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VetMed Year 4- Term 2 > PMPVH 20/10/14 > Flashcards

PMPVH 20/10/14 Flashcards

1
Q

Define Traceability

A

The possibility to identify and follow a food item along the foodchain. - Tracing-forward –> re call of products - Tracing-backwards –> identify source of problem

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2
Q

A food safety criteria defines the …

A

acceptability of a product to be put on the market. Some hazards have a FSC of ABSENCE (e.g. salmonella) so have thresholds

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3
Q

Salmonella has an ________trend

A

Decreasing/ Downward trend. Still no1 for total number of outbreaks in EU

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4
Q

Most commonly reported zoonosis in EU is

A

Campylobacter - 280,000 in UK / year. 65% of chicken carcass’ testing +ve Thinning is associated with slowly increasing trend of Campylobacter - removing chickens at different times depending on weight gain etc.

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5
Q

Main source of Campylobacter outbreaks

A

Broiler meat = 44% Raw milk = 20%

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6
Q

Difference between outbreak and epidermic

A

Outbreak: Cases clustered in time and space, occurring at a higher level than expected. Epidemic: Occurance of more cases than expected, over period of time

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7
Q

Epidemic curve time interval should be set at

A

1/3rd or less of incubation period

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8
Q

Sharp increase/Sharp decrease epidemic curve indicative of

A

Point source (1 incubation period)

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9
Q

Who is in charge of outbreak investigation

A

Local authority- statutory responsibility to control outbreaks and powers to control. Informs Food Standards Agency Have Incident control team over seeing (ICT)

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10
Q

Management of food safety in abattoirs is based on ____ and ____ protocols

A

HACCP and GMP HACCP= Hazard specific GMP= Not Hazard specific

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11
Q

The two knife technique at harvest stage of process is an example of a

A

GMP (Non-hazard specific) 1 knife to cut outside 1 cleaner knife to cut inside

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12
Q

Having a critical limitfor the scalding process in pork harvest is an example of a

A

HACCP (Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Point) for Salmonella HACCPs need estabilishment of critical points, monitoring, actions, verification, documentation

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13
Q

Food safety Criteria refers to whether the product is

A

Safe at the end of the process. Acceptibility to be put on the market. Based on risk assessment

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14
Q

Microbiological Criteria =

A

The acceptability of a product or process based on the presence/absence of micro-organisms Part of GHPs

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15
Q

Submission rate (and appropriate target)

A

This is the proportion of cows which are eligible to be bred during a 21 or 24-day period that actually are bred. On well managed farms this should be well over 70%. However, it is easily manipulated by presenting more cows for AI.

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16
Q

Which bovine abortions need to be reported to AHVLA? Why?

A

Any abortion prior to day 271. Brucellosis testing. Investigation on cows that are NOT contributing to bulk milk tank (as this is routinely tested)

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17
Q

When do the following pathogens cause abortion? a) ibr b) bvdv c) lepto d) neospora

A

a) IBR: throughout gestation b) tends to cause early returns to service (up to month 6) c) lepto: late term month 5 to term d) neospora: 3 to 8 months

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18
Q

Flaccid udder in indicative of what kind of infectious cause of abortion

A

Leptospirosis. Abortion late term (5 months to term)

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19
Q

Why is vaginitis seen with IBR?

A

Herpes virus. Fatal pneumonia. Conjuncitivits/ Occular discharge. Pyreoxa up to 42 degrees.

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20
Q

What % of calfs are typically PI’s in infected herd

A

1-2%. First trimester of pregnancy. PI’s may be small, stunted and sickly.

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21
Q

When would BVDV cause haemorragic diarrhoea

A

BVDV does not cause diarrhoea. In USA = Type II and PI calfs with mucosal disease may have haemorrgaic diarrhoea

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22
Q

What age do you want cow to a) be served at b) calve at

A

Aim for calving at 24 months old so service at 15 minutes. VERY DIFFICULT. Weight 375kg

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23
Q

Calving scores What target for cows and heifers?

A

0: no hand touches calf 1: hand touches but no rope 2., rope used gentle pull 4: caesarean section SCORE 3 AND 4: <15% heifer

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24
Q

Live birth rate targets

A

% cows born alive AND survive for 24 hours Cow: 97% Heifer: 92%

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25
Q

How long to wait for calving

A

Don’t be afraid to wait. Cow: 1 hour Heifer: 1.5 hour

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26
Q

How much colostrum

A

6 litres in first 12 hours 6 pints in first 6 hours Absorption is better when suckled from dam or consumed in presence of dam

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27
Q

Human intervention of colostrum

A

2 litres in 1 hour 2 litres within 6 hours 2 litres within the next 6 hours total of 6 litres within 12 hours

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28
Q

Storage of colostrum

A

Freeze immediately - thaw in warm water Refrigerate at 4 degrees for 24 hours

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29
Q

Colostrum testing

A

Total protein Zinc sulphate stability test IN CALFS (BLOOD SAMPLE 2-7 DAYS OLD) Clotted Red Top tube for serum OR REFRACTOMETER

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30
Q

Colour tube for colostrum testing of calfs

A

2-7 days old. Test healthy calves RED TUBE Zinc sulphate stability test of TP

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31
Q

Refractometer reading for good colostrum

A

TEST CALF!! 55g/l or 5.5g/dl or above

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32
Q

Why should colostrum testing be done on healthy calves

A

If calf ill or scouring = dehydrated therefore serum protein on refractometer will be higher anyway. TEST HEALTHY CALFS SHOULD BE 5.5 OR 55

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33
Q

How much calf milk replacer

A

Increased in cold weather 0.5kg/day should be fed twice a day 2Litres twice a day 125g/litre

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34
Q

Voluntary Waiting Period / Earliest Service date should be

A

Target = 42 days

35
Q

Calving to Conception interval target

A

85 days

36
Q

KPI for 120 day in calf rate

A

>64% % of cows pregnant at 120 days post calving

37
Q

210 day not in calf rate

A

<7% Very concerning

38
Q

When is it worse for a cow to be culled

A

Within first 100 days of lactation (most productive) Heifers leaving the herd = worst Rate each factor out of 10 e.g. lameness, cell counts, kicks in parlour, infertile

39
Q

Milk fat % is indicates

A

Acidosis - SARA Milk protein: Long term energy deficient (not normally too little protein in diet) -trough space, palatable food, silage face management

40
Q

Minimum legal stocking density for a) calves 150kg

A

Calves up to 150 kg = 1.5 m2 but should be more Calves more than 150 kg should have 2 metres2

41
Q

When testing total serum protein from calves, if ___% of testing calves have serum protein < 5.5g/L FPT is a herd problem

A

17-25% BORDERLINE PROBLEM >33% HERD PROBLEM

42
Q

Target for number of pigs per sow per year

A

target is 24-26. 2.4 litters a year

43
Q

Pre weaning mortaility target

A

should be below 6-8% >10%= welfare problem NOT THIS IS PRE WEANING. POST WEANING MORTALITY GROWERS <3-5%

44
Q

Pigs/Poultry food accounts for ____% cost of production

A

food is 55% of cost of production in pigs and poultry

45
Q

Killing out % for pigs should be

A

should be >72% (things that aren’t used in UK are normally exported)

46
Q

Target days to slaughter for pigs

A

6 months

47
Q

if potential lean growth is to be fully supported, then the amount of protein relative to energy in the fiet should be _______with increasing live weight

A

Protein to Energy ratio should be DECREASED with increasing live weight

48
Q

Protein over supply with lead to…

A

Reduced growth rate AND Increased excretion (waste of money and environmental issue)

49
Q

How can you alter the tenderness of pork

A

Younger = more tender. Increase growth rates = more tender

50
Q

UK Culling Rate for pigs

A

40% or higher

51
Q

Carcass grade P is

A

<38%

52
Q

Productivity definition

A

The productivity is the efficeicny of converting inputs into outputs Productivity= outputs at point in time/ inputs at point in time

53
Q

Productivity definition

A

The productivity is the efficeicny of converting inputs into outputs

54
Q

What lung changes can show up under lying tail biting problem

A

Pyemia - pus abscess in lungs. Septicaemia

55
Q

Diapharmatic/ Caudal lung lobe congestion cause

A

Actinobaccilus pleuropneumoniae. Gram negative anaerobic.

Pleuritis due to fibrin tags

‘Gun shot’ lesion

56
Q
A

Actinobaccilus pleuropneunmoniae.

Pigs caudal/diaphramatic lung lobes.

Carcass condemed due to fibrin tags causing pleuritis.

‘Gunshot’

57
Q

PRRS

A

Arterovirus

affects multiple ages (adults= abortion)

Mummified pigs/ weak live pigs therefoe high pre weaning mortality (target less than 7%)

Can be respiratory disease in growers.

UK doesn’t have pathogenic strain like Asia

58
Q

Why does PRRS cause secondary diseases

A

Is highly IMMUNOSUPPRESSIVE.

Can’t sell to international markets with PRRS!

59
Q

Affect of PRRS on boar stud farm

A

PRRS outbreak will cause stud farm to shut down as any virus that can get into a monocyte will be transmitted in semen.

Only 5 main pig stud farms in UK therefore rwould reduce semen avaliability by 20% over night

60
Q

PED (pigs) mortality is?

A

Porcine Epidemic Diarrhoea.

Coronavirus (NO

cross protection from Respiratory or enteric coronavirus)

100% mortality in neonatal pigs

Causes scour in other age groups

NOT IN UK ATM but US lost 10% of pigs in a year

61
Q

PED is what type of virus

A

Porcine Epidemic Diarrhoea is a Cornarvirus

NO CROSS PROTECTION FOR RESPIRATORY of TGE cornoavirus

100% mortaility in neo natal pigs

62
Q

Where is PED thought to come from?

A

Spray dried plasma pig food.

Not illegal but UK does not do it- common in america.

SOME PRODUCTS CONTAIN IT, BE CAREFUL!!!

63
Q

Myoplasma hyopneumoniae

A

Cranial lung lobes. c.f. actinobaccilus pleuropn= caudal lobes

Low grade cough

30-80% of pigs have lesions at slaughter

GREAT ECONOMIC IMPORTANCE

64
Q

Why does Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae have significant economic importance

A

endemic 30-80% lesions

Decreased FEED CONVERSION EFFICIENCY.

iNCONSISTANCY IN GROWTH RATES= NOT UNIFORM

65
Q
A

Mycoplasma hypopneumoniae.

Problem of weaned pigs

Binds to cillia = secondary infections

66
Q

pcv-2

A

immunosuppressive.

Hides in bone marrow- escape normal immune process’

can get LATE ONSET PCV-2 (i.e. week before slaughter dropping dead)

67
Q

Culling rate at 0-16 weeks poultry

A

Culling essential as need best chickens to produce an egg a day

68
Q

Key weight checks in poultry at weeks___

A

weeks 6 and 12.

Skeletal development in first 6 weeks

69
Q

Poultry major gut development is week

A

weeks 9 to 16 = major gut development

70
Q
A

Drafty

71
Q

Mishapen eggs can be traced back to stress ___ previously

A

10-14 hours

72
Q

Normal FCR for poultry

A

1.66 kg of food to 1 kg muscle.

73
Q

European Performance Efficiency Factor takes into account

A

Weight gain

FCR (1.66kg of food to 1kg meat)

Mortality.

Want scores over 400.

74
Q

Clinical signs of Infectious Bronchitis (IB) in broilers

A

Respiratory disease caused by cornoavirus.

Also causes a Nephritis. inc Urates in urethers / renal tubules.

Can lead to egg peritonitis due to damage to urethers

Watery diarrhoea

75
Q

Clinical signs of mycoplasma gallisepticum

A

Coughing

nasal/occular discharge

poor productivity

Air sacculitis

Pericarditis

Cattaharal inflamm

76
Q

How to differentiate red mite larvae and nymph? Poultry. How long does one full cycle take

A

Larvae= 6 legs

Nymph = 8 legs

One full cycle takes 8-40 days

77
Q

Life cycle of main Coccidiosis pathogen in poultry

A

Eimera = most common and has a direct life cycle.

HIGHLY host specific

Chicks and Poults most suspectible

7 infective species found in chickens

78
Q

Most pathogenic Eimera species in chickens

A

Eimera tenella = highly pathogenic.

Direct life cycle

79
Q

Marek’s disease is caused by what type of virus? What age group affected

A

Alpha- herpes virus

Typically affects 12-24 weeks.

Variable incubation period from weeks to months

Several forms inc visceral and neurological

80
Q

Barn system maximum number of hens per m2 is

A

25 hens per m2 in barn system.

Usual stocking density is 11/12 hens per m2

81
Q

In general, how many doses do a) modified live vaccines require b) inactive/sub unit vaccines equire

A

a) modified live vaccines: single dose
b) Inactivated/sub unit vaccines normally require 2 doses given 2-3 weeks apart

Beware maternally derived antibodies can affect up to 14 weeks!

82
Q

No point vaccinating an animal below 6 weeks because:

A
  1. Immature immune system
  2. Maternally derived antibodies
83
Q
A

VetMed Year 4- Term 2 (14 decks)

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