >> weight loss?
  • Vomiting >> dehydration?
  • Episodic bradycardia and apnea
  • *Head examination**
  • Increased head circumference
  • Bulging fontanelle
  • Widened sutures: “cracked-pot” percussion
  • Scalp vein dilation
  • *Eye examination**
  • Sunset eye sign
  • Papilloedema
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14
Q

What are the red flag signs of headaches?

A
  • New headache
  • Worst headache of their lives
  • Acute onset
  • Recurrent and localized
  • Worse in the morning
  • Worse with bending over, coughing and straining
  • Associated with nausea and vomiting
  • Focal neurological symptoms
  • Disturbed sleep
  • Change in level of consciousness
  • Sudden mood changes
  • Constitutional symptoms
  • Withdrawal from social activities
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15
Q

What investigations can be helpful in determining the cause of headache in children?

A
  • *Blood tests**
  • CBC with differential count: signs of infection
  • CRP: infection
  • ESR: inflammation
  • TFT: to R/O Hashimoto’s encephalopathy

Other laboratory tests
- Lumbar puncture to rule out:
>> CNS infection
>> Subarachnoid hemorrhage
>> Pseudotumor cerebri/idiopathic intracranial HTN
- Always do imaging to R/O SOL before LP if possible

Neuroimaging
- CT for fast dx of intracranial hemorrhage and SOL
- MRI for details
- To look out for
>> Intracranial hemorrhage
>> Space-occupying lesions
>> Hydrocephalus
>> Congenital malformations
>> MRI evidence of CNS infections

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16
Q

What is meningism?

A
  • *Triad of:
  • Nuchal rigidity
  • Headache
  • Photophobia**

Indicates:

  • Meningitis
  • Subarachnoid hemorrhage
  • Other meningial diseases

Signs include
>> Kernig’s sign
>> Brudzinski’s sign

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17
Q

What are the presenting features of migraine?

A
  • *Character of headache**
  • Usually bilateral headache at the temporal/frontal area
  • Pulsatile headache
  • Duration 1-72 hours
  • Relief with rest in a quiet and dark place
  • *Associated symptoms**
  • *- Photophobia
  • Phonophobia**
  • GI disturbances: nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain
  • *Aura
  • Negative phenomena: hemianopia, scotoma
  • Positive phenomena: fortification spectra**
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18
Q

What are the presenting features of cluster headache?

A
  • *Character of headache**
  • Episodic headaches: several each day for 4-8 weeks
  • Followed by relief for 6-12 months
  • Deep, continuous and severe headache
  • *Associated symptoms**
  • *- Ipsilateral lacrimation
  • Rhinorrhea**
  • Miosis/ptosis
  • Conjunctival infection
  • Horner Syndrome
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19
Q

What is the management plan for migraine?

A

Conservative treatment
- Patient education
- Avoidance of triggers
>> Poor sleep
>> Stress
>> Caffeine
>> Chocolate
- Rule out menstrual migraine
- Encourage exercise
- Magnesium supplementation

Abortive treatment
- Analgesics: ibuprofen
- Triptans
>> Nasal sumatriptan
>> Nasal zolmitriptan

- Antiemetics if necessary

Prophylactic treatment
- Beta-blockers (e.g. propranolol)
- Cyproheptadine
- Anti-histamines
- Anti-depressants
>> Amitriptyline
>> Trazodone
- Anticonvulsants
>> Topiramate
>> Valproate
- Calcium channel blockers

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20
Q

What is the management for cluster headaches?

A
  • *Abortive treatment**
  • *- Oxygen
  • Triptans**
  • Ergot alkaloids
  • *Prophylactic treatment**
  • Calcium channel blockers
  • Anti-depressants
  • Anti-convulsants
  • *Surgical treatment**
  • Nerve blocks
  • Ablative procedures
  • Brain stimulation
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21
Q

What are the presenting features of tension-type headache?

A
  • Bilateral pressing tightness: aching, non-pulsatile
  • Lasts 30min - days
  • *- No nausea or vomiting**
  • *- Not aggravated by physical activity**
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22
Q

What are the symptoms of increased ICP?

A
  • Diffuse early morning headaches
  • Headache worsened by:
    >> Coughing
    >> Sneezing

    >> Valsalva maneuvre
  • Chronic progressive headache
  • Early morning vomiting
  • Irritability/lethargy
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23
Q

What is the age of peak incidence for meningitis in children?

A

6-12 months

90% of meningitis occur in children <5 years of age

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24
Q

What are the main causative organisms of meningitis in children?

A

AGE-DEPENDENT

Bacterial causes
- Neonates
>> E. coli, Klebsiella
>> GBS
>> Listeria
>> Others: staphylococcus aureus, H. influenza
- 1m - 6y
>> Neisseria meningitidis
>> Streptococcus pneumoniae
>> Hemophilus influenzae type B (Hib)
- Children >6y of age
>> Neisseria meningitidis
>> Streptococcus pneumoniae
- Adults
>> Streptococcus pneumoniae
>> Neisseria meningitidis
>> Gram-negative bacilli

Viral causes
- ENTEROVIRUSES (including polio)
- Herpes viruses:
>> HSV
>> CMV
>> VZV

Fungal causes

Parasitic causes

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25
Q

What is the management of suspected meningitis in a child?

A

Supportive treatment

  • Investigations
    >> Blood
    :: CBC with differential
    :: CRP/ESR
    :: RFT: for any SIADH/electrolytes/baseline
    :: LFT: baseline
    :: Blood culture
    ** >> Lumbar puncture
    :: For definitive diagnosis**
    :: Stain and culture
    :: WBC count and differential
    :: RBC count
    :: Glucose
    :: Protein
    :: Acid-fast stain if TB suspected
    :: Latex agglutination/PCR if viral suspected
    >> Neuroimaging before LP
    >> Urine in neonates
    :: Urinalysis
    :: Culture and stain
  • Empirical antibiotics
    >> After taking specimens for culture
    >> To cover penicillin-resistant pneumococcus and Neisseria meningitidis
    >> **Typical regimen: IV penicillin/3rd gen ceph (cefotaxime) + IV vancomycin
  • +/- Dexamethasone to help decrease neurological sequelae**
  • Acyclovir for HSV meningitis (when proven)

Maintain high alert for hydration status and electrolyte disturbances as CNS infections may precipitate SIADH – fluid restriction if any related concerns

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26
Q

What are the normal CSF profiles for children and infants respectively?

A
  • *Newborn**
  • WBC: 0-30
  • Neutrophil %: 2-3
  • RBC: 0-2
  • Glucose: 30-120 mg/dL
  • Protein: 20-150 mg/dL
  • *Children**
  • WBC: 0-6
  • Neutrophil %: 0
  • RBC: 0-2
  • Glucose: 40-80 mg/dL
  • Protein: 20-30 mg/dL
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27
Q

What is the typical CSF profile of bacterial meningitis?

A

Turbid CSF
Elevated opening pressure (>20cmH2O)

WBC: >1000
Neutrophil %: 2-3
RBC: 0-10
Glucose: 100 mg/dL (increased)

>> Characterized by neutrophil-dominant extremely high WBC counts with decreased glucose and increased protein concentrations

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28
Q

What is the typical CSF profile for viral meningitis?

A

Clear CSF
Normal opening pressure

WBC: 100-500
Neutrophil %: 30 mg/dL (normal or increased slightly)
Protein: 50-100 (normal or increased slightly)

>> Characterized by mildly elevated lymphocyte-dominant WBC counts with normal glucose and protein concentrations

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29
Q

What is the typical CSF profile for HSV meningitis?

A

Clear CSF
Normal opening pressure

WBC: 100-1000
Neutrophil %: 30 mg/dL
Protein: >75 mg/dL

>> HSV is characterized by increased WBC count in CSF

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30
Q

What is the typical CSF profile for TB meningitis?

A

Turbid/clear CSF

WBC: slightly elevated/variable
Neutrophil %: Lymphocyte-dominant
RBC: normal
Glucose: elevated +++++
Protein: elevated +++++

>> Characterized by mildly elevated lymphocyte-dominant WBC counts with extremely elevated glucose and protein concentrations

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31
Q

What are the complications of meningitis?

A

Short-term
- SIADH
- Brian abscess
- Subdural empyema/effusion
- Disseminated infection
>> Osteomyelitis
>> Septic arthritis
>> Abscesses
- Shock/DIC (disseminated intravascular coagulopathy)
>> Meningococcemia!

  • *Long-term**
  • Hearing loss
  • Neuromotor/cognitive delay
  • Learning disabilities
  • Neurological deficits
  • Seizures
  • Hydrocephalus
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32
Q

What are some differential diagnoses for infectious encephalitis?

A
  • ADEM (acute disseminated encephalomyelitis)
  • Trauma/intracranial hemorrhage
  • Malignancy
  • Autoimmune encephalitis
    >> NMDAR antibodies
    >> VGKC antibodies
  • Metabolic encephalopathy
    >> Hypoglycemia
    >> Uremia
    >> Hashimoto’s encephalopathy
    >> Inborn errors of metabolism
  • Toxic encephalopathy
    >> Lead poisoning
    >> Reye syndrome from aspirin
    >> Other drugs
  • Idiopathic intracranial hypertension (pseudotumor cerebri)
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33
Q

What are the possible causes of hydrocephalus in childhood?

A
  • *Congenital**
  • Congenital cerebral aqueduct stenosis
  • Secondary gliosis from congenital infection
  • Dandy-Walker malformation
  • Arnold-Chiari malformation
  • Myelomeningocele
  • Craniosynotosis

Acquired
- CNS infections: Meningitis
- Intracranial hemorrhage
>> Subarachnoid hemorrhage
>> Intraventricular hemorrhage
- Intracranial masses
>> Arteriovenous malformations
>> Neoplasms/SOL
- Craniosyntosis

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34
Q

What is the most common cause of seizures in children?

A

Febrile seizures

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35
Q

What is the typical age for febrile seizures?

A

6 months - 6 years

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36
Q

What are the criteria for atypical/complex febrile seizures?

A

Any one of the following:

  • Duration >15 minutes
  • Focal features/focal onset
  • Prolonged post-ictal phase
  • Neurological deficit after seizure
  • Recurrent seizures: >1 episode in 24-hour period
  • Previous neurological impairments
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37
Q

What is a typical febrile seizure?

A
  • Short (almost always >15mins)
  • Either a GTC or a generalized clonic seizure
  • No signs of CNS infections or inflammation
  • No history of non-febrile seizures
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38
Q

What do we look for in the history for a child with febrile seizures?

A
  • Focus of fever
  • Description of seizure: focal VS. generalized
  • History of LOC
  • History of trauma
  • Medications
  • Family history
  • Development
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39
Q

What is the management for febrile seizures?

A

REASSURE THE PATIENTS AND PARENTS

  • Febrile seizures do NOT cause brain damage
    - Very small risk of developing epilepsy
    >> 9% in child with multiple risk factors
    :: Neurological abnormalities before seizure
    :: Multiple simple febrile seizures
    :: Family history of complex febrile seizures
    >> 2% in simple febrile seizures
    >> 1% in general population
    - 33% of recurrence
    >> Mostly within the first year
    >> Mostly in children <1 year of age

Treat the underlying cause of fever
Antipyretics for symptoms only: do NOT prevent seizures!

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40
Q

What are the possible causes of seizures in children?

A

- Febrile seizures

- Idiopathic/Epileptic syndromes

- Intracranial causes
>> Congenital causes
:: Neurocutaneous syndromes (TS)
:: Anatomic abnormalities
~ Cortical dysplasia
~ Schizencephaly
~ Polymicrogyria
>> Infections
:: Meningitis
:: Encephalitis
:: Cerebral abscess
>> Trauma
>> Vascular
:: Stroke
:: Hemorrhage
:: Arteriovenous malformation
>> Hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy
>> Tumours

- Extracranial causes
>> Metabolic
:: Hypoglycemia
:: Hyponatremia
:: Hypocalcemia
:: Storage diseases
>> Systemic hypoxia
>> Toxins and toxin withdrawal

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41
Q

What is West syndrome?

A

Onset at 4-8 months of age

  • *Triad of the following:
  • Infantile spasms (flexion VS. extension salaam spasms)
  • Psychomotor developmental arrest
  • Hypsarrhythmia**
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42
Q

What is Lennox-Gastaut syndrome?

A

Onset at 1-7 years (3-5 years) of age

  • *Triad of the following:
  • Multiple seizure types
  • Diffuse cognitive dysfunction
  • EEG: Slow generalized spike and slow waves**
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43
Q

What are the possible treatments for West syndrome/infantile spasms?

A
  • Vigabatrin (particularly useful for tuberous sclerosis; be aware of visual field defects)
  • ACTH/corticotropin
  • Corticosteroids
  • Benzodiazepines
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44
Q

What are the possible treatments for Lennox-Gastaut syndrome?

A

Ketogenic diet

  • *Anti-epileptic drugs**
  • Valproate
  • Lamotrigine
  • Topiramate
  • Clobazam
  • Benzodiazepines
  • >> Avoid carbamazepines as they may precipitate drop attacks CNX stimulation*
  • *Epileptic surgery**
  • Corpus callosotomy
  • Lesional epilepsy surgery
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45
Q

What are the side effects of phenytoin?

A
  • *Systemic and Dermatological**
  • Stevens-Johnsons syndrome
  • Toxic epidermal necrolysis
  • Gum/gingival hypertrophy
  • SLE-like symptoms
  • Hypotension
  • Teratogenic
  • *Neurological**
  • Peripheral neuropathy
  • Headache
  • Nystagmus
  • Sedation
  • *Gastroenterological**
  • Nausea and vomiting
  • Constipation
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46
Q

What are the side effects of valproate?

A
  • *Systemic**
  • Alopecia
  • Thrombocytopenia
  • Tremor
  • Hypothermia
  • *Neurological**
  • Headache
  • Somnolence
  • Diplopia
  • Encephalopathy
  • *Gastroenterological**
  • Nausea and vomiting
  • Diarrhea
  • Hepatic failure
  • Pancreatitis
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47
Q

How is the prognosis for West syndrome?

A

Poor

  • 50-90% develop other seizures
  • 27-50% progress to Lennox-Gastaus syndrome
  • Developmental retardation in 85%
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48
Q

How is the prognosis for Lennox-Gastaut syndrome?

A

Poor

  • Poor response to therapy
  • Neurodevelopmental arrest/regression
  • Behavioural disorders
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49
Q

What are the presenting features of juvenile myoclonic epilepsy?

A

Age of onset: adolescence-adulthood (12-16 years)

Types of seizures

  • Myoclonic seizures within first hour of waking (flinging cereal around at breakfast)
  • Daytime generalized tonic-clonic seizures
  • Absence seizures
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50
Q

What is the management for juvenile myoclonic epilepsy?

A

Life-long treatment of AEDs

  • Valproate (1st line)
  • Lamotrigine
  • Topiramate
  • Levetiracetam
  • Benzodiazepines
51
Q

How is the prognosis for juvenile myoclonic epilepsy?

A

Excellent

  • Good control with life-long valproate
  • Minimal effect on development due to later onset
52
Q

What is the typical EEG pattern for infantile spasms?

A

Hypsarrhythmia (VF) in inter-ictal EEG

53
Q

What is the typical EEG pattern for absence seizures/childhood absence epilepsy?

A

Generalized 3/second spike and wave discharge (VT)

54
Q

What are the presenting features of childhood absence epilepsy?

A

Age of onset: 4-12 years (peak at 6-7 years)

Types of seizure

  • Absence seizure
  • Can be induced by hyperventilation
55
Q

What is the management for childhood absence epilepsy?

A
  • Valproate
  • Ethosuximide

>> Avoid carbamazepine and phenytoin as they may precipitate absence seizures

56
Q

What are the presenting features of benign childhood epilepsy with centrotemporal spikes (BCECTS) or benign Rolandic seizures?

A

Age of onset: 4-10 years

Types of seizure

  • Simple partial seizure involving the tongue, mouth, face and upper extremities
  • Usually at sleep-wake transitions
  • Generalized tonic-clonic seizures IN SLEEP
57
Q

What is the typical EEG pattern for benign Rolandic seizures?

A

Repetitive spikes in centrotemporal area with normal background

58
Q

What is the management for benign Rolandic seizures?

A

No medication is necessary if seizures are infrequent

Frequent seizures requiring AED:

  • Carbamazepine
  • Valproate
  • Gabapentin
59
Q

How is the prognosis for benign Rolandic seizures/BCECTS?

A

Excellent

  • ~15% of all childhood seizures (non-febrile seizures)
  • Remission in adolescence in almost all cases
60
Q

Name the age of onset of the following common seizure syndromes of childhood:

  1. West syndrome/infantile spasms
  2. Lennox-Gastaut syndrome
  3. Benign Rolandic epilepsy
  4. Panayiotopoulos type, early onset benign childhood occipital epilepsy
  5. Gastaut type, benign childhood occipital epilepsy
  6. Childhood absence epilepsy
  7. Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy
A
  1. 4-8 months
  2. 1-7 years (peak 3-5 years)
  3. 4-10 years
  4. 1-14 years (peak 5. 3-16 years (peak 8-9 years)
  5. 4-12 years (peak 6-7 years)
  6. Adolescence to adulthood (peak 12-16 years)
61
Q

Name the 2 epileptic syndromes associated with nocturnal seizures/seizures during sleep.

A

Panayiotopoulos type of benign childhood early-onset occipital epilepsy - nocturnal seizures of vomiting and eye deviation +/- visual symptoms

Benign Rolandic seizures: associated with GTC during sleep

62
Q

What is the definition of status epilepticus?

A

Seizures lasting for more than 30 minutes from which the patient does not regain consciousness

63
Q

What is the management of status epilepticus?

A
  • *5 minutes**: PR diazepam/IM buccal midazolam
  • -> try to achieve IV access as soon as possible

5-20 minutes/once IV access achieved: IV lorazepam 0.1mg/kg or IV diazepam 0.3mg/kg

>20 minutes: IV phenytoin in >2 years; IV phenobarbital in <2 years
> Also pentobarbitone/thiopentone

64
Q

What is the definition of refractory status epilepticus?

A

Failure to respond to 2-3 AEDs in combination with seizure duration of at least 60 minutes

65
Q

How do we manage a convulsing child upon admission to AED?

A
  • Confirm ABC and resuscitate as necessary
  • Achieve IV access as soon as possible
  • Check Hmstix for hyper/hypoglycemia and treat glucose imbalance if abnormal
  • Terminate seizure with AED if still convulsing
    >> PR diazepam
    >> Buccal midazolam
    >> IV lorazepam: first choice if IV access attained
    >> IV diazepam
    >> IV phenobarbitone: >2 years of age
    >> IV phenytoin: >2 years of age
    >> General anesthesia/pentobarbitone/thiopentone if all above fail
66
Q

What are the possible complications of status epilepticus?

A
  • *Cerebral complications**
  • Hypoxia
  • Cerebral edema
  • Raised intracranial pressure
  • Cerebral venous thrombosis
  • Cerebral infarction
  • *Cardiopulmonary complications**
  • Hypotension
  • Hypertension
  • Arrhythmia
  • Cardiac failure
  • Respiratory failure
  • Aspiration
  • *Metabolic complications**
  • Hyperpyrexia
  • Dehydration
  • Electrolyte disturbances
  • Lactic acidosis
  • Rhabdomyolysis
  • *Others**
  • Acute renal failure
  • Acute hepatic failure
  • Fractures
  • Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy
67
Q

Patients with which kind of brain lesion are best candidates for epileptic surgery?

A

Mesangial temporal sclerosis

68
Q

What is acute disseminated encephalomyelitis?

A

Immune-mediated inflammatory disorder of the CNS associated with widespread demyelination affecting the white matter of the brain and spinal cord PRECEDED BY A VIRAL INFECTION OR VACCINATION

If long-term/chronic, think multiple sclerosis or neuromyelitis optica

69
Q

What are the possible presenting features of ADEM (acute disseminated encephalomyelitis)?

A
  • *General**
  • Headache
  • Nausea and vomiting
  • Pyrexia
  • Malaise
  • *Neurological**
  • Rapid onset of encephalopathy with multifocal deficits
  • Seizures
  • Motor: cerebellar ataxia, pyramidal syndrome
  • Brainstem involvement
70
Q

What are the possible investigation findings of ADEM?

A

LP: variable pleocytosis with oligoclonal bands

MRI: large, multifocal, poorly-marginated regions of demyelination affecting bilateral white matter and deep grey matter (basal ganglia, thalamus)

71
Q

What is the management plan for ADEM?

A

- Supportive treatment
- High-dose corticosteroids

>> Prognosis favourable

72
Q

What is the definition of cerebral palsy?

A

Abnormality of movement and posture, causing activity limitation, attributed to non-progressive disturbances that occurred in the developing fetal or infant brain

>> Usually for brain injuries up to 2 years of age
>> After an acquired brain injury

73
Q

What is the most common cause of motor impairment in children?

A

Cerebral palsy (2 per 1000 live births)

74
Q

What are the four types of cerebral palsy?

A
  • Spastic
    >> Diplegic
    >> Hemiplegic
    >> Quadriplegic
  • Dyskinetic
    >> Choreoathetoid
    >> Dystonic
  • Ataxic
  • Mixed
75
Q

What are the possible causes of hypotonia in a baby?

A

Central (Cerebral and spinal)
- Antenatal/Genetic
>> Chromosomal
:: Down’s syndrome
:: Prader-Willi syndrome
:: Fragile X syndrome
>> Congenital infections
:: Toxoplasmosis
:: Rubella
:: CMV
:: Herpes
:: Syphilis
>> Congenital CNS malformations
- Perinatal/Postnatal
>> Birth asphyxia
>> Intracranial hemorrhage
>> Metabolic causes
:: Symptomatic hypoglycemia
:: Kernicterus
:: Hypocalcemia
>> Endocrine causes
:: Hypothyroidism
:: Hypopituitarism

Peripheral
- Motor neuron/anterior horn cell
>> Spinal muscular atrophy
>> Polio
- Peripheral nerve
>> Charcot-Marie-Tooth syndrome
>> Drugs: phenytoin, isoniazid
- Neuromuscular junction
>> Congenital myasthenia gravis
- Muscle
>> Myopathy
:: Congenital
:: Metabolic
~ Glycogen storage
~ Lipid metabolism
~ Inflammatory: dermatomyositis
>> Muscular dystrophy
>> Dystrophy myotonica
>> Mitochondrial diseases

76
Q

What are the causes of hypotonia that respond rapidly to treatment/are easily reversible?

A
  • Infection
  • Intracranial bleeding
  • Hydrocephalus
  • Metabolic causes: hypoglycemia
  • Electrolyte disturbances: hypokalemia, acidemia, hypermagnesemia
  • Iatrogenic: drugs and toxins
  • Seizures
77
Q

What is the most common cause of neuromuscular disease in children?

A

Duchenne muscular dystrophy

78
Q

What is the second most common cause of neuromuscular disease in children?

A

Spinal muscular atrophy

79
Q

What are the presenting features of Werdnig-Hoffman disease/Type I spinal muscular atrophy/SMA?

A

Antenatal: decreased fetal movements

At birth: arthrogryposis

  • *Postnatal**:
  • Lack of antigravity power in hip flexors
  • Extended posture
  • Intercostal recession with bell-shaped torso
  • Paradoxical breathing
  • FASCICULATION OF THE TONGUE
  • Signs of hypotonia: slips under armpits, inverted U sign, scarf sign, knee-ear sign
  • Absent deep tendon reflexes

The baby never sits up without support
>> ALERT BUT FLOPPY BABY + TONGUE FASCICULATIONS: think SMA

80
Q

What is the prognosis for Werdnig-Hoffman disease/Type I SMA?

A

Poor

  • Death from respiratory failure within 12 months
81
Q

What is arthrogryposis?

A

Positional deformities of the limbs with contractures of at least two joints

82
Q

Which gene is affected in spinal muscular atrophy?

A

SMN-1 and SMN-2 genes at chromosome 5 (5q13)

83
Q

What is the mode of inheritance of spinal muscular atrophy?

A

Autosomal recessive

84
Q

What is the pattern of muscular atrophy/wasting for peripheral neuropathies?

A

DISTAL

>> Proximal for muscular diseases

85
Q

What will be seen on nerve biopsy in a patient with Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease?

A

“Onion-bulb formation” due to hypertrophic nerves by attempts of remyelination

86
Q

What are the presenting features of Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease?

A
  • Distal atrophy in legs more than arms: champagne legs
  • Pes cavus
  • Rare sensory loss distally with hyporeflexia
87
Q

What is the mode of inheritance of Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease?

A

Mostly autosomal dominant

88
Q

What is the typical clinical course of Guillan-Barre syndrome?

A

Usually 2-3 weeks after URTI or campylobacter gastroenteritis

  • Ascending symmetric muscle weakness
  • Areflexia
  • Autonomic involvement
  • Distal sensory symptoms rare
  • Risk of aspiration if bulbar muscles are affected
  • Risk of respiratory depression if respiratory muscles are affected

Maximum muscle weakness at 2-4 weeks after onset
Full recovery in 95% but takes up to 2 years

89
Q

What is the CSF profile for GBS?

A

CSF protein markedly raised but may not be seen until the second week of illness

90
Q

What is the management for GBS

A

SUPPORTIVE

  • Steroids have NO beneficial effect
91
Q

What is Bell’s palsy?

A

Isolated lower motor neuron paresis of the CNVII leading to facial weakness

  • HSV post-infection (more in adults)
  • Hypertension: significant association between Bell’s palsy and sarcoidosis
92
Q

What is the major complication of Bell’s palsy?

A

Conjunctival infection due to incomplete eye closure on blinking

93
Q

What are the possible differential diagnoses for Bell’s palsy?

A
  • Compression at the cerebellopontine angle, especially if CNVIII is involved
  • Bilateral: sarcoidosis, Lyme disease
94
Q

What are the common presenting features of juvenile myasthenia?

A

Usually after 10 years of age

  • Ophthalmoplegia
  • Ptosis
  • Myopathic facies: loss of facial expression
  • Difficulty in chewing
  • Proximal muscle weakness

>> Shakes hands with mom for weakness of mother (X-linked?)

95
Q

How can we diagnose juvenile myasthenia?

A
  • Improvement following administration of IV edrophonium
  • Positive acetylcholine receptor antibioties (60-80%)
  • Anti-muscle-specific kinase antibodies (anti-MuSK)
96
Q

What is the management of juvenile myasthenia?

A
  • Anti-muscarinic drugs: neostigmine, pyridostigmine
  • Steroids: predinosolone
  • Immunosuppressants: azathioprine

Crises: plasma exchange

Thymectomy if:

  • Thymoma present
  • Response to medical therapy unsatisfactory
97
Q

What is the mode of inheritance of Duchenne muscular dystrophy?

A

X-linked recessive (1/3rd: sporadic)

>> Deletion at Xp21 site – dystrophin

98
Q

What is the average age of diagnosis of Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD)?

A

5.5 years – the child is normal at birth

99
Q

What are the presenting features of DMD?

A
  • Language and/or motor delay
  • Waddling gait
  • Gower’s sign: need to turn prone to rise
  • Calf pseudohypertrophy: replacement of muscle by fat and fibrous tissue
  • Hyporeflexia
100
Q

What is the prognosis of DMD?

A

Poor

  • No longer ambulant by 10-14 years
  • Life expectancy: late twenties
    - Cause of death
    >> Respiratory failure
    >> Cardiomyopathy
101
Q

What is the pathophysiology of DMD?

A

Missing dystrophin >> fragile muscle fibres >> muscle fibre breakdown >> necrosis and regeneration

102
Q

What investigations are useful to help diagnose DMD?

A
  • *Bloods**
  • LFT: elevated transaminase
  • CK/CPK: elevated (50-100 times)
  • LDH: elevated (CK = CPK…)

Electromyography (EMG)

Muscle biopsy

Genetic studies: molecular genetic studies for mutations of the DMD1 gene

103
Q

What are the complications of DMD?

A
  • Flexion contractures
  • Scoliosis
  • Osteopenia of immobility
  • Pathological fractures
  • Respiratory failure and cardiomyopathy
104
Q

What is the management plan for DMD?

A

Supportive

  • OT and PT
  • Bone and cardiac health monitoring
  • Vitamin D and bisphosphonates for bone health
  • Steroids: prednisone, deflazacort
  • Surgical: scoliosis, contracture release
  • Gene therapy: trials underway
105
Q

What is Becker muscular dystrophy?

A

Some functional dystrophin produced
- less severe than DMD

106
Q

What is the prognosis/clinical course for Becker muscular dystrophy?

A

Age of onset: 11 years

  • Inability to walk: late twenties
  • Life expectancy: late forties - normal
107
Q

What are the presenting features of dermatomyositis?

A
  1. Symmetric proximal muscle weakness: progressive over weeks/months
  2. Elevated muscle enzymes: CK, aldolase, AST, ALT, LDH
  3. EMG changes: high frequency repetitive discharge
  4. Muscle biopsy: inflammatory infiltrate and atrophy
  5. Typical rash of dermatomyositis
    • Gottron’s papules
    • Gottron’s sign
    • Heliotrope rash
    • Shawl sign
    • Mechanic hands
    • Periungal erythema
108
Q

What are the systemic complications/features of dermatomyositis?

A
  • *Cardiac**
  • Conduction defects and arrhythmia
  • Ventricular hypertrophy
  • Congestive heart failure
  • Pericarditis
  • *Respiratory**
  • Respiratory muscle weakness
  • Interstitial lung disease
  • Aspiration pneumonia
  • *Gastrointestinal**
  • GERD
  • Dysphagia
  • Swallowing problems if pharyngeal muscles involved
  • *Increased risk for malignancies**
  • Breast
  • Ovarian
  • Lung
  • Colon
109
Q

What is the management plan for dermatomyositis?

A
  • Physiotherapy/occupational therapy
  • Drugs
    >> High dose steroids and taper
    >> Immunosuppressants: MTX, azathioprine, cyclosporin
    >> IVIG
    ** >> Hydroxychloroquine for rash**
  • Malignancy monitoring/surveillance
110
Q

What is the typical age of onset for dermatomyositis?

A

5-10 years

111
Q

What is the mode of inheritance of dystrophia myotonica?

A

Autosomal dominant: nucleotide triplet repeat expansion

>> Always examine mother for myotonia as well

  - Slow release of handshake
  - Difficulty releasing the tightly clasped first
112
Q

What are the systemic involvements of dystrophia myotonica?

A
  • Cataracts and retinal degeneration in adults
  • Baldness and testicular atrophy in males
  • Infertility
  • Diabetes
  • Conduction defects of the heart (90%)
    >> First degree heart block
    >> Atrial arrhythmias
    - Cardiomyopathy: major cause of death
113
Q

What is the major cause of death in dystrophia myotonica?

A

Cardiomyopathy

114
Q

What are the presenting features of dystrophia myotonica?

A
  • Ptoisis
  • Bifacial weakness
  • Frontal baldness
  • Myopathic facies
  • DISTAL muscular weakness in contrast to other myopathies
  • Stepping gait
  • Myotonia: delayed relaxation of muscles after exertion
115
Q

What is the management for dystrophia myotonica?

A
  • No cure
  • Phenytoin for myotonia
116
Q

What is the mode of inheritance of Friedreich ataxia?

A

Autosomal recessive
- Trinucleotide repeat disorder

117
Q

What are the presenting features of Friedreich ataxia?

A
  • Worsening ataxia
  • Distal wasting of legs
  • LL areflexia with up-going plantar response
  • Pes cavus
  • Dysarthria

>> DDx: similar to Charcot-Marie-Tooth

In Frederich ataxia, there is:

  • Abnormal propioception
  • Upgoing plantar response
  • Optic atrophy
118
Q

What are the complications of Friedreich ataxia?

A
  • Kyphoscoliosis
  • Cardiomyopathy
  • *- Death at 40-50 years due to cardiorespiratory compromise**
119
Q

What is the mode of inheritance of ataxia telangiectasia?

A

Autosomal recessive – DNA repair disorder

120
Q

What are the presenting features of ataxia telangiectasia?

A
  • Motor developmental delay
  • Oculomotor problems: incoordinated ocular pursuit of objects – oculomotor dyspraxia
  • Difficulty with balance and coordination
  • Telangiectasia ~4 years of age
    >> Conjunctiva
    >> Neck
    >> Shoulders
  • Increased susceptibility to infection: IgA surface antibody defect
  • Increased risk for ALL (~10%)
  • Raised AFP (alpha-fetoprotein)
121
Q

What is the typical age of onset for Freidreich’s ataxia?

A

8-15 years

122
Q

What is MELAS?

A
  • *- Myoclonic Epilepsy
  • Lactic Acidosis
  • Stroke-like episodes**
123
Q

Name four common neural tube defects.

A
  1. Anencephaly
  2. Encephalocele
  3. Spina bifida
  4. Meningocele, myelomeningocele
124
Q

What eye disease is Sturge-Weber disease associated with?

A

Glaucoma