2nd Class PCT

Question 1

Detail knowledge of the Emergencies ACT 2004:

Functions of Fire and Rescue service?

Main function?
Responsible for?

Answer 1

The main function of the fire and rescue service is to protect and preserve life, property and the environment from fire in built-up areas.

In exercising the function, the fire and rescue service is responsible for operational planning for fire response in built-up areas, including fire preparedness, and fire response in built-up areas.

The fire and rescue service has the following additional functions:
Respond to HazMat, rescue, CRB incidents. Also assist other agencies in their functions under Emergency ACT 2004, and any other function prescribed by regulation.

The fire and rescue service may also respond to a fire in a rural area and provide first response to any other incident to which another emergency service may respond under this Act, if the emergency service is unavailable.

Question 2

Detail knowledge of the Emergencies ACT 2004:

Objects and functions of CFU’s?

What do they do and where?

Answer 2

Objects and functions of community fire units
The object of a community fire unit is to assist people in the area for which the unit is established to learn how to assist with defensive protection of property from fire and use equipment for fire prevention work and firefighting.

The functions of a community fire unit are to undertake fire prevention work, and assist with firefighting during a fire emergency, and assist with recovery operations after a fire emergency.

A community fire unit must exercise its functions only in the area for which the unit is established; and in accordance with the standards and protocols for fire and rescue; and under the direction of the chief officer (fire and rescue service).

Question 3

Detail knowledge of the Emergencies ACT 2004:

Declaration of total fire ban?

Who does is and why?

Answer 3

Declaration of total fire ban

This section applies if the commissioner is satisfied that severe weather conditions conducive to the spread of fire exist or are likely; or because of the number, nature or location of any existing fires, it is appropriate to declare a total fire ban.
The commissioner may, in writing, declare a ban (a total fire ban).

A declaration must state the period the total fire ban is in force; and may apply to all or part of the ACT.

Question 4

Detail knowledge of the Current Enterprise Agreement:

Exchange of shift?

Change with who?
What are the conditions?

Answer 4

Exchange of shift

Employees may exchange shifts with suitably qualified personnel at or within their classification range subject to written approval by the relevant supervisor.

Where an exchange of shift is approved, and the employee is subsequently moved so that the skill sets are not appropriate it is the responsibility of the supervisor to make appropriate arrangements so that the district skills mix is balanced.

Where an employee has an exchange of shift approved and the replacement employee takes personal leave or fails to present for duty leave is deducted from the employee that agreed to attend for duty for the shift.

All employees may exchange shifts with the approval of the head of service.

COS form must be signed by both parties, the SO at person asking for change of shifts station and the commander on the relevant platoon, before being sent to rostering.

Question 5

Know staff minutes from last 12 months.

Answer 5

Look at email folder.

Question 6

Water relaying:

What types of water relaying does ACT F&R use?

How and why?

Answer 6

Tanker relaying, tankers are used when water source is far away from fire ground to transport water to working trucks.

Open circuit relaying, base pump takes water from source and pumps it into a reservoir (portable dam) where the next truck takes water and moves it to the next reservoir until fire ground is reached.

Closed circuit relaying, water is pumped from the source into the collector of the second pump and so on unit fire ground is reached.

Question 7

Water relaying:

What general rules apply when water relaying?

Answer 7

1. Positioned with the largest capacity is first in line.
2. When draughting base pump uses some energy to achieve suction lift.
3. Length of the delivery line may have to be reduced.
4. Add 10 kPa/ metre rise.
5. Deduct 10 kPa/ metre fall.
6. Lines should be twinned where ever possible.
7. Maximum of 7 lengths of hose per line.
8. Release air from system at each pump while charging the system.
9. Gradually increase pressure in relay to 700 kPa.
   10.Operators must remain with, and monitor their pumps at all times.
   11.Base pump operator in charge of relay system.

Question 8

Water relaying:

Spacing in-between pumps is dependent on?

Answer 8

Spacing dependent on:
1. The pumping capacity of the individual pumps.
2. The difference in elevation between the two pumps.
3. The number of lines being used.

Question 9

Water relaying:

Precautions when charging the line?

Answer 9

Charging the Line:
1. System should be charged slowly and at low pressures.
2. One delivery outlet (not feeding the relay) should be left open in order to help release air from the system.
3. When relay is operating correctly, the pressure should be increased gradually until full pressure is reached.
4. Recommended operating pressure for closed circuit relays is 700 kPa.

Question 10

Water relaying:

Communication points to remember?

Who’s in charge of what?

Answer 10

Communications:
1. In closed circuit relay, communications between pump operators is vital.
2. The pump operator at the base pump is in charge of the entire relay system.
3. Pump operator at the delivery end of the system is responsible for monitoring.
the relay system and branch operators.

Question 11

AFA’s:

Discuss local alarm ringing or strobe light flashing?

When and why?

Answer 11

When the FIP is in an alarm activation condition, the FIP will sound the external local alarm or strobe indicator light to let occupants and the fire service know the exact location of firstly the building in alarm and the designated entrance point to the building and usually the location of the FIP.

Question 12

AFA’s:

Fire Door or Curtain Operation?

What will they do?

Answer 12

Fire doors will close and curtains will lower according to the zone that has been activated.

Question 13

AFA’s:

EWIS system activated?

When will a building have an EWIS and what can you do with it?

Answer 13

EWIS systems are required in larger buildings and buildings over 25 metres in height. An EWIS system allows occupants to be alerted to an emergency situation via an alert tone, and/or be told to evacuate via an evacuation message. Instructions can also be issued from the EWIS panel to all building occupants via a public address system.

Two way communications are available through the Warden Intercom Phones (WIP). These enable direct communications from the EWIS panel to individual WIP phones usually located on each level or zone within a building. Fire Wardens on each level can be directed to evacuate and control the evacuation of their floor or area.

Question 14

AFA’s:

Air conditioning system alters to extraction mode?

Answer 14

The FIP can activate any smoke extraction systems or air conditioning systems according to which zone has been activated. These systems may reset automatically once the alarm has been reset/isolated or may require manually resetting.

Question 15

AFA’s:

Fire stairs pressurised?

When and what will it do?

Answer 15

Fire stair pressurisation will be activated by the FIP if the alarm is in the right zone.

Question 16

AFA’s:

Emergency lighting and exit signs?

How do they operate, when, visibility?

Answer 16

Buildings of class 2 – 9 over 300m2 are required to have a central or independent emergency light system and exit signage.

In the event of power failure, either intentional or not, central emergency light systems and exit signs will operate from a single battery power source.

Independent emergency light systems and exit signs have built in battery power source that will operate the lighting systems and signage during a power failure.

Both systems are required to be inspected and tested periodically.

Emergency lights should illuminate passageways, stairways and exit paths. Exit signs must show required exits and direction exit signs must point to the location of these exits. One exit sign must be visible from all parts of the building.

Question 17

Workplace Awareness:

In ACTF&R what is CISM?

How will they operate?

Answer 17

1. CISM is Critical Incident Stress Management.
2. Peer supporters are a group of trained work colleagues who take turns with the phone for a week.
3. Accessible 24 hours a day, 7 days a week. On 0412 271 815. Found on intranet.
4. Provide confidential one on one assistance and help accessing the Employee Assistance Program (EAP).
5. Focus on crisis intervention for employees and their families.
6. After a critical incident a hot defuse will be done with the crew. Peer support will be notified to provide follow up calls and attend a cold defuse if requested, involving a psychologist group chat and
   followed by a “one on one” welfare check.

Question 18

Workplace Awareness:

The responsibility for WH&S rests with both Employee & Employer. Discuss
the application of WH&S principals at an incident?

MVA, Fire, AFA , Station?

Answer 18

The job involves many hazards at fires, MVAs and even the station. It up to everyone to keep an eye out for hazards and mitigate them ASAP.

At fires there are hazards such as structural collapse, harmful contaminants, sharps (broken glass, tool such as Halligan), trips slips and falls (hoses everywhere, stairs), lack of visibility can create disorientation.

At MVAs there are hazards such as dangerous particles (from glass), cuts, harmful fluids, possibility of cars still moving, heavy tools, other traffic, lack of visibility due to night or being hidden (ie just after a crest).

Question 19

Workplace Awareness:

Who are the target groups mentioned in EEO legislation?

Who and why does it target these people?

Answer 19

Equal employment opportunity means all employment and promotion decisions are made based on merit - the skills and abilities of the candidate as measured against the inherent requirements of the job, regardless of personal characteristics. the plan sets out strategies for recruiting selecting, promoting and training to ensure decisions are made based on merit.

Council believes that a diverse network of employees which truly reflect the community it serves and represents, is better equipped to understand and meet the needs of our customers. The main targeted groups are:
1. Women
2. People with disabilities
3. People who’s second language is English.
4. Aboriginal & Torres Strait Islander’s

Question 20

Workplace Awareness:

What is Industrial Democracy?

Answer 20

Industrial democracy is an arrangement which involves workers making decisions, sharing responsibility and authority in the workplace.

E.G. ACTF&R uniform committee, vehicle committee, peer support committee.

Question 21

Salvage:

Explain the purpose of salvage?

Description and how?

Answer 21

Salvage describes the actions taken during and immediately after the fire to minimise the damage caused by fire and by the water used to extinguish it.

The purpose is to minimise damage during and after an incident. This means using a spray instead of a jet, using the minimal amount of water, trying to leave things as you found them, protecting people private property and cleaning and locking up after a job correctly to minimise change of vandalism.

Question 22

Salvage:

When should salvage commence?

Answer 22

Salvage describes the actions taken during and immediately after the fire to minimise the damage caused by fire and by the water used to extinguish it.

Salvage should be considered throughout every incident from start to finish. Such as even entering by breaking the cheapest and easiest thing to replace.
I.e., glass, timber, masonry.

Question 23

Salvage:

Considerations given to scene preservation during salvage?

What to do, example?

Answer 23

1. Permission sought before removing or moving an item if item must be moved
2. Document all details relevant to the item in the blue book
3. Photograph if possible
4. Place all removed items in a designated area
5. Document all actions & observations in blue book ASAP

Example:
Only move what you have to.
Remember what you moved and put in blue book.
SO will take photos.
Don’t move anything unnecessary unless given permission.
Try to lock up premises as best as possible.

Question 24

Clean/ Dirty area at an incident:

Candidate to detail, draw, and discuss the procedures for setting up a clean/ dirty
recycling area at an incident?

Answer 24

The Dirty Recycle Area must be an early consideration and instigated by the initial
Incident Controller (IC).
It may be physically constructed by a BA crew member, Hazmat member or the driver of
the second or third-in appliance. The area is then best managed by an appointed Entry
Control Officer.

Question 25

Contaminated Gear: What to do with contaminated turnout gear? New system?

Answer 25

If turnout gear is contaminated it is to be folded correctly and placed into a heavy duty plastic bag, zip tied, goose necked and cable tied again. Then a sticker is filled out with wearers details and attached to plastic bag. Two full sets of turnout gear can then fit into one box. Request laundry pickup is then complete off LHD app. One consignment notice comes into station email it is printed off and stuck onto box. Box then placed in outside FedEx box.

Question 26

Contaminated Gear: General cleaning of PPC other than turnout gear? All cleaning requirements?

Answer 26

Dirty PPC: Generally soiled but not contaminated PPC can be included with general dry cleaning picked up twice a week from all stations. Contaminated PPC: Contaminated PPC is to be bagged in dissolvable stitching bags found in resus kit and tagged with contaminated tag and detailed appropriately. The bagged and tagged PPC can then be included with the usual dry cleaning service or arranged to be priority dry cleaned as required. Be aware that dry cleaning will be returned to the station it was collected from. Infectious Waste: Infectious waste is to be bagged in infectious waste bag found in resus kit and tagged with contaminated tag and detailed appropriately. Then collected by logistics 35 ute. Then taken to ACT health in Mitchell for destruction. Structural Boots: After incidents hosed down to remove contaminants. Regularly polished to maintain water resistance and integrity of leather. Helmets: Brushed down, if need be washed with warm soapy water. Do not use solvents. Wildfire gloves: Brushed off ready for re use. If too contaminated, to be disposed of and new pair obtained by stores. Rescue gloves: Can be added to dry cleaning.

Question 27

Contaminated Gear: Other considerations for handling dirty PPC? What to do after a job?

Answer 27

* Crew to transit to the Dirty Recycle area. * Notify Command/ BA Control * For soiled BA sets, hose off loose materials, wipe down BA set and cylinder, seal set in a plastic bag (without stitching) and tag with incident details. Wear appropriate PPE (minimal P2 masks and nitrile gloves) * Dirty PPC is to be sealed in a bag (with dissolvable stitching). Tag bag with incident details. If the PPC is wet, consider double bagging to ensure the dissolvable stitching holds. * Firefighting helmets can be cleaned on site using water. Area clean up to be done using appropriate PPE (minimal P2 face mask and gloves). Soiled PPC should be transported to the crew members’ home station by Logistics 35 or transported directly to the Dry-Cleaning provider. The pumper crew will be unavailable to respond until re equipped with PPC. For larger incidents or when emergency laundering is required, Logistics 35 should transport PPC and PPE directly to the Dry-Cleaning provider, or if the Dry Cleaners are not open, to the BA Section, and the PPC will be transported by TOSS to the Dry Cleaners at the next available opportunity. Further Considerations At single appliance response fires (e.g. Garbage Hopper, Vehicle) when PPC / PPE is exposed to smoke and fire products, similar segregation techniques should be employed to minimise exposure to other crew members. Soiled PPC and PPE is to be bagged and tagged as detailed above and can be transported back to station in the dirty box provided for this purpose on pumpers, or by Logistics 35.

Question 28

Blue card communications: Describe 'All Clear'

Answer 28

Determines that there is no life safety risk for part or all of a structure. Primary: A quick search to ensure there are no lives at risk in all or part of the structure. Secondary: A methodical search of a structure once the fire risk is controlled.

Question 29

Blue card communications: Describe 'On-Deck'

Answer 29

This is a task. It requires the crew to be fully attired with all appropriate PPE/C ready for immediate deployment.

Question 30

Blue card communications: Describe 'CAN report'

Answer 30

Conditions: What do you see? Actions: What are you going to do? Needs: What resources or tool/equipment do you need? A new critical factor is discovered. A previous task is complete, and the unit is ready for re-tasking. If, for some reason the task cannot be complete. Incident command requests.

Question 31

Blue card communications: Describe 'PAR report'

Answer 31

A PAR is sent by the senior crew member when requested by the IC to confirm that they can account for all personnel under their command. They can also be initiated by the senior crew member when passing CAN reports to inform the IC that all personnel under their command are accounted for.

Question 32

Blue card communications: Describe 'recycle'

Answer 32

Involves crews leaving the immediate hazard zone with a view to them returning to continue work.

Question 33

Blue card communications: Describe 'rehab'

Answer 33

Involves crews reporting to a defined location to rest and refresh before possible re-assignment.

Question 34

Resuscitator: Daily check procedure?

Answer 34

Check bag and zips are in good condition. Attach pressure reducer. Open (all the way 1/4 turn back) and ensure pressure of at least 100 bar. Open and check oxygen therapy control valve. Connect demand valve and resus bag and squeeze to ensure correct refill. Check the suction device. Close cylinder. Release pressure. Check all inventory. B.A section inspect and test every 6 months ensure in date. NOTE: If the unit fails any of these tests it must be returned to the BA Section for attention. A replacement unit will be issued.

Question 35

Resuscitator: Demonstrate the operational use of the resuscitator with Non-Breathing patients? Resuscitation?

Answer 35

When decided to use oxygen. Set up oxygen cylinder attach bag and mask. Ensure clear airway. Lay casualty on back. Insert oropharyngeal airway (if appropriate). Position yourself and provide adequate head tilt. Ensure mask in sealed fully. Squeeze bag firmly but gently, until visible chest rise. Allow casualty to exhale. Constantly reassess airway.

Question 36

Resuscitator: Demonstrate the operational use of the resuscitator with a spontaneously breathing patient? Oxygen therapy?

Answer 36

Position patient as comfortable as possible (sitting or recovery position). Attach oxygen therapy tubing to the barbed outlet on the reducer. Select the desired flow rate by rotating the recessed flow control anti-clockwise. Attach appropriate mask, and place comfortably on the patient’s face. For most patients, the oxygen flow should be 15 L/min. Under no circumstances should it be less than 8 L/min. Observe and reassess patient for continued breathing.

Question 37

Breathing apparatus: Daily check procedure? 21 steps?

Answer 37

1) Check that the set is complete, clean and in good condition. 2) Remove facemask from bag and attach to demand valve. 3) Fully slacken waist belt, shoulder and facemask straps ready for use. 4) Press first breath mechanism and ensure bypass knob is closed. 5) Open the main cylinder valve fully and allow 10 seconds to pressurise. 6) Check the cylinder contains at least 260bar and listen for leaks. 7) Close cylinder and monitor gauge for 1 min. If it drops more than 10bar this is unacceptable. 8) On duo sets, vent with bypass knob and repeat with second cylinder. 9) If system fails, vent air check connections and repeat leak test. 10) Open cylinder valve. 11) Fit face mask, tighten bottom, middle, top. 12) Inhale deeply and check first breath mechanism operates. 13) Hold breath for 10 seconds and listen for leaks. Re adjust to fix leaks. 14) When satisfied hold breath press DV reset and remove mask. 15) Close the cylinder valve. 16) Open bypass and watch gauge ensure low pressure whistle operates between 50-60 bar. 17) Turn off bypass. 18) Replace facemask cover of mask. 19) Test DSU. (replace if faulty) 20) Ensure BA is correctly secured in bracket. 21) Attach tally tag to DSU key.

Question 38

BA control: Stage 1 BA control?

Answer 38

Stage 1 Breathing Apparatus Control is the first level of breathing apparatus control and is the minimum standard for ensuring the safety of breathing apparatus wearers. Stage 1 BA Control will be under the supervision of an Entry Control Officer (ECO), who in the initial stages of an incident will most likely be the pump operator on the first arriving appliance. The pump operator however, must be relieved of BA Control as soon as the next appliance arrives. The use of Stage 1 BA Control is to be limited to the following circumstances: · Where the size of the incident is small and the use of breathing apparatus is unlikely to be protracted. · Where the total number of BA wearers in the risk area does not exceed 4. Stage 1 BA Control Board All appliances that carry breathing apparatus are fitted with a stage 1 BA Control Board. The boards are designed to hold the tally tags and electronic timer clocks of up to 4 wearers. There is also provision in the ‘remarks’ column for information regarding the location of the wearers.

Question 39

BA control: Stage 2 BA control?

Answer 39

Stage 2 Breathing Apparatus Control is a procedure that takes over the management of BA wearing at larger incidents. It is also controlled by a dedicated ECO. Stage 2 BA Control should be set up at all incidents where: · More than 4 and up to a maximum of 12 BA wearers are working in the risk area at one time. · Where the incident is likely to be protracted, and it is necessary to arrange relief teams and other BA resources. · At the discretion of the Officer-in-Charge of the incident. · At a confirmed Multi Storey incident. · At all HAZMAT incidents where a full decontamination zone is operating. NOTE: The ECO will have two wearers standing by rigged in BA for emergency purposes throughout the time Stage II Control is operating. Stage 2 BA Control Board Stage 2 BA Control Boards are used in conjunction with Stage 2 BA Control at larger incidents where more than 4 wearers are being monitored by the one Entry Control Officer. The Breathing Apparatus Support Van carries two Stage 2 BA Control Boards. These boards perform the same function as a Stage 1 BA Control Board but they have the space for up to twelve tally tags and an additional column for teams. There is also additional space for more detailed remarks.

Question 40

BA control: BA main control?

Answer 40

BA Main Control shall be set up when more than one Stage 2 BA Control board is operating. A Breathing Apparatus Control Officer (BACO) shall be appointed by the Incident Commander and will be responsible for, · Establishing Breathing Apparatus Main Control at the most convenient site for easy access and communication with all Entry Control points. · Supervising the establishment and control of Entry Control Points. · Ensuring strict control is maintained over all aspects of the BA operation and that BA SOP’s are complied with. · Communications between each Entry Control Point and the BA Main Control. The BACO shall be primarily responsible for establishing means of communication. · Ensuring each Entry Control Point has the necessary equipment to operate. · Having adequate reliefs available and dispatching them to the appropriate entry control point. · Have at least two wearers standing by fully rigged with breathing apparatus for emergency purposes throughout the time the Control is operating. · Supervising the recommissioning of BA and cylinder recharging. · Ensuring the evacuation siren is ready and available if required.

Question 41

BA control: Entry control point uses?

Answer 41

An Entry Control Point is a point set up on the perimeter of the risk area to: · Control the entry and exit of breathing apparatus wearers. · Monitor the safety of breathing apparatus wearers. · Ensure a response to an emergency involving breathing apparatus wearers. E.g there is a crew who don't reply to a PAR and the on-deck crew will be sent to their last known location. · Maintain the resources that support breathing apparatus wearers.

Question 42

BA control: The ECO's responsibility's?

Answer 42

· Check tally tags and attach to board. · Set electronic timer clocks to 30 minutes (20 minutes if in a totally encapsulated suit), attach clock adjacent to wearers’ tags and start clocks. · Recording the location of BA teams and any other relevant comments. · Maintain the resources that support breathing apparatus wearers. · When a wearer’s timer clock indicates their allotted wearing time has passed the ECO must contact the wearer to verify their location. The wearer’s team must then exit the hazard area and report to the ECO to retrieve their tallies. If radio communication is not available a relief team must be sent in to locate the team and relief them. · If a team cannot be located, the BACO and Incident Commander must be notified and a full-scale search and rescue operation commenced. · When stage 2 BA Control is operating the evacuation siren must be set up and placed adjacent to the BA Control board. · If BA Main Control is operating, periodic reports shall be sent to the BACO from the ECO’s indicating the number of BA in use, personnel requirements etc. This will enable the BACO to ensure adequate personnel and equipment is available

Question 43

Equipment and Fault reporting: Describe the process of fault reporting?

Answer 43

Any faulty, missing or damaged equipment must receive immediate attention. Report, Rectify, Replace, Repair, Re-stow. Report the fault to the Station Officer. Discuss problem with SO to decide what action you may take. Rectify the problem (if possible) at the station. Fix the problem yourself if possible. Replace the item or exchange (for equipment such as extinguishers). Tag item and liaise with ute driver to have replacement brought out. Repair – liaise with workshops and arrange for repair. If problem is too big file either a 'Vehicle repair or maintenance report' or 'equipment repair or resupply report'. Re-stow may be necessary, depending on the nature of the problem. If problem is large and need immediate fixing it may be necessary to re-stow.

Question 44

Equipment and Fault reporting: CMDR to select a piece of Appliance inventory, candidate to obtain item from appliance, discuss in detail and demonstrate the daily check procedure/ calibration for this item. Also discuss the fault rectification process for this item. Item selected by CMDR. Procedures to follow selected item manual. (DUCOT)

Answer 44

DUCOT: Description: Provides a general description of the equipment and its purpose including details of compliance with standards. Use: Provides detail on the use of the equipment, attachments or adjustments and their application. Construction: Describes the component parts and the general construction of the equipment. Operation: Lists key steps in the operation of the equipment. Testing: Lists maintenance and/or tests that need to be conducted to ensure continued safe operation of the equipment. Example: Halligan tool Description: The Halligan tool is designed to assist with forcible entry and lock removal operations. Use The Hooligan tool is a leverage type tool incorporating a ‘pike’, claw and adze edge. It can be used to lever open doors, remove hinge pins and break locks. Construction: The Hooligan tool is constructed of a machined steel shaft and cast steel operating heads. Operation: Forcible entry. Lock removal. Hinge removal. Testing: Visual inspection. Manual Handling: Identify manual handling issues.

Question 45

Extension ladder: Describe the extension ladder?

Answer 45

Made from aluminum with non-slip 'D' rungs, weights 30kg with non-slip feet at the heel of each string. Extend the sliding section by use of hauling line. Pawls will engage as you extend, to lower extend until you trip the lowering device then lower with control. Working heights: Closed 5.0m Extended 9.0m Load rated to 324kg both horizontally and vertically. 3 person max with a 3:1 safety factor.

Question 46

Extension ladder: List the ladder components?

Answer 46

Main section Sliding section Head Heel Non-skid feet Strings Rungs Hauling line Pawl Pulley Extension Stops

Question 47

Extension ladder: List the ladder terminology?

Answer 47

Slip - to remove the ladder from an appliance. Elevate - to raise the head of a ladder by under-running. Under-run - to raise the head of the ladder from the ground to a vertical position by hand over hand elevation. Extend - to extend the sliding section. Pitch - to place the head of the ladder against a structure. Heel in, Heel out - to move the ladder heel toward, or away from a structure. Foot - to brace the heel of the ladder. Strike - to move the head of the ladder away from a structure. Extend to lower - to raise the sliding section so that the pawls are cleared for lowering. Lower - to retract the sliding section. House - to place the ladder back on the appliance.

Question 48

Extension ladder: Ladder safe working practises?

Answer 48

1. Correct PPE must be worn, including helmet & gloves. 2. Check for overhead obstructions before elevating or extending 3. Ladders must be footed at all times whilst someone is on the ladder. 4. The head should be tied off to prevent the ladder from sliding Ladder should be approximately a quarter of the way out that it is high. Should have at-least 4 rungs over the point it attaches to the roof.

Question 49

Knots: Requirements of a knot?

Answer 49

1. Serve the purpose 2. Be easy to tie 3. Be easy to untie 4. Not damage the line

Question 50

Knots: Half Hitch

Answer 50

Used to hold a long piece of equipment vertical when hauling aloft or lowering.

Question 51

Knots: Overhand Knot

Answer 51

Used to notify of a damaged hose and as a stop when pulling rope through something.

Question 52

Knots: Figure of Eight Knot

Answer 52

Used in end of line passing through a pulley block to prevent it moving. Its function is to act as a stopper. Used before doing a figure eight on the bend to tie around the head of the stokes when performing an upslope evacuation.

Question 53

Knots: Clove Hitch

Answer 53

Used to fasten a line midway and hauling equipment. usually used to secure the top of a ladder.

Question 54

Knots: Round Turn Two Half Hitches

Answer 54

This knot is used for securing a line to a spar or any round object. It has the advantage that when a heavy weight is applied, the knot does not jam, and when the weight is removed, is easy to untie.

Question 55

Knots: Reef Knot

Answer 55

A reef knot is quickly untied and is a useful general-purpose knot. In ACTF&R its use is to tie bandages and slings, and to secure the two ends of the ‘SKED’ rope together.

Question 56

Knots: Bowline Loop

Answer 56

The bowline forms a non-slipping noose when securing a line around a pole, tree or other solid anchor point. It is also used to attach a line round the waist on those few occasions when it is necessary for a line to be trailed behind someone and is useful for lowering and raising purposes. The bowline is not to be used for Vertical Rescue purposes.

Question 57

Knots: Rolling Hitch Pulling Left

Answer 57

Used for hauling and attaching to a midline with the ability of pulling sideways.

Question 58

Knots: Rolling Hitch Pulling Right

Answer 58

Used for hauling and attaching to a midline with the ability of pulling sideways.

Question 59

Knots: Alpine Butterfly

Answer 59

Used to form a loop in the middle of the line. Can be used to attach to a block like a figure 8 but can take load in two of three directions. Also used to tie around the bottom of the stokes litter for guidelines when performing a ladder slide. It's easy to untie after being loaded.

Question 60

Knots: Hauling an Axe

Answer 60

The clove hitch can be used for hoisting many items of Fire Brigade equipment. When these must be kept in a vertical position a clove hitch is usually made on the lower part of the object and a half hitch on the upper part.

Question 61

Knots: Hauling an Extinguisher

Answer 61

To haul an extinguisher a rolling hitch tied around the lower part with a half hitch around the top should be used. The direction of the rolling hitch is toward the top (left or right depending on your position when starting).

Question 62

Road Crash Rescue: Appliance positioning? How, why?

Answer 62

Fend off position is to park before the incident leaving room for ACTAS at an angle and slightly into the other lane. This position should protect the incident scene and rescue crews. Allows easy access to equipment. Maximise use of onboard lighting. Slow traffic with the added use on cones and bollards. Allow water run off. Remain visible. Think about bends and crests. In the case of vehicle collision into fire appliance will direct the car away from the scene.

Question 63

Road Crash Rescue: Equipment staging area? Who sets up, with what and why?

Answer 63

An area where all tools are placed to help keep the incident clean, reduce trip hazards and chaos in the action circle. Area is defined by the salvage sheet and should be located outside the action circle. Motor driver is to set up area with all relevant tools as well as a means of fire control being and extinguisher or charged HP hose reel. Once staging area is setup MD is to watch the incident and be ready to hand the next needed tool over as well as take tools back to reduce clutter.

Question 64

Road Crash Rescue: Discuss and setup a tool staging area for a total roof removal? Play by play.

Answer 64

My movements as motor driver at a total roof removal. Arrive to scene slowly assess situation and park in fend off position accordingly. Engage Hp hose reel, slightly open to provide supplementary cooling and place it out of the way. Get cones out (plus eflares if at night) to provide early visibility for drivers, help slow traffic and protect the crew working at the incident. Get the crew the stabilisation, toolbox, pakexe and airbag catchers as this is the equipment they will need to use straight away. Set up lighting when possible. Then start to set up the staging area in a suitable spot away from traffic and out of the action circle. Set up tools in order they will be needed such as: Soft patient protection, for breaking glass. Someone should be inside by now providing patient care and possible peeling and peeking. Debris sheet for catching the windscreen and rear window. Halligan tool to help create purchase point for the spreaders. Bolt cutters or cold cut to assist with disabling battery. Hard patient protection such a half spine board to assist with cutting. Rescue tool such as rescue pump, spreaders, cutters and hoses. Socket set and screwdriver set in case anything can be disassembled. Crow bar in case of change to roof fold. Pillar protectors ready for after roof removal. KED and spine board ready for patient packaging and removal.

Question 65

Ventilation: Describe positive pressure ventilation?

Answer 65

Positive pressure ventilation is when air is pushed into a building via a PPV fan. The fan needs to cover the entirety of the inlet and have a smaller outlet. This means more air is going in than can go out. This mean air builds up and spread all through the room effectively clearing every part of the room.

Question 66

Ventilation: Describe negative pressure ventilation?

Answer 66

Negative pressure ventilation is the opposite to positive. Being there is a fan setup to push air out the outlet whilst a smaller inlet is open. Creating more air exiting than entering, thus negative pressure ventilation.

Question 67

Ventilation: Demonstrate deployment of PPV and describe considerations? Setup, pressure and how to clear house?

Answer 67

1. Correct position as directed by OIC? Should be placed on the windward side of the building. Entering through a door or window. with an exit on the lee ward side. 2. Flow line? Air flow should fully encapsulate the opening so no air can flow back out the inlet. Without being too close or far away and ineffective. 3. Return line to tank fill? Line will go from delivery to fan then return to tank fill so new water is continually flowing rather than the same water circulating becoming hot, risking cavitation. 4. Notify OIC, PPV fan ready to commence? Ensure fire is completely extinguished. Everyone on the fire ground is aware ventilation is beginning. Someone on a charged branch should also be watching the outlet in case of embers being picked up with the air. 5. All personnel on site aware of ventilation operations? 6. Correct pressure? Optimum pressure is 1050kPa running at 365L/min. Maximum is 1700kPa at 615L/min. 7. Consider slight leakage if used inside a building? Leakage will occur if used inside as there will be no seal around door. 8. Air flow paths: closing doors, directing the air flow to eliminate spread? The fan should be positioned (see Fan Position and Use) at an appropriate inlet vent and started. All doors to internal compartments within the structure should be closed initially. The door to the room closest to the inlet vent should then be opened, as should the window. This will allow this area to be cleared of smoke and fire gases. Once clear, the door to this room should be closed, effectively isolating the cleared area within. This procedure is then repeated sequentially for all rooms within the structure.

Question 68

Radio: Discuss the priority alert tone? Who can ask for it? Whop does it go to?

Answer 68

ACTF&R has developed a Comcen generated Priority Alert Tone which when activated gives the Incident Controller Emergency Traffic capability consistent with Bluecard principles. When activated the Priority Alert Tone transmits for 3 seconds across the selected talk group/s. This alerts all crews that an emergency message will follow and to maintain radio silence until the emergency message has been transmitted. Emergency Traffic will receive the highest communications priority from Comcen and the IC. The IC is the only person who can initiate an Emergency Traffic report. The Emergency Traffic report should be structured in the following manner:  The IC will contact Comcen directly and ask for Emergency Traffic.  Comcen will sound the Priority Alert Tone.  The IC transmits the Emergency Traffic radio message. Example:  IC - “Comcen from Main St. Command Emergency Traffic”.  Comcen sounds the Priority Alert Tone.  IC - “All units from Main St. Command, we are going defensive on this structure. All units operating in the fire structure, exit the structure and report PARs upon exiting”.

Question 69

Patient packaging: Discuss boot lacing?

Answer 69

Boot lacing with the 12m x 50mm tape is a preferred method when used for a vertical raise or lower. The casualty is secured by the feet, depending on injuries, then lacing upwards, tensioning the lacing with a clove hitch on the side rails and finally completing the lacing with the tape knot. Patient securing straps are also a quick method of securing the casualty for a short walk or upslope evacuation.

Question 70

Vertical Rescue: Types of anchors? What can be used at a job?

Answer 70

Existing anchors - are anchors already existing before an incident. Could be natural or manmade e.g. trees, rocks, columns, beams, structural supports, rails, posts etc. Created anchors - are anchors created at an incident utilising equipment. e.g. pickets, hydraulic rams, vehicles, pitons, bolts.

Question 70

Vertical Rescue: Considerations for using a single anchor?

Answer 70

When considering a single anchor point the anchor must be able to sustain an unexpected shock loading. The anchor must be "bomb proof". When only one single anchor point is available, separate slings must be connected to the anchor for each system.

Question 71

Vertical Rescue: Advantages of the 2 wrap 2 pull?

Answer 71

Where possible, this is the preferred tape anchor to use in ACTF&R because it removes the knot from the system thus it: * Maintains the full-strength of 2 wraps * Holds its position on the anchor * The load is aligned along the spine of the carabiner * It doesn’t tri-load the carabiner * The tape knot is easy to untie after use It also can be tied on anchors as small as a 50mm handrail but is general tied on anchors 150mm or greater. The ability to set the height of the anchor enables the operator to set a good comfortable working height when using lowering or hauling systems.

Question 72

Vertical Rescue: Other suitable anchors?

Answer 72

Single Wrap anchor can be used: * On very large anchors such as boulders * To improve the sling angle * To extend the position of the attachment point to a workable position i.e. out from under a vehicle/ through a fence * Only holds 250kg 2 Wrap tape anchor can be used: * To increase the SWL of the anchor system * To improve the sling angle * On small handrails and safe ring anchors * Holds 500kg Basket hitch: * Fast to tie * Hold 500kg * Will tri-load the carabiner when around wide anchor

Question 73

Hazmat: What do the coloured pages in the IERG (initial emergency response guide) mean?

Answer 73

Green Pages Green pages list materials in order of their United Nations number, with the appropriate guide number and the proper chemical name. Orange Pages Orange pages provide the proper chemical name in alphabetical order, with the appropriate guide number and the UN number. Yellow Pages Yellow pages are the guide pages and provide information in a brief and practical format. These guides are divided into four sections.

Question 74

Hazmat: What do the E and P mean on Green and Orange pages in the IERG?

Answer 74

Note: Certain guide numbers displayed in the green and the orange pages of these sections has the letters E or P attached: * E indicates the substance may behave explosively at high temperatures. * P indicates the substance reacts violently under high temperatures or on contamination with other materials. This may lead to a pressure build up in the container storing the material.

Question 75

Hazmat: What are the 4 sections on the yellow pages in the IERG?

Answer 75

1. Hazards: Information on possible fire, explosion and health risks. 2. Protective Clothing: Information on the PPE to be worn. 3. Public Safety: General information on public safety and evacuation considerations. 4. Emergency Response: provides information on firefighting precautions and information involving fire, spills, leaks and first aid.

Question 76

Extra: What to tell someone who calls up wanting to burn off green waste in their backyard?

Answer 76

Not allowed to burn green waste or rubbish. Take the green waste to the disposal centre at the tip. Having a fire is permitted as long as its for the purpose of heating of cooking. They have adult supervision. In a fire pit. 3m clear of combustibles around pit. Adult supervision. A means of extinguishment.

Question 77

Extra: What are the 2 open air fires that are always allowed?

Answer 77

Tent embassy and the eternal flame at the War memorial.

Question 78

Extra: What are some considerations in your station?

Answer 78

Fyshwick: Go up Canberra ave side street before getting onto Wentworth as its easier navigating traffic. Ainslie: Northborn can be very busy as times. Phillip: Button to turn traffic lights red. Kambah: Namatjira steed bumps will slow you a lot, may be faster up the parkway. Crossing from Parkway Dr to Hindmarsh can be very dangerous. usually turn sirens and beacons off before entering, check its clear then go again. Tuggeranong: Button to alert people we're coming out of the station.

Question 79

Objects of the Emergency's Act 2004?

Answer 79

The objects of the act are: To protect and preserve life property and the environment. Prepare, prevent, respond to and recover from emergencies.

Question 80

AFA’s: Discuss which systems in a building may have activated in an alarm?

Answer 80

Local alarm rings or strobe light flash’s. Fire doors close. EWIS system goes into evacuation mode. Air condition system changes to extraction mode. Fire stairs will pressurise. Emergency lighting.