300 Questions And Answers Flashcards
(291 cards)
1
Q
A gastropexy might be indicated in the management of which condition? A)Gastric foreign body B)Gastric neoplasm C)Gastric torsion D)Haemorrhagic gastro-enteritis
A
C)Gastric torsion
2
Q
The condition which could be an indication for performing a urethrostomy in a male animal is; A)A ruptured bladder B)Hydronphrosis C)Urethral calculi D)Ectopic ureter
A
C)Urethral calculi
3
Q
Animals with lymphosarcoma are MOST commonly treated using which type of tumour therapy? A)Chemotherapy B)Radiotherapy C)Surgery D)Isotopes
A
A)Chemotherapy
4
Q
Cataracts affect which part of the eye? A)Lens B)Cornea C)Aqueous humour D)Retina
A
A)Lens
5
Q
Which ONE of the following tumours that affect bone is benign? A)Osteosarcoma B)Chondrosarcoma C)Osteochondroma D)Fibrosarcoma
A
C)Osteochondroma
6
Q
A drain could be used in which ONE of the following situations?
A)A shallow wound healing by second intention
B)A cystotomy
C)A deep wound where tissue has been removed leaving dead space
D)A small surgical wound healing by first intention
A
C)A deep wound where tissue has been removed leaving dead space
7
Q
A penrose drain with gauze down the central lumen of the drain is called a; A)Penrose drain B)Cigarette drain C)Sump-penrose D)Tube drain
A
B)Cigarette drain
8
Q
Which ONE of the following is NOT a method by which a passive drain works? A)Gravitation B)Overflow C)Capillary action D)Suction
A
D)Suction
9
Q
When should a Heimlich valve be used?
A)In cases of pleural effusion and pneumothorax
B)In cases of pneumothorax only
C)In cases where only fluid is being drained
D)When draining the abdomen
A
B)In cases of pneumothorax only
10
Q
Which ONE of the following surgical procedures could be performed at the same time as a dental scale and polish? A)Bitch spay B)Fracture repair C)Small wart removal D)None of the above
A
D)None of the above
11
Q
Which ONE of the following is congenital disease of the oral cavity? A)Cleft palate B)Gum epulides C)Gingivitis D)Sialagogitis
A
A)Cleft palate
12
Q
Which ONE of the following is NOT a symptom of megaoesophagus? A)Weight loss B)Aspiration pneumonia C)Regurgitation D)Vomiting
A
D)Vomiting
13
Q
Intussusception is linked with which ONE of the following; A)Diarrhoea B)Constipation C)A heavy burden of endoparasites D)All of the above
A
D)All of the above
14
Q
Rectal tumours can be visualised via: A)Cystoscopy B)Proctoscopy C)Colonoscopy D)Rectoscopy
A
B)Proctoscopy
15
Q
Skin fold dermatitis is MOST likely to occur in which ONE of the following breeds? A)Labrador B)Saluki C)Sharpei D)Collie
A
C)Sharpei
16
Q
A breed COMMONLY associated with anal furunculosis is; A)Old English bull terrier B)Sharpei C)German Shepard dog D)Cocker spaniel
A
C)German Shepard dog
17
Q
What other procedure SHOULD be carried out when an anal adenoma is removed from an elderly male dog? A)A chat to his owners about diet B)Castration C)Anal sac removal D)Prostatectomy
A
B)Castration
18
Q
Which ONE of the following analgesics is useful for laryngeal surgery because of its Antitussive qualities? A)Burtorphanol B)Bupivicaine C)Buprenorphine D)Butyrophenone
A
A)Burtophanol
19
Q
Which ONE of the following is NOT associated with brachycephalic airway obstruction syndrome? A)Narrow nares B)Overlong soft palate C)Narrow trachea D)Hypoplastic bronchi
A
D)Hypoplastic bronchi
20
Q
The term used to describe the procedure of forcing sterile saline through a urinary catheter is dislodge urethral calculi is; A)Hydropulsion B)Retropulsion C)Urethropulsion D)Hyperpulsion
A
B)Retropulsion
21
Q
The disease of the ear that OFTEN affects the organ of balance is; A)Otitis externa B)Otitis interna C)Otitis media D)Aural haematology
A
B)Otitis interna
22
Q
Which ONE of the following pieces of equipment gives the BEST assurance that sterilisation has taken place? A)Bowie dick tape B)TST strips C)Brownes tube D)Autoclave tape
A
B)TST strips
23
Q
The normal incision of an emergency tracheotomy is caudal to;
A)The first or second pair of tracheal rings
B)The second or third pair of tracheal rings
C)The fourth or fifth pair of tracheal rings
D)Any tracheal rings
A
B)The second or third pair of tracheal rings
24
Q
Which ONE of the following is NOT a common sign of shock? A)Pale mucous membranes B)Capillary refill time of 1-2seconds C)Cold extremities D)Collapse
A
B)Capillary refill times of 1-2seconds
25
```
Which ONE of the following is the MOST common type of shock?
A)Neurogenic shock
B)Psychogenic shock
C)Cariogenic shock
D)Hypovolaemic shock
```
D)Hypovolaemic shock
26
```
An example of an incomplete fracture is a;
A)Comminuted fracture
B)Transverse fracture
C)Fissured fracture
D)Compound fracture
```
C)Fissured fracture
27
```
Another name for a fracture through a grown plate is a;
A)Salter Harris fracture
B)Condylar fracture
C)Diaphyseal fracture
D)Epiphyseal fracture
```
A)Salter Harris fracture
28
```
What is the term given to the union of a fracture that is healed in a deformed position?
A)Non union
B)Nil union
C)Malunion
D)Any of the above
```
C)Malunion
29
```
Fracture disease occurs MORE COMMONLY with which type of fracture fixation;
A)External coaptation
B)ASIF
C)Venables plates and screws
D)Kirschner-Elmer fixator
```
A)External coaptation
30
```
How long does plaster of Paris take to reach its full strength?
A)12hours
B)24hours
C)36hours
D)48hours
```
B)24hours
31
```
A common type of extension splint is the;
A)Kirschner-Ehmer splint
B)Kirschner-Schroeder splint
C)Schroeder-Thomas splint
D)Thomas-Ehmer spliny
```
C)Schroeder-Thomas splint
32
Which one of the following is NOT a feature of a rush pin?
A)It’s curved
B)The top of the pin is bent over to form a hook
C)It is often used to anchor ephiphyseal fragments back onto the shaft of the bone
D)It is always used singly
D)It is always used singly
33
```
Which ONE of the following bandages would you put on a dislocated hip that has just undergone closed reduction?
A)Thomas sling
B)Velpeau sling
C)Elmer sling
D)Kirschner sling
```
C)Elmer sling
34
```
A wound that is caused by a scalpel is MOST likely to heal via;
A)Granulation
B)First intention healing
C)Second intention healing
D)Skin graft
```
B)First intention healing
35
```
A surgical wound, made under aseptic conditions, becomes which type of wound if the surgeon punctures his or her glove while operating?
A)A clean wound
B)A clean-contaminated wound
C)A contaminated wound
D)A dirty (infected) wound
```
B)A clean contaminated wound
36
```
A fresh traumatic wound (less than six hours old) can be classed as a;
A)Clean wound
B)Clean contaminated wound
C)Contaminated wound
D)Dirty infected wound
```
C)Contaminated wound
37
Which ONE of the following types of assisted feeding is considered the BEST for cases needing feeding for longer than 7 days?
A)Percutaneous endoscopic gastronomy tube
B)Naso-oesophageal tube
C)Naso-gastric tube
D)Pharyngostomy tube
A)Percutaneous endoscopic gastronomy tube
38
```
The name given to an abnormal tract that connects two epithelial surfaces is;
A)Cellulitus
B)Sinus
C)A fistula
D)An abscess
```
C)A fistula
39
```
The animal MOST likely to suffer from hypothermia during surgery is;
A)A mouse
B)A guinea pig
C)A cat
D)A dog
```
A)A mouse
40
```
An adenocarcinoma is;
A)A benign tumour of fibrous tissue
B)A malignant tumour of fibrous tissue
C)A benign tumour of glandular tissue
D)A malignant tumour of glandular tissue
```
D)A malignant tumour of glandular tissue
41
```
The CORRECT term for a permanent opening into the trachea is;
A)Tracheotomy
B)Tracheostomy
C)Trachectomy
D)Tracheapexy
```
B)Tracheostomy
42
For which ONE of the following reasons may a veterinary surgeon MOST COMMONLY perform a cystotomy?
A)To dissect out a portion of the bladder wall when a tumour is present
B)To remove bladder stones
C)To unblock the urethra when urinary calculi are causing a blockage
D)None of the above
B)To remove bladder stones
43
```
A film covering the teeth, made up of bacteria, food particles and saliva, is known as;
A)Dental calculus
B)Gingivitis
C)Plaque
D)Tartar
```
C)Plaque
44
```
The correct suffix for a term describing the surgical removal of a structure is;
A)-ectothermic
B)-itis
C)-ostomy
D)-otomy
```
A)-ectothermic
45
The scaling of teeth should NOT be performed at the same time as other major surgery because:
A)Different antibiotics may be required for the two different procedures
B)Scaling increases the time the animal is under GA and therefore increases the anaesthetic risk
C)Scaling can produce oral discomfort for some days afterwards, so the patient is less willing to eat and takes longer to recover from surgery
D)Scaling releases bacteria from the mouth into the blood stream, leading to an increased risk of wound infection
D)Scaling releases bacteria from the mouth into the blood stream, leading to an increased risk of wound infection
46
```
What is the name of the technique whereby a needle is put through the abdominal wall in order to drain urine from the bladder?
A)Abdominocentesis
B)Cystocentesis
C)Percutaneous compression
D)Thoracocentesis
```
B)Cystocentesis
47
```
Which ONE of the following is NOT a causative factor in dental disease?
A)Caries
B)Distemper
C)Halitosis
D)Pulpitis
```
C)Halitosis
48
Which is the MOST urgent procedure in gastric dilatation/volvulus syndrome?
A)Intravenous fluid
B)Decompression of the stomach
C)Passing an endotracheal tube
D)Returning the stomach to its normal position
B)Decompression of the stomach
49
```
Collapsing trachea is MOST commonly seen in;
A)German shepherd dogs
B)Labrador retrievers
C)Corgis
D)Yorkshire terriers
```
D)Yorkshire terriers
50
```
Hysterotomy describes;
A)Removal of the uterus
B)Removal of the ovaries and the uterus
C)Temporary opening into the uterus
D)None of the above
```
C)Temporary opening into the uterus
51
The BEST preventative treatment of vaginal hyperplasia is;
A)Ovariohysterectomy
B)Surgical resection
C)Progestogen therapy
D)Nothing, because it only occurs in immature bitches that will eventually grow out of it
A)Ovariohysterectomy
52
```
Which ONE of the following would NOT be a reason for castration?
A)To reduce excessive libido
B)To reduce roaming
C)To increase unwanted breeding
D)To prevent roaming
```
C)To increase unwanted breeding
53
```
Pus within the anterior chamber in the eye is known as;
A)Entropion
B)Ureitis
C)Proptosis
D)Hypopion
```
D)Hypopion
54
```
What device would you use to examine the rectum?
A)An auroscope
B)A proctoscope
C)A laryngoscope
D)An opthalmoscope
```
B)A proctoscope
55
```
Cryosurgery, used in the treatment of tissue, is by application of;
A)Heat
B)Cytotoxic drugs
C)Extreme cold
D)Radiation
```
C)Extreme cold
56
```
Trauma to the central nervous system may result in which type of shock?
A)Vasculogenic
B)Neurogenic
C)Endotoxic
D)Cardiogenic
```
B)Neurogenic
57
```
An overdose of Acepromazine is LIKELY to cause;
A)Neurogenic shock
B)Vasculogenic shock
C)Cardiogenic shock
D)Endotoxic shock
```
B)Vasculogenic shock
58
```
What hormone is responsible for retaining sodium?
A)Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
B)Aldosterone
C)Adrenaline
D)None of the above
```
B)Aldosterone
59
```
Which ONE of the following is NOT usually a causative factor in hypothermia?
A)Exposure to cold
B)Malnutrition
C)Inactivity
D)The use of rebreathing circuits
```
D)The use of rebreathing circuits
60
```
Which ONE of the following signs is NOT usually indicative of hypothermia?
A)Shivering
B)Pale mucous membranes
C)Increased pulse rate
D)Lethargy
```
C)Increased pulse rate
61
Which ONE of the following precautions is the LEAST used in the prevention of hypothermia during a surgical procedure?
A)Placing the animal on a heat pad throughout the procedure
B)Giving warmed fluids subcutaneously
C)Careful patient preparation, ensuring the animal does not get too wet
D)Ensuring the environmental temperature in the theatre is relatively high
B)Giving warmed fluids subcutaneously
62
```
To prevent hyperthermia, additional heat sources should be removed once core temperature has been reached at;
A)38c
B)38.5c
C)39c
D)39.5c
```
C)39c
63
```
Which ONE of the following is NOT usually indicative of hyperthermia?
A)Decreased pulse rate
B)Shock
C)Cyanosis
D)Increased salivation
```
A)Decreased pulse rate
64
The MOST important first aid treatment of hyperthermia is to;
A)Cool the patient
B)Ensure a patent airway
C)Put in a cool cage and check core temperature every fifteen minutes
D)Give cool intravenous fluids
B)Ensure a patent airway
65
Dehiscence is defined as;
A)Poor blood supply to a wound caused by bruising of the surrounding tissues
B)Skin necrosis caused by excessively tight sutures
C)The formation of a seromia on the site of the surgical wound
D)Wound breakdown
D)Wound breakdown
66
Which ONE of the following dressings in NOT indicated to encourage sloughing of necrotic tissue in a large wound?
A)A dry non-adherent dressing
B)An alginate dressing
C)An occlusive hydrocolloid dressing
D)Successive wet packs made up with sterile saline
C)An occlusive hydrocolloid dressing
67
In the process of wound healing, organisation is defines as;
A)The process by which inflammatory tissue is removed once an abscess is drained
B)The replacement of damaged tissue by scar tissue
C)The replacement of destroyed tissue by similar functional tissue
D)The return of the tissue to the state it was in before the start of the inflammatory process
B)The replacement of damaged tissue by scar tissue
68
```
A skin graft of small plugs of dermis implanted in matching incisions in the granulation tissue is known as;
A)A mesh graft
B)A pinch graft
C)A stamp graft
D)A strip graft
```
B)A pinch graft
69
Which ONE of the following is NOT a disadvantage in the use of drains in surgical wounds?
A)Drains may allow infection to gain access to the body
B)The animal must be prevented from trying to remove the drain, often wearing an Elizabethan collar
C)The presence of a drain will usually increase the time taken for the original surgical wound to heal
D)Drains act as foreign bodies within the tissues
B)The animal must be prevented from trying to remove the drain, often wearing an Elizabethan collar
70
```
An inflammatory fluid containing dead tissue and leukocytes is called;
A)Synovial fluid
B)Ulceration
C)Exudate
D)Pus
```
D)Pus
71
```
A localised accumulation of dead and viable neutrophils in a cavity lined with fibrous tissue is called;
A)An abscess
B)Cellulitis
C)A cyst
D)An ulcer
```
A)An abscess
72
```
A sutured surgical wound in the oral mucosa is defined as;
A)A clean contaminated wound
B)A clean wound
C)A contaminated wound
D)An infected wound
```
A)A clean contaminated wound
73
An allograft is a skin graft that;
A)Has come from a different animal of the same species
B)Has come from an animal of a different species
C)Has come from elsewhere on the same animal
D)Includes only the epidermis and a small sliver of dermis
A)Has come from a different animal of the same species
74
```
An inflammatory reaction where pus is distributed through cleavage planes and tissue space is called;
A)A cold abscess
B)An abscess
C)Cellulitis
D)Ulceration
```
C)Cellulitis
75
```
Which ONE of the following is NOT a cardinal sign of inflammation?
A)Normal limb movement
B)Oedema
C)Erythema
D)Algesia
```
A)Normal limb movement
76
```
Inflammation will NOT be caused by;
A)Tumours
B)Burns
C)Bacterial spores
D)Viruses
```
C)Bacterial spores
77
```
Pain associated with inflammation is due to;
A)Pressure on nerve endings
B)Pressure on muscle fibres
C)Pressure on blood vessels
D)Pressure on bone ends
```
A)Pressure on nerve endings
78
```
Cell death associated with the loss of local blood supply and putrefaction of the tissues by bacteria is called;
A)Necrosis
B)Gangrene
C)Abscessation
D)degeneration
```
B)Gangrene
79
```
Which ONE of the following drugs would NOT be indicated in the treatment of acute inflammation?
A)Paracetamol
B)Aspirin
C)Carprofen
D)Phenylbutazone
```
A)Paracetamol
80
Treatment of ulcers does NOT include;
A)Providing drainage
B)Removing the inciting cause
C)Treating any secondary bacterial infection
D)Providing temporary protection for the healing surface
A)Providing drainage
81
```
Examples of labile cells include;
A)Cells of endocrine tissue
B)Cells of fibrous tissue
C)Cells of skeletal tissue
D)Cells of lymphoid tissue
```
D)Cells of lymphoid tissue
82
```
Examples of stable cells include;
A)Cells of endocrine tissue
B)Cells of epithelial tissue
C)Blood cells
D)Cells of lymphoid tissue
```
A)Cells of endocrine tissue
83
```
In a surgical list, which ONE should be the first case?
A)Lipoma removal
B)Abscess debridement
C)Ovariohysterectomy
D)Excizion arturoplasty
```
D)Excizion arturoplasty
84
```
An operative wound made under aseptic conditions, penetrating the respiratory tract, is known as a;
A)Clean wound
B)Clean contaminated wound
C)Contaminated wound
D)Dirty infected wound
```
B)Clean contaminated wound
85
```
Which ONE of the following is NOT a complication of wound healing?
A)Erythema
B)Haematoma
C)Odour
D)Sterility
```
D)Sterility
86
```
From the list of procedures below, which ONE should be performed last?
A)Lipoma removal
B)Abscess debridement
C)Ovariohysterectomy
D)Excizion arturoplasty
```
B)Abscess debridement
87
```
A blind-ended tract, lined with granulation tissue and usually leading to an abscess cavity, is called a;
A)Hernia
B)Abscess
C)Fistula
D)Sinus
```
D)Sinus
88
```
A seroma is MOST likely to occur after/
A)Bitch spay
B)Mammary tumour removal
C)Discectomy
D)Femoral head arthroplasty
```
B)Mammary tumour removal
89
```
Drains are NOT indicated for;
A)Abolished dead space in wounds
B)Drainage of contaminated wounds
C)Full thickness skin grafts
D)Removal of air from body cavities
```
C)Full thickness skin grafts
90
```
A fracture with an overlying open wound is classified as;
A)Avulsed
B)Pathological
C)Open
D)Greenstick
```
C)Open
91
```
External coaptation is the term used to describe;
A)External/internal fixation
B)Intramedullary pinning
C)Plating
D)Casting materials
```
D)Casting materials
92
```
Pain, swelling, heat, erythema and loss of normal function are signs of;
A)Infection
B)Inflammation
C)Resolution
D)Necrosis
```
B)Inflammation
93
What is resolution?
A)Replacement of damaged tissue by similar tissue
B)Destruction of tissue
C)Scar formation
D)Return to normal with little to no damage
D)Return to normal with little to no damage
94
```
What type of wound healing would you expect following a surgical incision?
A)Granulation
B)Healing by second intention
C)Healing by first intention
D)Regeneration
```
C)Healing by second intention
95
```
Which ONE of the following offers good residual efficacy after scrubbing?
A)Cetavlon
B)Hibiscrub
C)Pevidine
D)Savlon
```
B)Hibiscrub
96
```
At what temperature does Bowie-dick tape turn colour?
A)131c
B)151c
C)121c
D)112c
```
C)121c
97
```
Which ONE of the following is a hydrocolloid dressing?
A)Melolin
B)Primapore
C)Allevyn
D)Gauze swab
```
C)Allevyn
98
```
What type of drain requires a suction pump?
A)Open
B)Closed passive
C)Closed active
D)Penrose
```
B)Closed passive
99
```
Which ONE of the following is NOT associated with the formation of pus?
A)Pyothorax
B)Cellulitis
C)Pyrosis
D)Pyometra
```
C)Pyrosis
100
```
Which ONE of the following types of skin graft would involve transferring a section of skin to an adjacent area?
A)Pedicle graft
B)Subdermal plexus skin flap
C)Free skin graft
D)Strip graft
```
A)Pedicle graft
101
```
Which type of rupture of hernia can cause necrosis of tissues?
A)Incarcerated
B)Strangulated
C)Reducible
D)Irreducible
```
B)Strangulated
102
```
Which type of hernia is COMMONLY the result of direct trauma?
A)Umbilical
B)Diaphragmatic
C)Perineal
D)Inguinal
```
B)Diaphragmatic
103
```
Which ONE of the following is a malignant tumour?
A)Lipoma
B)Adenoma
C)Fibrosarcoma
D)Fibroma
```
C)Fibrosarcoma
104
```
Which ONE of the following is a malignant tumour of bone?
A)Lymphosarcoma
B)Adenocarcinoma
C)Fibrocareinoma
D)Oesteosarcoma
```
D)Oesteosarcoma
105
```
What is a carcinogen?
A)A drug used to treat cancer
B)An agent that causes normal cells to become malignant
C)A malignant tumour of the epithelium
D)A malignant tumour of the intestine
```
B)An agent that causes normal cells to become malignant
106
```
Which ONE of the following is NOT a treatment for malignant tumours?
A)Cryosurgery
B)Radiotherapy
C)Chemosis
D)Chemotherapy
```
C)Chemosis
107
```
Which ONE of the following terms relates to a flaccid diilatation of the oesophageal?
A)Megaoesophagus
B)Oesophagoscopy
C)Oesophagitis
D)Oesophagotomy
```
A)Megaoesophagus
108
```
Which ONE of the following terms means anchoring the stomach to the abdominal wall?
A)Gastrotomy
B)Gastropexy
C)Gastropathy
D)Gastroplasty
```
B)Gastropexy
109
In a suspected case of gastric dilatation/volvulus, what would you advise the owner to do?
A)Monitor the animal and come to the surgery next dat
B)Bring the animal to the surgery straight away to have a stomach tube passed
C)Exercise the animal to relieve the discomfort
D)Make the animal vomit
B)Bring the animal to the surgery straight away to have a stomach tube passed
110
Which ONE of the following would NOT require an end to end anastomoses following surgical intervention?
A)Intussusception
B)Removal of an intestinal carcinoma
C)Enterectomy due to an intestinal foreign body
D)Enterotomy
D)Enterotomy
111
```
Which ONE of the following conditions is NOT inherited?
A)Polydactyly
B)Entropion
C)Hip dysplasia
D)Imperforate anus
```
D)Imperforate anus
112
```
Cystocentesis is;
A)Making an opening into the bladder
B)The surgical excision of a cyst
C)A sterile technique to empty the bladder or collect a urine sample
D)The removal of bladder calculi
```
C)A sterile technique to empty the bladder or collect a urine sample
113
```
Which ONE of the following is NOT a method of removing a urinary obstruction?
A)Cystotmy
B)Urethrostomy
C)Urethrotomy
D)Cystocentesis
```
D)Cystocentesis
114
```
Orchidectomy is;
A)Removal of the prostrate gland
B)Removal of the testicles
C)Failure of the testicles to descend
D)Freeing a retained testicle and placing it in the scrotum
```
B)Removal of the testicles
115
```
Orchidectomy is NOT performed for which of the following conditions?
A)Testicular tumour
B)Prostate disease
C)Anal adenoma
D)Perianal fistula
```
D)Perianal fistula
116
```
Surgical removal of the ovaries and uterus is called;
A)Hysterectomy
B)Hysterotomy
C)Ovariectomy
D)Ovariohysterectomy
```
D)Ovariohysterectomy
117
Elective hysterectomy should be performed;
A)During oestrus
B)Four weeks after the start of oestrus
C)Four weeks before the expected start of oestrus
D)Eight weeks after the end of oestrus
D)Eight weeks after the end of oestrus
118
```
Which is NOT a sign of pyometra?
A)Polydipsia
B)Pyrexia
C)Polyphagia
D)Vaginal discharge
```
C)Polyphagia
119
```
A hysterotomy is performed for what reason?
A)An infected uterus
B)Uveitis
C)Dystocia
D)Suspected neoplasm
```
C)Dystocia
120
```
Laryngeal paralysis is often seen in;
A)Underweight Labrador retrievers
B)Overweight Labrador retrievers
C)Underweight Yorkshire terriers
D)Overweight Yorkshire terriers
```
B)Overweight Labrador retrievers
121
```
A surgical opening into the nasal cavity is a;
A)Rhinotomy
B)Rhinoscopy
C)Rhinorrhoea
D)Rhinopathy
```
A)Rhinotomy
122
```
Which procedure would be carried out in an emergency to relieve an obstructed airway?
A)Tracheotomy
B)Trachestomy
C)Thoracocentesis
D)Thoracotomy
```
C)Thoracocentesis
123
```
The presence of blood in the pleural cavity is called;
A)Pneumothorax
B)Haemoptysis
C)Haemothoarx
D)Thoracocentesis
```
C)Haemothoarx
124
Why are animals starved before GA?
A)To save the owners worry on the day of operation
B)Because gaseous anaesthetics are absorbed better through an empty stomach
C)To minimise the risk of vomiting during the procedure
D)None of the above
C)To minimise the risk of vomiting during the procedure
125
```
For how long should items be aired after sterilisation using the Anprolene steriliser?
A)2 hours
B)4 hours
C)12 hours
D)24 hours
```
D)24 hours
126
```
Which type of skin graft is made up of small squares of dermis implanted in the granulation bed?
A)Pinch graft
B)Stamp graft
C)Strip graft
D)Mesh graft
```
B)Stamp graft
127
```
The correct suffix for a term describing the surgical removal of all or part of a structure is;
A)-ostomy
B)-ectomy
C)-itis
D)-otomy
```
B)-ectomy
128
```
A tracheotomy tube should be cleaned to remove any accumulated mucus;
A)Daily
B)Two to three times daily
C)Every two to three hours
D)Every hour
```
D)Every hour
129
A papilloma is a;
A)Benign, wart-like tumour of epithelial cells
B)Benign tumour of fibrous tissue
C)Benign tumour of epithelial melanocytes
D)Benign tumour of adipose tissue
A)Benign, wart-like tumour of epithelial cells
130
```
Which ONE of the following methods of sterilisation should ideally NOT be used with cutting instruments?
A)Ethylene oxide
B)Hot air oven
C)Radiation
D)Autoclave
```
D)Autoclave
131
```
Cat gut comes from which animal?
A)Pig
B)Sheep
C)Cow
D)Goat
```
B)Sheep
132
```
A to and fro circuit can be classes as which type of anaesthetic circuit?
A)Open
B)Closed
C)Semi-open
D)Semi-closed
```
B)Closed
133
```
Which ONE of the following methods is NOT used for surgical instruments?
A)Martensitic stainless steel
B)Tungsten carbide
C)Bromium-plated carbon steel
D)Austenitic stainless steel
```
C)Bromium-plated carbon steel
134
```
Which ONE of the following should NOT be used in the cleaning of instruments?
A)Cold water
B)Soap
C)Ultrasound cleaner
D)Detergent
```
B)Soap
135
```
Which ONE of the following instruments is primarily used to hold organs and tissues, to allow exposure of the operating field?
A)Forceps
B)Rongeurs
C)Osteotome
D)Retractor
```
D)Retractor
136
```
Which ONE of the following features does NOT classify surgical scissors?
A)The type of surgery they are used for
B)The cutting edge of the blade
C)The type of points they have
D)The shape of the blade
```
A)The type of surgery they are used for
137
```
When performing cryosurgery how low must the temperature fall to achieve optimum lethal temperature?
A)-20c
B)-25c
C)-15c
D)-10c
```
A)-20c
138
```
Which ONE of the following is generally the refrigerant of choice for cryosurgery?
A)Liquid helium
B)Liquid nitrogen
C)Liquid hydrogen
D)Liquid oxygen
```
B)Liquid nitrogen
139
```
Which oNE of the following is NOT a requirement for storage after sterilisation?
A)Dust free conditions
B)Dry conditions
C)Darkened conditions
D)Well ventilated conditions
```
C)Darkened conditions
140
```
Which ONE of the following instruments has cupped jaws, and nibbles bones?
A)Chisel
B)Curette
C)Rongeur
D)Osteotome
```
C)Rongeur
141
```
Which ONE of the following is an example of an absorbable suture material?
A)Polybutester
B)Polyamide
C)Polydioxanone
D)Polyethelene
```
C)Polydioxanone
142
```
Which ONE of the following is an example of a non-absorbable suture material?
A)Polydioxanone
B)Polypropylene
C)Polyglactin 910
D)Polyglycolic acid
```
B)Polypropylene
143
```
Which ONE of the following describes a needle with suture material attached?
A)Fixed
B)Swaged
C)Eyed
D)Swaggered
```
B)Swaged
144
```
Which ONE of the following types of surgery is NOT elective?
A)Correction of a prolapsed eye
B)Mastectomy of a benign tumour
C)Ovariohysterectomy
D)Dew claw removal
```
A)Correction of a prolapsed eye
145
```
Which surgical term describes the removal of necrotic tissue?
A)Exudate
B)Incision
C)Debridement
D)Retraction
```
C)Debridement
146
```
Which ONE of the following does NOT have to be sterile during a surgical procedure?
A)Drapes
B)Gloves
C)Mask
D)Gown
```
C)Mask
147
```
Which ONE of the following is NOT likely to cause dehiscence of an abdominal incision?
A)Vomiting
B)Thick suture material
C)Wound infection
D)Stormy anaesthesia recovery
```
B)Thick suture material
148
```
The main goal of aseptic surgical technique it to prevent contamination of the;
A)Operating personnel
B)Sterile field
C)Surgical wound
D)Surgical instruments
```
B)Sterile field
149
```
Which personnel should face away from the sterile field during a surgical procedure?
A)All personnel
B)Non-scrubbed personnel
C)Scrubbed personnel
D)None of the above
```
D)None of the above
150
```
What is the correct term for the removal of a kidney?
A)Nephrostomy
B)Nephrectomy
C)Nephrotomy
D)Nephroscopy
```
B)Nephrectomy
151
```
Which ONE of the following suture materials is badly damaged by steam sterilisation;
A)Polyglycolic acid
B)Nylon
C)Polypropylene
D)Silk
```
A)Polyglycolic acid
152
```
Tissue forceps are best for grasping;
A)Skin
B)Bone
C)Calculi
D)Fascia
```
D)Fascia
153
```
A nosocomial infection is one arizeng from the patients;
A)Blood stream
B)Environment
C)Respiratory system
D)Skin
```
B)Environment
154
```
Which ONE of the following is a hand-held retractor?
A)Gossett
B)West
C)Langenbeck
D)Balfour
```
C)Langenbeck
155
```
Which type of refractor is used for visualisation during abdominal surgery?
A)Gelpi
B)Balfour
C)Hohmann
D)Travers
```
B)Balfour
156
```
Which ONE is NOT an example of a plate used for fracture fixation?
A)Venables
B)West
C)Sherman
D)Dynamic compression
```
B)West
157
```
When using ASIF technique, which drill bit size would be used for a 2.7mm screw?
A)2.0
B)2.7
C)3.2
D)1.5
```
A)2.0
158
```
Which ONE of the following is NOT an example of internal fixation of a fracture?
A)Kuntscher nail
B)Rush pins
C)Tension band wiring
D)Thomas splint
```
D)Thomas splint
159
```
ASIF plates are also known as;
A)Venables plates
B)Sherman plates
C)Dynamic compression plates
D)Burns plates
```
C)Dynamic compression plates
160
```
Freedom from infection by the exclusion of micro-organisms and spore describes;
A)Antisepsis
B)Sepsis
C)Asepsis
D)Disinfection
```
C)Asepsis
161
```
Endogenous micro-organisms are those which;
A)Are found on the skin
B)Come from within the patients body
C)Are found on the coat
D)Are found in the environment
```
B)Come from within the patients body
162
```
Which ONE of the following systems is NOT an autoclave?
A)Vertical Pressure cooker
B)Horizontal or vertical downward
C)Horizontal pressure cooker
D)Vacuum assisted
```
C)Horizontal pressure cooker
163
```
Which ONE of the following is NOT an autoclave temperature, pressure, time combination?
A)121c 15psi 15min
B)123c 17psi 13min
C)126c 20psi 10min
D)134c 30psi 3.5min
```
B)123c 17psi 13min
164
```
Which ONE of the following should NOT be sterilised in a hot air oven?
A)Glassware
B)Sharp cutting instruments
C)Swabs
D)Powders
```
C)Swabs
165
```
How should packs be placed in a vacuum assisted oven?
A)Horizontally
B)Unwrapped
C)Tightly packed
D)Vertically
```
D)Vertically
166
```
Which ONE of the following is NOT part of an instrument cleaning routine?
A)Wash in cold water
B)Wash in hot water
C)Lubrication
D)Rinsing
```
B)Wash in hot water
167
```
Assuming no complications, how long after surgery should skin sutures be removed?
A)2-3days
B)4-5days
C)7-10days
D)15-17days
```
C)7-10days
168
```
Which ONE of the following needle holders have scissors as well?
A)Mcphail
B)Mayo-Hegar
C)Debakey
D)Olsen-Hagar
```
D)Olsen-Hagar
169
```
Which ONE of the following retractors is NOT self-retaining?
A)Gossett
B)Gelpi
C)West
D)Langenbeck
```
D)Langenbeck
170
```
Which ONE of the following types of retractors are self-retaining?
A)Gelpi
B)Hohmann
C)Langenbeck
D)Volkmann
```
A)Gelpi
171
```
A hot air oven sterilises surgical instruments at;
A)121c
B)126c
C)135c
D)over 150c
```
D)over 150c
172
```
Ethylene oxide is MOST commonly used to sterilise articles that;
A)Are made of PVC
B)Cannot be dried effectively
C)Need to be sterilised quickly
D)Tend to be damaged by heat
```
D)Tend to be damaged by heat
173
```
In what surgical procedure would you be MOST likely to use a periosteal elevator?
A)Abdominal
B)Diaphragmatic
C)Ophthalmic
D)Orthopaedic
```
D)Orthopaedic
174
```
A vertical pressure cooker works at;
A)15psi and 121c
B)20psi and 128c
C)34psi and 134c
D)None of the above
```
A)15psi and 121c
175
Which ONE of the following statements regarding hot air ovens is NOT true?
A)They are economical
B)They do not corrode instruments
C)They have short sterilising times
D)They are good for sterilising glassware
C)They have short sterilising times
176
```
Which ONE of the following would NOT be sterilised by a hot air oven?
A)Drill bits
B)Test tubes
C)Drapes
D)Liquids
```
C)Drapes
177
```
The environmental temperature should be maintained at;
A)15c
B)20c
C)25c
D)30c
```
B)20c
178
```
Which ONE of the following scissors should be used for suture removal?
A)Metzebaum
B)Mayo
C)Lister
D)Spencer
```
D)Spencer
179
In relation to suture material the word memory describes;
A)The ability of the suture material to undergo sterilisation without deteriorating
B)The lack of smoothness as the knot is tightened
C)The tendency of the material to straighten out after loops have developed
D)The response of the tissue to the suture material
C)The tendency of the material to straighten out after loops have developed
180
```
Which ONE of the following suture materials CANNOT be Autoclaved?
A)Polypropylene
B)Polyester
C)Nylon
D)Polyglycolic acid
```
D)Polyglycolic acid
181
```
Polyglactin 910 is;
A)Vicryl
B)Nylon
C)PDS
D)Dexon
```
A)Vicryl
182
```
Which ONE of the following is an absorbable suture material?
A)Nylon
B)Polypropylene
C)Polyester
D)Polyglycolic acid
```
D)Polyglycolic acid
183
Which ONE of the following is NOT an essential precaution when using liquid nitrogen as a refrigerant in cryosurgery?
A)To make sure the stopper is always firmly screwed down on the container when not in use
B)To ensure the room is well ventilated
C)To use protective eye googles
D)To wear well-insulated gloves to avoid splashing liquid nitrogen on the hands
B)To ensure the room is well ventilated
184
```
Which ONE of the following suture materials is NOT absorbable?
A)Catgut
B)Polydioxanone
C)Polyglactin 910
D)Polypropylene
```
D)Polypropylene
185
```
Which ONE of the following types of forceps is a bowel clamp?
A)Adson’s
B)Cheatle
C)Doyen
D)Gillies
```
C)Doyen
186
Which ONE of the following will NOT reduce the effectiveness of autoclaving in sterilising surgical packs?
A)Dried blood left on instruments
B)Overloading the autoclave
C)Stacking packs without space between them
D)Underfilling the autoclave
D)Underfilling the autoclave
187
```
Which ONE of the following scalpel blades requires a size 4 scalpel handle?
A)10
B)11
C)15
D)20
```
D)20
188
Why do some surgical instruments have gold coloured handles?
A)To prevent rusting
B)To prevent them becoming magnetised
C)To reduce the build up of static electricity
D)To show they have tungsten inserts
D)To show they have tungsten inserts
189
Why do some swabs have a black line in them?
A)To indicate their weight and absorbency
B)To indicate they are not suitable for use in body cavities
C)To make them easier to see when saturated with blood
D)To make them visible on x-ray
D)To make them visible on x-ray
190
The DISADVANTAGE of using spore strips to check for effective sterilisation is that;
A)The only check for spores, not viruses or bacteria
B)They only indicate the temperature reached, not how long it was maintained
C)They only work in autoclaved
D)They require incubation after exposure, so the results are not known for several days
D)They require incubation after exposure, so the results are not known for several days
191
```
The surgical gown should be folded before sterilisation so that WHICH part of the gown is uppermost when the pack is opened?
A)The cuffs of the gown sleeve
B)The inside of the gown shoulder seams
C)The inside of the gown waist seam
D)The outside of the gown waist
```
B)The inside of the gown shoulder seams
192
```
What is a Volkmann’s spoon?
A)Curette
B)A lobe in the cerebellum of the brain
C)An indentation of the pelvis
D)An instrument used to dispense powders or granules
```
A)Curette
193
```
What is the function of spencer-wells forceps?
A)Haemostasis
B)Muscle retraction
C)Needle holding
D)Tissue holding
```
A)Haemostasis
194
```
What is the name of the needle holder used in ophthalmic surgical procedures?
A)Castroviejo’s
B)Debakey’s
C)Kilner’s
D)Mayo-Hagar’s
```
A)Castroviejo’s
195
```
When draping a prepared surgical site (e.g an abdomen for laparotomy) the first drape to be positioned should be the one;
A)Between the surgeon and the patient
B)Nearest the head of the patient
C)Nearest the tail of the patient
D)Furthest from the surgeon
```
A)Between the surgeon and the patient
196
```
When using a Browne’s tube, what colour indicates that the correct temperature has been maintained for the correct time?
A)Blue
B)Brown
C)Green
D)Orange
```
C)Green
197
Chromic catgut has been treated with chromium salts in order to;
A)Increase its shelf life
B)Make it less irritant to tissues
C)Make it less likely to break down when knots are tied
D)Slow down the rate of breakdown within the body
B)Make it less irritant to tissues
198
```
What type of needle SHOULD be used on delicate soft tissue?
A)A curved cutting needle
B)A round bodied needle
C)A straight cutting needle
D)A taper cut needle
```
B)A round bodied needle
199
```
Glove powder is made from;
A)Antibiotic powder
B)Maize starch
C)Sodium bicarbonate
D)Talcum powder
```
B)Maize starch
200
```
When putting on surgical gloves before major surgery which ONE of the following methods is recommended?
A)Closed gloving
B)Open gloving
C)Over gloving
D)Plunge gloving
```
A)Closed gloving
201
Where should the earth plate of a diathermy machine be placed when in use?
A)Between the patient and the drapes
B)Between the patient and the rubber tabletop
C)Between the rubber table top and the table
D)On the floor beneath the table
B)Between the patient and the rubber tabletop
202
Which ONE of the following procedures should NOT be included in the daily cleaning routine in an operating theatre?
A)All cleaning utensils should be used only in the operating theatre, not in other parts of the hospital
B)At the beginning of the day, wipe over all surfaces with a dry cloth
C)At the end of the day, any loose hairs and debris should be vacuumed up before washing the flood
D)Between operations, the operating table and any soiled surfaces should be wiped clean
B)At the beginning of the day, wipe over all surfaces with a dry cloth
203
```
Which ONE of the following skin preparations SHOULD be used proof to surgery round the eye and oral mucosa?
A)Chlorhexidine
B)Povidine-iodine
C)Surgical spirit
D)Either a or b
```
B)Povidine-iodine
204
```
Sterilisation CANNOT be achieved by;
A)Boiling
B)Hot air
C)Ethylene oxide
D)Autoclaving
```
A)Boiling
205
```
What is the potentially harmful chemical contained in CIDEX?
A)Formalin
B)Bleach
C)Gluteraldehyde
D)Ethylene oxide
```
C)Gluteraldhyde
206
```
Which ONE of the following methods of sterilisation is MOST appropriate for a flexible endoscope?
A)Cold chemical sterilisation
B)Hot air
C)Autoclave
D)Gamma radiation
```
A)Cold chemical sterilisation
207
```
Which scissors SHOULD be used for deep tissue dissection surgery?
A)Mayo
B)Metzenbaum
C)Potts
D)Lister
```
B)Metzenbaum
208
What is a Doyen clamp used for?
A)Holding and clamping the bowel
B)Clamping the blood vessels
C)Holding a fractured end of bone for plating
D)Clamping the uterus during ovariohysterectomy
A)Holding and clamping the bowel
209
```
In order to move about the theatre, how SHOULD scrubbed personnel pass each other?
A)Any way that is convenient
B)Back to back
C)Back to front
D)Front to front
```
B)Back to back
210
```
The holding time or stylisation time for instruments in an autoclave operating at a pressure of 30psi and a temperature of 134c is;
A)3.5mins
B)10mins
C)15mins
D)30mins
```
A)3.5mins
211
```
Which size suture material is one size thicker than 3/0?
A)2/0
B)4/0
C)1
D)0
```
A)2/0
212
```
Which suture material is monofilament?
A)Silk
B)Catgut
C)Polypropylene
D)Polyglactin 910
```
C)Polypropylene
213
```
Which one of the following suture materials is broken down by enzymes?
A)Polyglactin 910
B)Polypropylene
C)Polydioxanone
D)Chromic catgut
```
D)Chromic catgut
214
```
Why is it important NOT to get glove powder on the outside of surgical gloves?
A)Not sterile
B)Causes haemorrhage
C)Irritant to tissues
D)Damages surgical instruments
```
C)Irritant to tissues
215
```
What type of suture needle SHOULD be used on delicate fibrous tissue?
A)Taper cut
B)Reverse cut
C)Curved cut
D)Round bodied
```
A)Taper cut
216
```
Which ONE of the following suture materials is absorbable?
A)Braided silk
B)Polyamide
C)Polyglactin 910
D)Polypropylene
```
C)Polyglactin 910
217
What does a Wright’s respirometer do?
A)Measures mixture volume of the patient
B)Measures tidal volume of the patient
C)Measures respiration rate of the patient
D)Measures inspiration concentration of halothane
B)Measures tidal volume of the patient
218
```
A 30kg dog is anaesthetised and maintained on a Magil circuit. What flow rate will be required if the dog is breathing about 20times a minute?
A)3-5L/min
B)6-9L/min
C)9-11L/min
D)12-14L/min
```
B)6-9L/min
219
```
A Lack circuit can be classified as which type of anaesthetic circuit?
A)Open
B)Closed
C)Semi open
D)Semi closed
```
D)Semi closed
220
```
Calculated the flow rates required of oxygen and nitrous oxide for a 15kg dog to be maintained on a Lack circuit (assuming a minute volume of 200ml/kg)
A)1L oxygen, 2L nitrous oxide
B)1.5L oxygen, 3.5L nitrous oxide
C)2.5L oxygen, 5 L nitrous oxide
D)3.5L oxygen, 6.5L nitrous oxide
```
A)1L oxygen, 2L nitrous oxide
221
```
Calculate the volume of Saffan (12mg/ml) required to anaesthetise a cat weighing 6kg. The dose rate is 3mg/kg;
A)1ml
B)1.5ml
C)2ml
D)2.5ml
```
B)1.5ml
222
```
Calculate the volume of 1.25% Thiopentone required to anaesthetise a 3.75kg dog. The dose rate is 10mg/kg;
A)2ml
B)3ml
C)4ml
D)5ml
```
B)3ml
223
```
How much anaesthetic agent is there in 100ml of a 5% solution?
A)5mg
B)50mg
C)500mg
D)5000mg
```
D)5000mg
224
```
Nitrous oxide comes in cylinders that are;
A)Black with white shoulders
B)Blue
C)Grey
D)Orange
```
B)Blue
225
```
Oxygen is supplied in cylinders that are;
A)Black with this shoulders
B)Blue
C)Grey
D)Orange
```
A)Black with this shoulders
226
The statement that a drug has a very high therapeutic index means;
A)It is very easy to overdose using this drug
B)This drug can be given at several times its recommended dose rate with relative safety
C)This drug is very effective at its recommended dose rate
D)This drug may cause excitement on injection
B)This drug can. Be given at several times its recommended dose rate with relative safety
227
```
Which ONE of the following drugs is a benzodiazepine?
A)Acepromazine
B)Buprenorphine
C)Diazepam
D)Ketamine
```
C)Diazepam
228
```
Which ONE of the following is a dissociative anaesthetic?
A)Acepromazine
B)Buprenorphine
C)Diazepam
D)Ketamine
```
D)Ketamine
229
```
Which ONE of the following is NOT a controlled drug?
A)Buprenorphine
B)Morphine
C)Pentobarbitone
D)Propofol
```
D)Propofol
230
Which ONE of the following is NOT a property of Acepromazine?
A)It is anti-emetic
B)It is contraindicated in dyspnoeic patients
C)It is contraindicated in epileptic patients
D)It is hypertensive
D)It is hypertensive
231
Which ONE of the following is a property of nitrous oxide?
A)It causes significant respiratory depression
B)It dose not require scavenging
C)It is an analgesic
D)It is explosive
C)It is an analgesic
232
```
Which ONE of the following is a schedule 2 controlled drug?
A)Buprenorphine
B)Morphine
C)Pentobarbitone
D)Phenobarbitone
```
B)Morphine
233
```
Which ONE of the following is a schedule 3 controlled drug?
A)Buprenorphine
B)Diazepam
C)Etorhine
D)Pethidine
```
A)Buprenorphine
234
Which ONE of the following statements about ketamine is NOT true?
A)Ketamine produces minimal cardiovascular and respiratory depression
B)Ketamine gives good analgesia
C)Ketamine gives good muscle relaxation
D)Ketamine tends to preserve the cough reflex
C)Ketamine gives good muscle relaxtion
235
Which ONE of the following statements about methohexitone is NOT true?
A)Animals make a much faster recovery from methohexitione than from Thiopentone
B)It is much faster acting than Thiopentone
C)It is twice/three times as potent as Thiopentone
D)Perivascaular injection does not cause tissue damage as does Thiopentone
D)Perivascaular injection does not cause tissue damage as does Thiopentone
236
Which ONE of the following statements about Propofol is NOT true?
A)It causes less respiratory depression than thiopentone
B)It is non cumulative when administered by infusion in dogs
C)It often causes a transient apnoea on induction
D)It should not be stored once the vial has been opened
A)It causes less respiratory depression than thiopentone
237
```
Which ONE of the following drugs is NOT classified as a barbiturate?
A)Thiopentone sodium
B)Intraval
C)Methohexitone
D)Xylazine
```
D)Xylazine
238
```
Which ONE of the following drugs is an opioid antagonist?
A)Naloxone
B)Atropine
C)Pancurionium
D)Tolazine
```
A)Naloxone
239
```
Which ONE of the following drugs is the antagonist of methetomidine?
A)Naloxone
B)Flumazenil
C)Tolazine
D)Atipamazole
```
D)Atipamazole
240
Use of nitrous oxide in anaesthesia;
A)Increases the amount of inhalational agent required
B)Decreases the amount of inhalational agent required
C)Shows the introduction process
D)Has no effect on the time of amount of anaesthetic required
B)Decreased the amount of inhalational agent required
241
Which ONE of the following is NOT a good reason to use a premedication?
A)To calm the patient
B)To minimise the dose of induction agent required
C)To smooth induction and recovery
D)To increase vagal activity
D)To increase vagal activity
242
```
Which ONE of the following is NOT an advantage of endotracheal intubation?
A)It ensures a patent airway
B)It increases the dead space
C)It prevents aspiration pneumonia
D)It allows us to carry out IPPV
```
B)It increases the dead space
243
The oxygen flush valve on an anaesthetic machine;
A)Allows oxygen to flow into the breathing system without going through a vapeoriser
B)Increases the anaesthetic concentration within the circuit
C)Causes the patient to breathe more deeply
D)Is used primarily to keep the reservoir bag inflated
A)Allows oxygen to flow into the breathing system without going through a vapeoriser
244
The advantages of a non rebreathing system as compared with a rebreathing system, include all of the following except;
A)Reduce resistance to breathing
B)Greater potential for hypothermia caused by high flow needed
C)Reduced mechanical dead space
D)No soda line required
B)Greater potential for hypothermia cause by high flow needed
245
```
Which ONE of the following has good analgesic properties;
A)Methohexitone sodium
B)Propofol
C)Isoflurane
D)Nitrous oxide
```
D)Nitrous oxide
246
```
Which ONE of the following drugs is depolarising muscle relaxant?
A)Pancurionium
B)Suxamethonium
C)Atracurium
D)Gallamine
```
B)Suxamethonium
247
Cardiopulmonary arrest may be indicated by;
A)Bright red bleeding at the surgical site
B)Constricted of the pupils
C)Respiratory arrest of gasping
D)Generalized muscle tension
C)Respiratory arrest of gasping
248
```
Which ONE of the following anaesthetic circuits MIGHT lead to hyperthermia in a anaesthetised patient?
A)Ayers T piece
B)To and fro
C)Magill
D)Circle
```
B)To and fro
249
```
If a 10kg dog has a tidal volume of 15mlkg and a respiratory rate of 20 breaths/minute, what flow rate would you use if it was connected to brains circuit?
A)4-6L/min
B)7.5-9L/min
C)10-12L/min
D)15-18L/min
```
B)7.5-9L/min
250
```
How many mg/ml are there in a 4% solution?
A)0.4mg
B)4mg
C)40mg
D)400mg
```
C)40mg
251
What is a Water’s canister and what is the function of this piece of equipment?
A)A device on an anaesthetic machine which allows humidifier Timon of the gases
B)An old and inaccurate type of vaporiser
C)A canister containing soda lime which is part of a to and fro circuit
D)Part of a rebreathing circuit which absorbs nitrous oxide
C)A canister containing soda lime which is part of a to and fro circuit
252
```
Calculate the flow rates of oxygen and nitrous oxide for a 30kg dog to be maintained on a Magill circuit (assuming a minute volume of 200ml/kg)
A)1.25 L oxygen, 2.5 L nitrous oxide
B)1.75 L oxygen, 3.25L nitrous oxide
C)2.0 L oxygen, 4.0L nitrous oxide
D)2.75 L oxygen, 6.5L nitrous oxide
```
B)1.75L oxygen, 3.25L nitrous oxide
253
When monitoring the vital signs of an anaesthetised patient, which one of the following must you be record?
A)Mucous membrane colour and Capillary refill time
B)Heart rate and respiratory rate and depth
C)Jaw and eye reflexes
D)All of the above
D)All of the above
254
```
Using ketamine as an anaesthetic agent diminishes the value of which measure in assessing anaesthetic depth?
A)Pedal reflex
B)Jaw muscle tone
C)Eye position
D)Anal reflex
```
C)Eye position
255
Adrenaline is included in local anaesthetic preparation for the following reason;
A)It aids the absorption of the lignocaine into the CNS
B)It aids the rapid dispersal of the drug throughout the body
C)It causes local vasoconstriction, keeping the drug where it is placed for a longer period of time
D)It reduced the likelyhood of a decrease in heart rate due to the effect of the lignocaine
C)It causes local vasoconstriction, keeping the drug where it is placed for a longer period of time
256
```
An ataractic drug produces;
A)A calming effect
B)A decrease in saliva production
C)An Increase in excitability
D)An increase in heart rate
```
A)A calming effect
257
```
Atropine is;
A)A non steroidal anti inflammatory
B)A tranquilliser
C)An antipyretic
D)An Antisialagogue
```
D)An Antisialagogue
258
```
Open, part used vials of propofol should be disposed of;
A)After 48hours at room temperature
B)After 24hours in a refrigerator
C)After 7days in a refrigerator
D)At the end of each day
```
D)At the end of each day
259
The occasional anaphylactic reactions seems in cats following injection of Saffan are due to;
A)Anaesthetic overdose
B)Perivascular injection of the anaesthetic
C)Reaction to the alphaxolone
D)Reaction to the cremophor EL
D)Reaction to the cremophor EL
260
```
A cat requires sedation with a 2% solution of xylazine. The dose rate is 3mg/kg. The cat weighs 4kg. How many mls of the solution are required?
A)0.6ml
B)0.3ml
C)6ml
D)0.06ml
```
A)0.6ml
261
```
How many anaesthetic agent is there in 100ml of 2.5% solution?
A)2.5g
B)25mg
C)250mg
D)250g
```
A)2.5mg
262
```
The dose rate for Buprenorphine is 0.006mg/kg. The concentration of the solution is 0.3mg/ml. How many ml dose a 5 50kg Rottweiler require?
A)0.1ml
B)0.5ml
C)1ml
D)2ml
```
C)1ml
263
```
How much of thiopentone should be drawn up ready to anaesthetise a premeditated dog weighing 20kg? The dose rate is 10mg/kg and the solution is 2.5%;
A)8ml
B)10ml
C)20ml
D)6ml
```
A)8ml
264
```
How many milligrams are required to make up 100ml of a 5% solution of thiopentone?
A)5000mg
B)5mg
C)50mg
D)0.5mg
```
A)5000mg
265
```
What is the total flow rate for a 30kg Labrador with a respiratory rate of 15 breaths per minute on a Lack circuit?
A)4.5-6.75L/min
B)6.75-8L/min
C)8-12.75L/min
D)10-12.5L/min
```
A)4.5-6.75L/min
266
```
What is the minute volume of a 5kg cat breathing 20times a minute?
A)100ml/min
B)1500ml/min
C)150ml/min
D)1000ml/min
```
B)1500ml/min
267
```
The tidal volume is described as;
A)The total lung capacity
B)The residual capacity
C)The amount of air inspired and expired in one breath
D)The amount of air inspired only
```
C)The amount of air inspired and expired in one breath
268
```
What is the estimated tidal volume of a 20kg dog?
A)400ml
B)200ml
C)100ml
D)300ml
```
A)400ml
269
```
Which ONE of the following is rebreathing circuit?
A)Bains
B)Ayres T piece
C)Circle
D)Lack
```
C)Circle
270
```
Which ONE of the following is NOT a peripheral artery?
A)Femoral
B)Tarsal
C)Sub lingual
D)Coccygeal
```
A)Femoral
271
```
What is the portion of tidal volume called, where no gaseous exchange takes place?
A)Reservoir
B)Minute volume
C)Dead space
D)Circuit volume
```
C)Dead space
272
```
What dose hypercapnia mean?
A)Excess of carbon dioxide
B)Lack of carbon dioxide
C)Excess of nitrous oxide
D)Lack of nitrous oxide
```
A)Excess of carbon dioxide
273
```
All of the following anaesthetics can be used in the dog EXCEPT;
A)Ketamine
B)Propofol
C)Alphaxalone/alphadolone
D)Methohexitone sodium
```
C)Alphaxalone/alphadolone
274
```
Which ONE of the following anaesthetic drugs would be MOST suitable for anaesthetising a greyhound?
A)Propofol
B)Thiopentone
C)Sagatal
D)Halothane
```
A)Propofol
275
Which ONE of the following is FALSE?
A)Propofol is non cumulative when administered by infusion in dogs
B)Propofol should not be stored when the vial is opened
C)Propofol may cause a transient apnoea following induction
D)Propofol is less of a respiratory depressant than thiopentone
D)Propofol is less of a respiratory depressant than thiopentone
276
```
The premedicant agent which has a significant analgesic effect is;
A)Acepromazine
B)Buprenorphine
C)Atropine
D)Diazepam
```
B)Buprenorphine
277
```
Which ONE of the following is NOT an opioid?
A)Pethidine
B)Morphine
C)Papaverertum
D)Flunixin
```
D)Flunixin
278
```
The agent that can be used to reverse the effects of small animal immobilon in man is;
A)Naloxone
B)Neostigmine
C)Atipamazole
D)Etorphine
```
A)Naloxone
279
Anticholinergic are often included in premedication for cats and dogs;
A)To produce pupil dilation
B)To decrease saliva and bronchial secretions
C)To decrease the amount of induction agent required
D)To calm the animal
B)To decrease saliva and bronchial secretions
280
```
Which opioid agent may require IPPV if given during surgery for analgesia?
A)Morphine
B)Pethidine
C)Buprenorphine
D)Fentanyl
```
D)Fentanyl
281
```
Which ONE of the following has the LOWEST MAC value?
A)Methoxyflurane
B)Halothane
C)Nitrous oxide
D)Isoflurane
```
A)Methoxyflurane
282
```
The anaesthetic gas supplied in blue cylinder is;
A)Oxygen
B)Nitrous oxide
C)Carbon dioxide
D)Cyclopropane
```
B)Nitrous oxide
283
```
What dose MAC stand for?
A)Maximum alveolar concentration
B)Minimum alveolar concentration
C)Minimum anaesthetic concentration
D)Minimum alveolar coefficient
```
B)Minimum alveolar concentration
284
```
To be considered effective, nitrous oxide SHOULD be used in concentrations of;
A)20%
B)40%
C)70%
D)none of the above
```
C)70%
285
```
Recovery from methohexitone compared to thiopentone will be;
A)Faster
B)Same
C)Slower
D)Dependent on the breed of animal
```
A)Faster
286
Which ONE of the following is NOT a valid reason for administering premedication?
A)To reduce the total amount of general anaesthetic required for induction
B)To calm an excited animal
C)To increase safety by allowing the animal to stay under general anaesthetic longer
D)To reduce pain in the postoperative period
C)To increase the safety by allowing the animal to stay under general anaesthetic longer
287
The pop off valve on an anaesthetic machine helps to;
A)Vaporise the liquid anaesthetic
B)Prevent excess gas building up within the circuit
C)Prevent waste gas re entering the vaporiser
D)Keep the oxygen flowing in one direction
B)Prevent excess gas building up within the circuit
288
```
An obese dog about to receive an injectable anaesthetic should receive;
A)The dose prescribed on a mg/kg basis
B)A reduced dosage
C)A dosage bases on ideal weight
D)An inhalation anaesthetic only
```
C)A dosage bases on ideal weight
289
```
Which ONE of the following drugs, often used as premedicants, is sometimes contraindicated for use in boxers?
A)Glycopyrrolate
B)Acepromazine
C)Diazepam
D)Atropine
```
B)Acepromazine
290
```
As the animal becomes anaesthetised, which one of the following is the first reflex to be lost?
A)Pedal
B)Anal
C)Swallowing
D)Palpebral
```
C)Swallowing
291
```
Which ONE of the following pH values is closest to the pH of thiopentone sodium?
A)2.4
B)6.4
C)8.4
D)10.4
```
D)10.4
