300 Questions Flashcards

(245 cards)

1
Q

A1 - What is a medium rise?

A

A building with 5-7 floors

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2
Q

A1 - What is a high rise?

A

A building with 8 floors or more

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3
Q

A1 - At what height do dry risers need to be fitted?

A

18m up to 60m

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4
Q

A1 - At what height do wet risers need to be fitted?

A

60m or 50m in new builds

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5
Q

A1 - what are the typical sectors at a high rise fire

A

Lobby sector, bridgehead, fire sector and search sector

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6
Q

A1 - when charging a wet riser what pressure does the first appliance deliver?

A

7 bar

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7
Q

A1 - when charging a wet riser what pressure does the second appliance deliver?

A

10 bar

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8
Q

A1 - What does HAULETAT stand for?

A
Height
Area
Use
Location of fire
Equipment in use
Tactical Mode
ARA in use
Type of ignition
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9
Q

A1 - What would you expect a lift to do when the “fireman’s switch” is operated?

A

Automatically return to lobby - to be controlled from within the car

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10
Q

A7 - What are the incident types in secure accommodation?

A

Alarms
Fire
Site disturbance

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11
Q

A7 - what are the types of secure accommodation?

A
Secure psychiatric hospitals
Police cells
military cells
Court cells 
Young offenders institutes
Prisons
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12
Q

A7 - What are the hazards associated with secure accommodation?

A
restricted access and egress
behaviour of occupants
infectious deseases
entrapment
lack of ventilation
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13
Q

A7 - Should you use an ACME thunderer in a prison?

A

No - this is a signal for assistance

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14
Q

A7 - True or false appliances should make a silent approach to secure accommodation?

A

True

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15
Q

A7 - What should the OIC receive when arriving a secure accommodation?

A

A brief
An info pack
A Portablast Klaxon

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16
Q

A7 - What is a FOSI report

A

Fire Of Special Interest Report - To be completed after any incident in secure accomodation

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17
Q

A7 - Who should a FOSI report be sent to?

A

The CFO

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18
Q

A7 - True or false full kit checks should take place after any incident in secure accommodation before an appliance can be made available?

A

True

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19
Q

A7 - What is the call sign of the senior prison officer?

A

Oscar

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20
Q

A7 - In prisons firefighters should never work alone, what is the minimum team size?

A

Two firefighters and a prison officer

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21
Q

A7 - True or false, fighfighters may be used to control disturbances?

A

FALSE

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22
Q

A7 - What is the RVP for HMP Bristol (Horfield)?

A

Southmead (Station 06)

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23
Q

A7 - What is the RVP for HMP Leyhill or Eastwood park?

A

Thornbury (Station 02)

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24
Q

A7 - What is the RVP for YOI Ashfield?

A

Kingswood (Station 10)

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25
A10 - What is the minimum safe distance for working with overhead power lines, substation and working near other equipment belonging to electrical supply industry?
5m
26
A10 - What is the minimum safe distance for working with dense smoke or flames approaching conductor?
10m
27
A10 - What is the minimum safe distance for working with ladders, aerial appliance or tall equipment?
10m operationally 20m in training 10m corriddor
28
A10 - What is the minimum safe distance for working using hand held jets?
20m corridor
29
A10 - What is the minimum safe distance for working with ground monitors
30m corridor
30
A10 - What is the classifications for low voltage and where would it be found?
``` Greater than 50 Volts but less than 1000 volts AC or 1500 Volts DC. ● Light Industrial Premises ● Commercial Premises ● Farms ● Domestic Premises ```
31
A10 - What is the classifications for high voltage and where would it be found?
``` Anything greater than 1000 Volts AC or 1500 Volts DC. ● Heavy Industrial Premises ● Overhead Line Equipment ● Transformers ● Sub-stations ● Underground Cable Installations ```
32
A10 - When MUST electrical gloves be worn?
● For removing persons in contact from low voltage cables | ● For moving low voltage cables which prove a danger to operations
33
A10 - What distance must crews stay away from Overhead Line Equipment for electrified railways?
1m
34
A10 - Which component of production and distribution has outputs as high as 2675 megawatts?
Power Stations
35
A10 - Which component of production and distribution reduces voltage from 400,000v to 230v in sequential steps?
Sub stations
36
A10 - Overhead line towers [Pylons] operate at voltages ranging from?
33000v- 400,000v
37
A10 - True or False? Electric shock can cause; | Death, paralysis, Fibrillation of the heart, Cardiac arrest & Burns
True
38
A10 - What is the pre-determined attendance for an incident involving water endangering electrics?
1 pump
39
A10 - What is the PDA for incidents involving a sub station?
2 nearest pumps
40
A10 - True or false; electrical rubber gloves are suitable to be used where system voltages exceed 3300v?
False
41
A10 - When making a rescue of persons in contact with, or in close proximity to, live equipment what procedures must be put in place?
Make safe to touch | Switch off power supply
42
A10 - True or false; When a transformer is involved in a fire it is vital to lay a blanket of foam over the affected area as soon as possible to reduce the risk of explosion.
True
43
A10 - What is the safe distance to be maintained when Solar Photovoltaic Installation (Solar Panels) components are involved in fire?
1m
44
A10 - Solar panel installations can generate up to?
200v – 1000v
45
A12 - On arrival at all incidents involving cylinders an initial hazard zone of how many metres should be identified?
200m
46
A12 - True or false; A purely mechanical shock without elevated temperature to an acetylene cylinder, such as a drop from a lorry, will neither start decomposition nor ignite the gas.
True
47
A12 - which is lighter, acetylene or air
Acetylene
48
A12 - How long does cylinder need to remain cool to be handed over if not safe to do so beforehand?
24 hours
49
A12 - What indicators should you look for to see if cylinders have been heated?
``` ● Burnt Label ● Burnt/Melted Plastic Rings ● Scorch Marks On Cylinder ● Wetting Test ● Thermal Image Camera Registering Heat ```
50
A12 - What is the predetermined attendance for incidents involving Cylinders?
What is the predetermined attendance for incidents involving Cylinders? ● 2 x nearest fire appliances ● 1 x flexi-duty officer ● 1 x Hazardous Incident Team (HIT) officer
51
A12 - What is the colour classification for acetylene
Maroon/Burgundy
52
A12 - What is the colour classification for oxygen
white
53
A12 - What is the colour classification for Nitrous Oxide
Blue
54
A12 - What is the colour classification for Argon
Dark Green
55
A12 - What is the colour classification for Nitrogen
Black
56
A12 - What is the colour classification for Carbon Dioxide?
Grey
57
A12 - What is the colour classification for helium
brown
58
A12 - What is the colour classification for air or synthetic air?
bright green
59
A12 - What are the colour classifications by hazard type?
● Inert is Bright Green ● Oxidising is Light Blue ● Flammable is Red ● Tox and/or Corrosive is Yellow
60
A12 - What are the hazards associated with Oxygen cylinders?
● Explosion when subject to heat ● Oxidising ● Will intensify combustion
61
A12 - What are the hazards associated with Helium & Nitrogen cylinders?
● Explosion when subject to heat | ● Asphyxiant
62
A12 - What are the hazards associated with Nitrous Oxide cylinders?
``` ● Explosion when subject to heat ● Oxidising ● Will intensify combustion ● Asphyxiant ● Contact with liquid causes skin burns and damage to eyes ● Narcotic in high concentrations ```
63
A12 - What are the hazards associated with Compressed Air cylinders?
● Explosion when subject to heat
64
A12 - There are 4 main gas types. What are they?
Toxics/Corrosives Oxidants Inerts Flammables
65
A12 - LPG cylinders failing under heat may result in an explosion, also known as a BLEVE. What does BLEVE stand for?
Boiling Liquid Expanding Vapour Explosion
66
A12 - How long is the cooling phase?
1 hour
67
A12 - How long is the monitoring phase
1 hour with monitoring every 15 minutes.
68
A17 - What does MRI stand for?
Magnetic resonance imaging
69
A17 - Vehicle main scheme radios must not be used to transmit when parked less than how many meters from buildings likely to house medical devices?
20m
70
A17 - Mobile radio equipment must not be used to transmit within how many meters of any medical devices?
10m
71
A17 - True or false; risk of infection is higher whilst working in hospitals however MRSA will not normally cause an infection in a healthy person.
True
72
A17 - Although cryogenic substances pose no chemical hazard in small quantities, they can cause a physical hazard. These include what?
Hypothermia Cold burns Asphyxiation
73
A17 - Large volumes of lead are often used in some hospital departments for shielding against radiation. At what temperature is the melting point of lead?
327c
74
A17 - Where are Cryogenics used in Hospitals?
Surgery, laboratories and MRI scanners
75
A17 - What Cryogenics are commonly used in Hospitals?
○ Liquid Nitrogen ○ Liquid Helium ○ Solid Carbon Dioxide (Dry Ice)
76
A17 - Where may you find Radiation Risks inside Hospitals?
● Radiology – x-ray, fluoroscopy and computerised tomography (CT) Scan ● Radiotherapy ● Nuclear medicine department
77
A25 - What are the significant hazards at incidents involving Insulated Sandwich Panels?
● Possibility of internal collapse with little or no warning ● Undetected fire spread inside sandwich panel ● Delamination of panels leading to large metal sheets falling, causing exposure of combustible infill and subsequent increase in fire load and fire development ● Products of combustion and fire water run off may have polluting effect ● Building quickly fills completely with dense smoke ● Not easily ventilated – often no windows or roof lights ● Fires in buildings may reach 900°C in four minutes
78
A29 - What are the three main categories that Water Hazards can be divided into?
Flowing water hazards Static water hazards Tidal water hazards
79
A29 - There are two types of current generated by water as it flows along a river. What are they
Helical flow | Laminar flow
80
A29 - How many metres away from the water’s edge do you need to be in order to necessitate lifejackets?
3m
81
A29 - What two pieces of water rescue equipment can be found on front line appliances?
4 x lifejackets | 2 x throw lines
82
A29 - If someone is submerged in water for a considerable amount what is the correct approach?
Non-committal - body recovery
83
A29 when working inside the three metre risk zone what must in place?
Lifejacket donned full firefighting kit to be worn throw lines available
84
A29 - What is the hierachy of water rescue
``` Talk Reach Throw row go- tow helo ```
85
A29 - What are the exceptional circumstances in which the IC may commit firefighters to the water for rescue?
A human life is saveable and it will be lost before arrival of water rescue team Talk, reach and throw options not successful It’s not a sub-surface rescue Minimal risk to firefighters
86
A29 - What is the submerge time for casualties for crews to adopt non-committal approach?
10 minutes
87
C1 - What is the predetermined attendance at an incident involving Carbon Monoxide?
Nearest pumping appliance and HAZMAT Officer (with gas monitoring equipment)
88
C1 - What are the hazards associated with Carbon Monoxide?
● Flammable ● Toxic ● May react violently with other substances ● Presence of high levels of Carbon Monoxide may indicate slow burning fire ● Low level long term exposure can lead to long term health issues
89
C1 - What are the physical properties of Carbon Monoxide?
● Lighter than air ● Colourless ● Odourless ● Gas at ambient temperatures
90
C1 - What PPE must be worn by responders in Carbon Monoxide incidents?
● BA (Must not be dust mask as offers no protection) | ● Carbon Monoxide Detector
91
C1 - What are the alarms levels for Carbon Monoxide detectors?
The personal carbon monoxide alarms will sound at 35PPM (parts per million) and again at 100 ppm and staff should consider further venting or the use of Breathing Apparatus.
92
C1 - What is the workplace exposure limit for CO for an 8 hour period?
35ppm
93
C2 - What is the maximum exposure time in the risk area when wearing GTS (Gas Tight Suits)?
20 Minutes working, from after being briefed to arrival at the decontamination point.
94
C2 - What is the minimum pressure required when returning to decontamination point?
140bar
95
C2 - What method is used to decontaminate members of the public's skin?
Rinse wipe rinse
96
C2 - What are the 4 different types of decontamination?
● emergency decontamination; ● interim / improvised decontamination (this is an effective means that allows personnel to be deployed before the arrival of specialised assets and will enable the incident plan to be operated in a timely manner; ● full decontamination (mass decontamination falls into this category) ● clinical decontamination.
97
C2 - What pressure would require connection to emergency air supply?
70 bar
98
C2 - How should contaminated Fire Kit (Not including boots and helmet) be bagged?
● Placed in Dissolvo bag, goose necked and cable tied ● Dissolvo bag placed inside clear polythene bag gooseneck and cable tied ● Sticky Label with words ‘Contaminated Fire Kit’, UN Number (if available) and persons name and service number
99
C3 - What does NAIR scheme stand for?
National Arrangement For Incidents Involving Radiation
100
C3 - What is NAIR?
Assistance scheme providing experts on two levels - Two stages; Stage 1 - Radiation expert Stage 2 - Radiation team
101
C3 - What is contamination?
Transfer of radioactive material to the skin or clothes of a firefighter (including ingestion)
102
C3 - What is irradiation?
The effect of proximity to a radiation source on a firefighters body.
103
C3 - What level of PPE is required for a radiation incident?
Sealed Source - Fire Kit BA, Gauntlets and EPD, survey meter | Unsealed source - GTS, BA Survey meter
104
C3 - What are the 3 thing you can do to protect against Radiation?
● Time – keep exposure time as short as possible. ● Distance – keep as far away as possible from the source. ● Shielding – shield body from source wherever possible.
105
C3 - What is the radiation dose annual legal limit for all firefighters?
20mSv
106
C3 - What is the legal limit for a radiation dose for a female firefighter in a three month period?
13mSv | Avon Fire & Rescue Service policy: do not commit female firefighters
107
C3 - What is the dose constraint per incident where life-saving actions are not required?
5mSv | this is an advisory limit not a legal limit
108
C3 - What is the exceptional dose limit for an informed volunteer, in order to save life or maintain critical infrastructure, at a licensed nuclear site or incident involving transport by rail.
100 mSv | Must be authorised by the AFRS Hazmat Adviser
109
C3 - What is the tone of the EPD when low level radiation is detected? (Initial dose rate)
Fast intermittent double beep, high tone; Above 100 μSv/hr Report level to IC, await instructions..
110
C3 - What is the tone of the EPD when the advisory dose limit is reached? (Dose constraint alarm)
Continuous slow dual high tone Above 5 mSv Report level to IC. Withdraw (unless life saving or maintaining critical infrastructure).
111
C3 - What is the tone of the EPD when the exceptional dose limit is reached? (Exceptional dose alarm)
Continuous single high tone Above 100 mSv Withdraw immediately, decontaminate, go to hospital.
112
C3 - Where should appliances be located when dealing with Radiation incidents?
● 45m away | ● Upwind
113
C3 - What on site specialist may be available at radiation incidents?
■ RPA – radiological protection advisor. | ■ RPS – radiological protection supervisor.
114
C3 - When should EPD readings be recorded and checked?
● Recorded in and out of risk area | ● Checked every 5 minutes
115
C15 - What are the two levels of asbestos incident?
Asbestos suspected - significant | Asbestos suspected - Minor
116
C15 - What MUST you do when you return to station following an incident where personnel may have been exposed to asbestos?
Complete a wellworker
117
C15 - What are the three types of asbestos?
Blue, white and brown
118
C15 - What is the most commonly used type of asbestos in the UK?
Chrysotile (white asbestos)
119
C15 - What fibres are contained in brown asbestos?
Amosite
120
C15 - What fibres are contained in blue asbestos?
Crocidolite
121
C15 - How long might it take the effects of asbestos to appear?
15-60 years
122
C15 - True or false, asbestos is not harmful to health if undamaged and intact?
True
123
C15 - What is the PDA for a significant asbestos incident?
``` Normal PDA 1 Hazmat advisor 1 x FDO 1 x ERU Notify Environment Agency Notify Unitary Authority - Environmental Health Department ```
124
C15 - What is the minimum PPE for crews at an asbestos incidents?
Fire kit & BA/RPE
125
C15 - If a crew member assists a firefighter removing contaminated full fire fighting kit and Breathing Apparatus, what should they wear?
Disposable overall and disposable respirator or half mask respirator
126
C15 - True or False; Fire kit can be wetted, using a hose reel at low pressure, to eliminate the risk of airborne contamination?
True
127
C20 - What category (division) of explosive is "Mass explosion hazard"?
1.1
128
C20 - What category (division) of explosive is "Projection hazard but not a mass explosion hazard"?
1.2
129
C20 - What category (division) of explosive is "Fire hazard with minor blast or projection hazard or both"?
1.3
130
C20 - What category (division) of explosive is "Present no significant hazard "
1.4
131
C20 - What category (division) of explosive is "Very insensitive substances which do have a mass explosion hazard"?
1.5
132
C15 - What is the general recommended safe distance from division 1.1 explosives?
600m
133
C15 - What is the general recommended safe distance from division 1.2 explosives?
400m
134
C15 - What is the general recommended safe distance from division 1.3 explosives?
200m
135
C15 - What is the general recommended safe distance from division 1.4 explosives?
100m
136
C15 - What is the general recommended safe distance from division 1.5 explosives?
500m
137
C15 - What are the safe distances for use for Fireground Radios and Mobile Phones away from explosives?
20m
138
C15 - What are the safe distances for use for mainscheme Radios away from explosives?
50m
139
C15 - What is the initial safety distance on arrival at a bomb threat incident?
200m
140
C15 - What is the correct action for standing-by at a terrorist incident?
Positioned at a safe distance (200m?), remain in appliances, facing away from the incident with windows open.
141
D02 - The effects of CS gas will normally wear off after how long when removed from the contaminated area?
15 minutes
142
D02 - What colour epaulettes will a police medic wear?
green
143
D02 - What colour epaulettes will a PSU Sergeant wear?
White
144
D02 - What colour epaulettes will a PSU Commanders wear?
Red
145
D02 - if crews come under threat of personal attack and police protection is urgently required, which message should be sent to Service Control?
10:49
146
D02 - After a period of civil disorder/local disturbance, Fire and Rescue Service personnel should ensure that any continued heightened community tension and/or attacks on firefighters are recorded on what Form?
RP/011
147
D03 - On receipt of a message to ‘initiate major incident procedure’, Fire Control will mobilise a pre-determined attendance. How many of the nearest pumps will be on this attendance?
6
148
D03 - Which stage of ‘Control’will be established to help facilitate the strategic issues that result from large or protracted incidents?
Gold
149
D03 - What does METHANE stand for?
``` Major Incident Exact Location Type of Incident Hazards Access Number (and type) of casualties Emergency Services (needed and present) ```
150
D04 - For AFRS purposes, a bariatric person is defined as what?
Has a BMI of 40 or Over Regardless of their age, has a limitation due to their weight, physical size, shape, width, health, mobility, tissue viability or environmental access Is typically over 25 stone or 160kgs
151
D04 - The mnemonic for the DRA for a load is TILER? What does this stand for?
``` TASK INDIVIDUAL LOAD ENVIRONMENT ROUTE ```
152
D04 - Hierarchy of Rescue for bariatric patients. In what order should a rescue be approached?
Get casualty to self-mobilise with assistance Slide Lift using mechanical means Manual lift
153
D04 - Name four conditions that the bariatric patient may be suffering
``` Panic attacks Depression OCD Agoraphobia Embarrassment or shame Low self esteem ```
154
D04 - A standard domestic dwelling built to modern day specifications has a floor loading of how much?
1.5Kn
155
D04 - What biological hazards may be present with a bariatric person?
Faeces Decubitus ulcers Urine Sharps
156
D06 - What are the 6 criteria for TAC Vent?
``` Inlet Air-track outlet Comms Covering jet BA Team ```
157
D06 - What are the 7 constraints for TAC Vent
``` 4m ceilings Not above the 4th floor Not bigger than 200m square Not multi-compartment fires Casualty in exhaust Not when backdraught suspected Min 5 PPA trained personnel ```
158
D06 - What 5 roles must be TAC Vent Trained
IC BA X 2 covering jet operator (vent?) fan operator
159
D06 - What are the TAC Vent contra-indicators?
No punch out at exhaust Smoke continuing at the inlet Smoke and flame at an unexpected exhaust
160
D20 - What are the standard messages to send for ARAs?
“Analytical risk assessment now in force” – to indicate that the ARA process has been started. ● “Risk assessment checked'” – to indicate that the existing ARA has been checked but needed no changes ● “Risk assessment revised” – to indicate that there has been a significant change in risk at the incident and that the existing ARA has been changed to reflect this.
161
D20 - A New ARA MUST be started when?
● there is a significant change in risk or hazards; ● the Incident or Sector Commander changes (to allow the outgoing Incident Commander to have correctly signed off all ARAs completed under their command); ● the form completer is changed (such as a crew being relieved) to allow the ARA ‘completed by’ box on page three to be filled in by the person who had, up to that point, filled in the ARA.
162
D20 - How often must the ARA be checked and control advised?
● have been in attendance for 20 minutes or more; ● are sat inside a vehicle waiting for a keyholder to arrive; ● have no other work activity to carry out,
163
D20 - What is considered the maximum span of control at an incident?
4-5 spans of control
164
D21 - What are the stages of Breathing Apparatus?
``` ● Safety Wear ● Rapid Deployment ● Stage I ● Stage II ● Main Control ● BA Emergency ```
165
D21 - What are the conditions for BA rapid deployment?
People in need of urgent rescue and and are in view or close to the entry point No more than 4 crew at the incident No more than 2 BA wearers
166
D21 - When does Stage 1 BA procedure apply?
When it will not be a protracted incident No more than 2 ECP No more than 10 BA wearers in the risk area
167
D21 - When should you form a BA emergency team?
When there are six wearers in the risk area. They should be at the ECP and an ambulance should be requested.
168
D21 - Can you use guidelines in stage 1 BA procedure?
Yes - but not branch guidlelines
169
D21 - When does stage 2 BA procedure apply?
``` Protracted incidents More than 10 wearers More than 2 ECPs Branch guidlines need to be used There is any working with HART ```
170
D21 - When would BA Main control apply?
A large complicated incident Where more than 1 stage 2 ECP is established A large number of BA wearers
171
D21 - When does a BA emergency occur?
Wearer fails to return by TOW An DSU is heard Set fault or malfunction (defined conditions) Unforeseen failure of comms causes concern When called by the IC/SC, ECO or ECPS
172
D21 - What type of BA Emergency requires additional resoures
Class 1
173
D21 - True or false, a rapid deployment requires a radio message to service control?
True
174
D21 - True or false, an ECPS supervisor is appointed in Stage 1 entry control?
True - an ECPS should be appointed as soon as possible
175
D21 - True or false - ECO's and ECPS's have assistants in Stage 2 entry control?
True - assistants can be appointed to both roles
176
D21 - What is the minimum rank of the ECPS?
Crew Manager
177
D21 - What is the role of the ECPS?
The ECPS needs to understand the information from the BA board and get a brief from the ECO The ECPS should assume responsibility from the ECO for the command and control of BA teams The ECPS should assume BA comms with all teams operating from that ECP Record any new intelligence that is relevent Brief any new teams entering through the ECP
178
D21 - What is the minimum rank for a BAMCO?
Watch Manager
179
D21 - What are the duties of the BAMCO?
To get a brief on tasks and risks from IC Identify each ECP, ECO & ECPS and establish comms Establish availability of BA resources and personnel Work out the need for relief BA from each ECP Get relief teams to each ECP 5 mins from requirement Form an intelligence picture form the ECPS and ECPs Decide on the number and formation of BA emergency teams Appoint a BA servicing officer
180
D21 - What are the conditions for re-entry?
Must be a clearly defined task Cylinder contents must be sufficient for the task Must be a minimum of 140 bar The wearer must be fit to complete the task
181
D21 - Explain Safety Wear, and its rules?
● To enable an IC to task and deploy a single BA wearer ● BA wearers must not, on any account, enter a structure, building or confined space without full control procedures being implemented ● The BA wearer must be under the control of, and in sight of the Entry Control Officer (ECO)
182
D21 - What are the conditions of a set malfunction that lead to a BA emergency?
○ At an operational incident, whether the wearer is under air or not; ○ At any training event where the wearer will be entering a contaminated atmosphere, whether the wearer is under air or not ○ At any training event where the wearer will not be entering a contaminated atmosphere and where the defect is detected once pre-entry checks have been completed ○ It is not a BA emergency if a set malfunction occurs at a training event where the training environment is not contaminated and the fault occurs before the completion of the pre-entry checks
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D21 - What resources will be mobilised for a Class 1 BA emergency
○ Two additional appliances equipped with BA and wearers ○ One rescue tender ○ Ambulance(s). ○ Flexi-duty officer – as BA emergency officer only. ○ Flexi-duty officer with camera equipment where the BA emergency officer assigned to the incident is not already similarly equipped ○ Thermal imaging camera (if not already in attendance) ○ BA service vehicle ○ Notify Duty Group Manager ○ Notify FBU Secretary or Health and Safety Co-ordinator ○ Notify Health, Safety and Welfare Unit
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D21 - What additional resources are mobilised to a class 2 BA emergency?
○ Flexi-duty officer – as BA emergency officer only (who should not respond under blue lights unless specifically required) ○ Ambulance (if required) ○ Notify Duty Group Manager ○ Notify FBU Secretary or Health and Safety Co-ordinator ○ Notify Health, Safety and Welfare Unit
185
D21 - what is the minimum Pressure For BA Entry?
240 Bar (80% of full 300 Bar cylinger pressure)
186
D26 - ARM is the SWAH hierachy of risk control, what does it stand for?
Avoid Reduce Minimise
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D26 - The anchor system is the most important component of a rope system, what description should it conform to?
It should be unquestionably sound
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D26 - What are the Exceptional Circumstances?
A casualty needs immediate rescue There is no other means There is no TL available There is no rope rescue team available
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D26 - In order to use trees as anchor points the trees should have a minimum diameter of how many centimetres?
15cm
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D26 - When working with ladders, when must the Fall Arrest Lanyards be used?
When working from the head to position and mount a roof ladder
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D33 - What is the predetermined attendance at a Fire on Motorways, Dual Carriageways and Major Trunk Roads?
● Two pumping appliances to the reported carriageway ● One additional pumping appliance to approach the location from the opposing carriageway if on a motorway ● One additional pumping appliance to fires involving a large goods vehicle (LGV), coach or similar along the reported carriageway
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D33 - What is the predetermined attendance at a known grass fires / fuel spillages / speed cameras on Motorways, Dual Carriageways and Major Trunk Roads?
Two pumping appliances to the reported carriageway
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D33 - What is the predetermined attendance to an RTC on Motorways, Dual Carriageways and Major Trunk Roads?
● Two pumping appliances to the reported carriageway; ● One rescue tender plus parent pump to approach the incident along the reported carriageway ● One pumping appliance along the opposite carriageway, if on a motorway ● One flexi-duty supervisory officer ● Where the collision involves an LGV, coach or similar vehicle the rescue tender from Stn. 05 Avonmouth will attend with its parent pump
194
D33 - What PPE must be worn in addition to Firekit at an incident on Motorways, Dual Carriageways and Major Trunk Roads?
● High visibility jacket ● Medical gloves worn under fire / technical gloves; ● Safety spectacles at all times, plus visor during cutting / spreading operations ● Dust masks when cutting windscreens or generating other hazardous dusts ● Hearing protection when working in close proximity to loud machinery / devices
195
D33 - What are the procedures for incidents on Motorways, Dual Carriageways and Major Trunk Roads when Police and HA NOT in attendance?
● First pump parks 50 metres before incident in fend off position ● Second pump places ‘POLICE – ACCIDENT’ sign at 400m ● Liaises with first pump by radio to ascertain which lane(s) to cone off ● Second pump protects crew whilst placing cones in designated lane(s) ● On completion, second pump moves forward to an appropriate fend off position
196
D34 - What is the distance the first vehicle should be from an RTC on a regular road?
Ideally 50m to allow for a rescue tender to arrive
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D34 - What are the six phases of the team approach to RTC?
``` Scene Assessment and Scene Safety Stabilisation and initial casualty access Glass management and tool prep Space creation Full access immobilisation and extrication ```
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D34 - What should RTC rescues be?
safe, time effective and casualty centred.
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D34 - What is the minimum stabilisation that should be applied to a vehicle?
5 points
200
D33 - On a motorway when the police or HA are not in attendence how far back should the second appliance stop and place a sign?
400m
201
D33 - What is the minimum safe working corridor at an RTC on a motorway or trunk road?
2m
202
D33 - True of false; Cone tapers should be at least 100m per lane closed
True
203
D33 - True or false;It is acceptable, in certain circumstances, to cone off part of a lane?
False
204
D33 - If there are no matrix signs the police/HA will set up warning signs on the hard shoulder, at what distances?
900m - "POLICE ACCIDENT" 600m - "POLICE ACCIDENT" 300m - "POLICE SLOW"
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D33 - At what intervals would you expect to see a driver location sign?
500m
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D34 - What are the safety zones at an RTC?
● 2 metre zone – personnel actively involved in physical or medical rescue. ● 5 metre zone – location of Incident Commander, firefighting media, equipment pool, crew holding area and additional support. ● Inner cordon - This term relates to command and control and is the area under control of the Incident Commander for the successful management of the incident. The inner cordon of the incident may coincide with the 5m zone or may be larger.
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General - What is COMAH
Control of Major Accident Hazard Regulations 1999
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General - What is flashover?
the stage of a fire where TOTAL THERMAL RADIATION form the FIRE PLUME, HOT GASES and HOT COMPARTMENT BOUNDARIES causes all EXPOSED COMBUSTIBLE SURFACES to PYROLYSE (release flammable gases) and IGNITE when there is adequate ventilation. It is the SUDDEN and SUSTAINED transition from a growing fire to a fully developed fire.
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General - What is BACKDRAUGHT?
Backdraught is where LIMITED VENTILATION can lead to a COMPARTMENT producing fire gases containing significant proportions of PARTIAL COMBUSTION PRODUCTS and UNBURNED PYROLYSATES. If these accumulate, the admission of air into the compartment when opened can lead to a SUDDEN DEFLAGRATION. which moves through the compartment and out of the opening.
210
General - What is a FIRE GAS IGNITION?
Fire Gas Ingnition occurs when gases from a compartment fire have leaked into an adjacent compartment and mixed with air. This mix may then fall within the appropriate flammable limits, which if ignited will create an increase in pressure, either with or without an explosive force. It is not necessary for an opening to be made for this to occur. If an explosive force is experienced this is commonly termed a SMOKE EXPLOSION. An ignition with much less pressure the term FLASH FIRE is appropriate
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General - What are the 8 signs of flashover?
High heat conditions Flaming combustion overhead Ghosting tongues of flames No water falling back after "gas cooling" A sudden lowering of the smoke layer The sound of breaking glass as windows fail A change in smoke issueing (increased velocity and darkening in colour towards black) The presence of light coloured smoke from pyrolysis
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General - What are the 9 signs of backdraught?
Fire in tightly closed compartments Darkened windows Windows, doors and door handles hot to touch (back of hand) Rattling sound or pulsating smoke smoke being drawn into back into openings Ghosting tongues of flame in the compartment Turbulance in the smoke layer Whistling or roaring sounds Change to fast moving smoke exiting at high velocity as if under pressure
213
General - What is ventilation?
The removal of heated air, smoke and other contaminants from a structure or other location and their replacement with a supply of cooler cleaner air.
214
General - What are the benefits of ventilation?
Replenishing oxygen and reducing carbon monoxide Controlling temperature and humidity Removing moisture, dust and other contaminants Improving visibility and aiding navigation
215
General - What is the hierarchy of risk control?
``` Eliminate Reduce Isolate Control PPE Discipline ```
216
General - What is situational awareness
A persons understanding and perception of the situation they face. It includes anticipation of future actions and how they may impact them
217
General - Define a hazard?
something that can cause harm
218
General - define a risk?
the likelihood of a hazard occurring
219
General - Define a control measure?
something which will reduce the impact of a hazard or decrease the likelihood it will occur
220
General - What are the three types of risks assessment?
Dynamic Risk Assessment Analytical Risk Assessment Personal Risk Assessment
221
General - What are the principals of Joint working?
``` Co locate Communicate Co ordinate Joint understanding of risk Shared situational awareness ```
222
CBRN - What are STEPS 1, 2, 3 PLUS
STEP 1 – One casualty: no obvious reason Proceed normally STEP 2 – Two casualties; no obvious reason Approach with caution STEP 3 – Three or more casualties in close proximity with no obvious reason Use caution and follow Plus Plus – Refer to First Responder flowchart overleaf
223
CBRN - What would be the first action on arriving and recognising a CBRN incident was occurring?
Send a METHANE message
224
CBRN - Name 4 CBRN visual release indicators?
•  Dead or distressed people, birds and animals •  Multiple individuals showing unexplained signs of skin, eye or airway irritation; nausea; vomiting; twitching; sweating; pin-point pupils; runny nose; disorientation; breathing difficulties; convulsions •  The presence of hazardous or unusual materials/equipment. •  Unexplained vapour or mist clouds •  Unexplained oily droplets or films on surfaces or water •  Withered plant life and vegetation
225
CBRN - Where should a "place of relative safety" be sited? (this will become the warm zone)
Uphill and Upwind
226
CBRN - What is the best decontamination approach to non-caustic substances?
Disrobe and dry decon: exposed skin to be blotted and rubbed with dry absorbent material.
227
CBRN - When should wet decontamination be used?
WET DECON should be used if there are indications of caustic substances (i.e. redness, itching and burning of eyes or skin)
228
CBRN - What is the best method of wet decon?
Rinse-wipe-rinse
229
A12 - What form does the Flexi use to hand cylinders back to the occupier/cylinder owner?
Form RP/030: Incident Handover)
230
A12 - Why is Acetylene a particular concern when it comes to incidents with gas bottles?
Acetylene is a special case because it can undergo a selfsustaining internal decomposition reaction, producing heat, which may continue after the fire has been extinguished.
231
C06 - What is the PDA for an attack on a cash machine?
The PDA will be for the building type plus HAZMAT Officer and Fire Investigation Team (FIT) Officer
232
A01 - Which stations have high rise packs?
09 - Temple 10 - Kingswood 15 - Bedminster
233
A01 - What is in a high rise pack?
```  Bristol City Council suite keys  Firemans Lift Key  Door Wedges  Laminated High Rise plans  Laminated High Rise SOP  Pocket sized SOP aide-memoir  A-Z Map  Pen  Chinagraph pencil  Tags for returning pack to correct station ```
234
A01 - What FIREFIGHTING equipment needs to go to the lobby to supply the bridgehead?
 1 x 70mm hose (short length);  3 x 45mm hose (consider Cleveland Roll);  1 x hand-controlled fog-making branch;  1 x controlled dividing breeching (alternatively additional jets can be run from lower floors but additional hose will be required for this);  appropriate hand-held fire extinguishing equipment; and  Thermal Imaging Camera
235
A01 - What GAINING ACCESS equipment needs to go to the lobby to supply the bridgehead?
 1 x sledgehammer;  1 x Hooligan tool;  1 x bolt croppers; and  1 x set of keys.
236
A01 - What BA AND COMMS equipment needs to go to the lobby to supply the bridgehead?
 Breathing apparatus (BA) entry control board and equipment;  2 x breathing apparatus sets; and  Fireground radios – at least one BA wearer to have communications and a back-up radio should be carried by the second BA wearer in case of communications failure. If practical, both BA wearers should use BA communication sets.
237
A01 - What GENERAL equipment needs to go to the lobby to supply the bridgehead?
 Sector Commander and BAECO tabards;  Trauma Pack; and  1 x 30m general purpose line (only if the fire is on the 8th floor or lower).
238
A01 - What are the objectives of the FIRST pump in attendance?
 information gathering (see section 1.3 above);  securing a water supply (when practical, two firefighters will check all landing valves prior to the charging of the riser).  When checking landing valves crews should check for ventilation openings and close if necessary  Ascertain if there are any automatic smoke control or ventilation systems operating  give consideration to twin lengths from standpipe to pump to riser inlet  preparing equipment and take it to the lobby (see list in section 1.4.2 below);  set up lobby sector; and  provide the fire sector with equipment.
239
A01 - What are the objectives of the SECOND pump in attendance?
 provide assistance with securing the water supply, set up the fire sector command post at the bridgehead with the appliance officer-in-charge to act as the Fire Sector Commander;  Provide a safety jet (best practice should be from an alternative riser or the outlet below the main firefighting jet so that a water supply is secure should a burst length occur)  provide BA crew;  provide BA control; and  act as the initial communication point.
240
A01 - What are the objectives of the THIRD pump in attendance?
 provide cordon and other support functions;  provide assistance with securing the water supply;  support the fire sector with the provision of a BA emergency team at the bridgehead; and  support the communication point with command support wallet when resources permit.
241
A01 - What role does the IC of the FIRST appliance assume in a highrise incident?
Lobby Sector Commander
242
A01 - What role does the IC of the SECOND appliance assume in a highrise incident?
Fire Sector Commander
243
D06 - What are the benefits of tactical ventilation?
 Improve visibility  Rapidly remove heat and POC from a structure  Reduce the risk of flashover or backdraught  Speed up attack and extinguishment of the fire  Restrict/reduce fire spread  Increase survivability of casualties  Makes working conditions safer and easier for internal firefighting operations  Reduce property loss and damage
244
D06 - What is phase 2 PPV?
Where BA teams are already committed to the building before fans are turned on.
245
D06 - What is phase 3 PPV?
Fans are used to change conditions inside a structure before BA teams are committed.