306 Flashcards
1
Q
- Which choice is wrong about causality?
A. A confounding variable may be due to chance or bias.
B. Due to health problems are multi-factorial, this can represent a barrier to testing a particular
hypothesis.
C. Hill’s criteria attempt to establish causal connections between potential disease agents and
the diseases.
D. A strong / significant correlation = causation
E. Sufficient causes are very rare in medicine, because it’s exceptional one exposure is by itself enough to cause a disease
A
D. A strong / significant correlation = causation
2
Q
- Which item is correct about causality?
A. Exposure to causative factor must occur before the onset of disease as the precondition of
B. temporalambiguity.
C. BiologicalgradientisnotacriteriondefinedbyHill.
D. Biological plausibility of the hypothesis is one of the Hill criterion.
E. Univariate correlation is defined as the statistical association between variables.
F. Coherence of evidence is not a condition for causal connection.
A
D. Biological plausibility of the hypothesis is one of the Hill criterion.
3
Q
- Which statement is wrong about EBM (Evidence Based Medicine)?
A. EBMmeansintegratingindividualclinicalexpertisewiththebestavailableexternalclinical evidence from systematic research.
B. EBM is the conscientious, explicit and judicious use of current best evidence in making decisions about the care of the individual patient.
C. 3 main components of EBM are: Clinical expertise + Best research evidence + patient values and preferences.
D. According to JNCS Guidelines 130-139 mm Hg SBP and 80-89 mm Hg DBP is elevated BP.
E. Considering EBM’s concept, medical treatment decisions must be based on the best available evidence.
A
D. According to JNCS Guidelines 130-139 mm Hg SBP and 80-89 mm Hg DBP is elevated BP.
4
Q
- Which statement is true about EBM (Evidence Based Medicine)?
A. Public health decision making is a complicated process because of complex inputs and group decision making.
B. Public health surveillance is not a critical tool for understanding a community’s health issues.
C. Evidence based public health cannot be defined as a public health endeavour
D. The amount of available evidence can be overwhelming; practitioners do not have to
identify the best available evidence.
E. “3 Buckets of Prevention” within the framework of health care and public health is put of
date
A
A. Public health decision making is a complicated process because of complex inputs and group decision making.
5
Q
- Which option is not considered within the scope of the physician’s legal responsibilities?
A. Confidentially responsibility
B. Notificationobligation
C. Physician responsibility and acceptance of the patient in emergency patients
D. Obligation to inform the patient
E. Giving a rest report for a special purpose or memory
A
E. Giving a rest report for a special purpose or memory
6
Q
- ……… is to enlighten the patient or legal representative by the physician in a way that he/she can freely decide about the intervention by explaining the type, form, urgency, side effects and risks of the medical intervention he/she plans to do, and the possible consequences if no intervention is made. Which of the following options would best fit in the blank above?
A. Consent
B. Forensicexamination
C. To inform
D. Medical intervention
E. Complication
A
To inform
7
Q
- Harm of a patient due to ignorance, inexperience or indifference; it is bad practice of medicine. Which of the following options fits the description above?
A. Active euthanasia
B. Passiveeuthanasia
C. Complication
D. Professional liability
E. Medical malpractice
A
Medical malpractice
8
Q
- Which of the following statements about organization of health services in Turkey is wrong?
A. Health services are provided by public, semi-public, private and non-profit foundation organizations in Turkey.
B. Prevention, treatment and rehabilitation are the three main headings of health services.
C. Healthcareserversaredividedinto”first,second,third”lines.
D. “Integrated District Public Hospitals” are the centers which only offer outpatient health
care.
E. “Family Health Care Centers” offer outpatient diagnosis and treatment.
A
D. “Integrated District Public Hospitals” are the centers which only offer outpatient health
care.
9
Q
- Which of the following statements about organization of health services in Turkey is wrong?
A. In Turkey Ministry of Health implemented ‘Health Transformation Program’ in 2010.
B. ‘Health Transformation Program’ has basically three main reforms.
C. The Family Medicine System is one of the main reforms of the ‘Health Transformation
Program’.
D. Primary health care is divided into community and personal health care.
E. Preventive health services for the community are mostly offered by community health
centers.
A
A. In Turkey Ministry of Health implemented ‘Health Transformation Program’ in 2010.
10
Q
A. Social changes, specialization and the new pattern of diseases have brought up the need for a new type of physician during the history of medicine.
B. Over specialization in the field of medicine brought the necessity of a new type of health care.
C. “AlmaAtaDeclaration”wasamilestonefortherenewalofhealthcaredelivery.
D. The health level of 2010 was set as a goal in the Alma Ata Declaration.
E. Family Medicine specialty training started in 1985 in Turkey.
A
D
11
Q
- What should be the second step in the abdominal physical examination?
A. Percussion
B. Auscultation
C. Palpation
D. Rectal examination E. Inspection
A
B
12
Q
- Which of the following statements about taking anamnesis is not correct?
A. The best and most accurate history is taken from the patient’s relatives.
B. The physician should talk to the patient alone, if possible.
C. Enough time should be allocated.
D. The aim should not be to get more information, but to get accurate and necessary
information.
E. Developments should be noted in chronological order.
A
A
13
Q
- Which of the following statement with consultation is not correct?
A. Confirm the name, medical record number, and location of the patient
B. Provide a brief synopsis of the patient’s history, pertinent to the question you are asking
C. List any pertinent physical exam and laboratory findings
D. State your suspected or confirmed diagnosis
E. Don’t state any interventions you have started
A
E
14
Q
- Which of the following is not one of the main lessons learned from “thalidomide disaster”?
A. Adequate testing of medicines prior to marketing is needed
B. Government regulation of medicines is needed
C. Unnecessary use of medicines in pregnancy should be avoided
D. Most medicines cross the placenta and this results in fetal exposure
E. Reporting systems to identify adverse effects of medicines are not needed
A
Reporting systems to identify adverse effects of medicines are not needed
15
Q
- Which of the following statements about the reporting of the Adverse Drug Reactions (ADRs) is wrong?
A. For new medicines report all the suspected reactions, including minor ones.
B. TurkishMedicinesandMedicalDevicesAgencydoesn’thaveareportingsystem
C. Forestablishedmedicinesorwell-knownmedicinesreportallseriousorunusualsuspected adverse reactions
D. In children under the age of 18, all suspected ADRs occurring, should be reported regardless of whether the medicine is licensed for use in children
E. If it is suspected that a patient has experienced an ADR it should be reported
A
TurkishMedicinesandMedicalDevicesAgencydoesn’thaveareportingsystem
16
Q
- Which of the following statements about the pharmacokinetics of drugs in pediatric age group is wrong?
A. Drug metabolizing activities of liver enzymes are substantially lower in early neonatal life than later
B. α-Amylase and other pancreatic enzyme activities are low in infants up to 4 months of age.
C. Absorption after intramuscular or subcutaneous injection can be reduced by conditions that
might reduce blood flow to injection site
D. In new-borns glomerular filtration rate is much lower than in children or adults
E. Drugs that depend on renal function for elimination are cleared from the body faster in the
first weeks of life
A
E. Drugs that depend on renal function for elimination are cleared from the body faster in the
17
Q
According to the Fluid Rate 421 method, the fluid rate is calculated by multiplying the patient’s weight in kilograms by ..
A
4
18
Q
- Which one is a type of ionizing radiation?
A. Radio waves
B. Microwaves
C. Infraredradiation
D. Visible light
E. Gamma rays
A
E
19
Q
- Which tissue type, with the given tissue weighting factors, would receive a higher effective dose of ionizing radiation? (Dose amount, type and application manner are the same)
A. Gonads, 0,20
B. Bone marrow (red), 0.12
C. Bladder, 0.05
D. Skin. 0.01
E. Bone surface, 0.0
A
A. Gonads, 0,20
20
Q
- Which of the cells’ number decrease in a linearly proportional manner with the dose of ionizing radiation in the first 2 days?
A. Lymphocytes
B. Thrombocytes
C. Leukocytes
D. Erythrocytes
E. Reproductive cells
A
Lymphocytes
21
Q
- Which of the following would be depleted last after exposure to cell depleting level of ionizing radiation?
A. Stem cells
B. Dividing and maturing cells
C. Only maturing cells
D. Immature cells
E. Mature cells
A
Mature cells
22
Q
- Which of the following activity of laboratory medicine is wrong?
A. Analytical testing
B. Research
C. Administration
D. Teaching activities
E. Physical examination of the patient
A
Physical examination of the patient
23
Q
- Which of the following statement is the disadvantage for the Point of Care Testing?
A. The methods may be less clinically invasive
B. Ashorterresultturnaroundtime
C. Patientscanbemoreinvolvedintheircare
D. Reference ranges and results may differ from those of the laboratory
E. It may save sample transport and reporting cost
A
D
24
Q
- Which one of the following statements is true for plasma?
A. The aqueous phase of anticoagulated blood
B. The aqueous phase of clotted blood
C. The concentration of potassium is higher in plasma than serum
D. The total protein concentration is lower in plasma than in serum
E. The concentration of phosphate is higher in plasma than serum
A
A
25
17. What is the meaning of the abbreviation HIMS in the healthcare digital information technology (IT) software system?
A. Human Intervention Motivation Study
B. HumanInformationManagementSystem
C. Homeland Information Management System
D. Hospital Information Management System
E. Housing Information Management System
D
26
18. Which is the logical order after patient admission to the surgical inpatient departments?
I. II.
III. IV. V.
The doctor should order medicines for the patient (if required)
The primary treatment plan and treatment process should be shared with the service team and patient and the patient’s companions (with taking care of the patient’s privacy)
The doctor visits the patient again at the inpatient department.
After signing the approved consent transfer the patient to the operating room.
Get the basic admission information from the service nurce (vital signs, particular patient follow-up information and maintenance plan)
A. I–II–III–IV–V
B. III–I–V–IV–II
C. III–V–II– I–IV
D. III–I–II–V–IV
E. V–IV–III–II–I
C
27
What information should not be included in the medical informed consent form?
A. Explanation of the procedure/treatment
B. Explanationofthefinancialcosts
C. Explanation of the potential risks
D. Explanation of the alternative procedures/treatments and explanation of potential outcomes
if procedure/treatment is not performed
E. Explanation of the potential benefit
B
28
5. Which of the following is the most accurate regarding aminoglycosides and tetracyclines?
A. Both classes of drugs are bactericidal.
B. Both classes of drugs inhibit protein synthesis by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit.
C. Both classes of drugs inhibit peptidyl transferase, the enzyme that synthesizes the peptide bond.
D. Both classes of drugs must be acetylated within human cells to form the active antibacterial compound.
E. Both classes of drugs cause brown staining of teeth when used in children.
B
29
6. Which of the following adverse events aminoglycoside antibiotics?
A. Aplastic anemia
B. NonspecificstimulationofBcells
C. Ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity
D. Photosensitivity
E. Serious bone marrow suppression
C
30
7. Which of the following agents has not good activity against Gram positive organisms?
A. Daptomycin
B. Vancomycin
C. Aztreonam
D. Quinupristin–dalfopristin E. Tigecycline
C
31
The drug of first choice for the treatment of serious anaerobic infections caused by B. fragilis is...
A. Clindamycin B. Ampicillin
C. Clarithromycin D. Metronidazole E. Azithromycin
D
32
10. All
of the following are common mechanisms of resistance to the penicillins except:
A. Production of β-lactamases
B. Alterationintargetreceptors(PBPs)
C. Ianilitytoactivateautolyticenzymes
D. Failure to synthesize peptidoglycans
E. Methylation of ribosomal RNA
E
33
11. Which of the following statements concerning the mechanism of action of antibacterial drugs is true?
A. Monobactamsarebactericidaldrugsthatinhibitthetranspeptidasereactionandpreventcell wall synthesis.
B. Carbapenemsarebactericidaldrugsthatinhibitthepenicillinbindingprotein.
C. Penicillinsarebactericidaldrugsthatinhibitthetranspeptidasereaction.
D. Cephalosporins are bactericidal drugs that inhibit the transpeptidase reaction.
E. Cephamycins are bactericidal drugs that inhibit protein synthesis.
E
34
Which of the following statements concerning penicillin is wrong?
A. An intact β-lactam ring of penicillin is required for its activity.
B. The structure of penicillin resembles that of a dipeptide of alanine, which is a component
of peptidoglycan.
C. Penicillinisabacteriostaticdrugbecauseautolyticenzymesarenotactivated.
D. Penicillin inhibits transpeptidases, which are required for cross-linking peptidoglycan.
E. Antistaphylococcal antibiotics are so-called because they are resistant to being broken
down by staphylococcal penicillinase.
C
35
13. Which of the following molecule is a β-lactamase inhibitor?
A. Sulbactam
B. Azlocillin C. Mezlocillin D. Ticarcillin E. Amoxicillin
A
36
14. A man is rushed to casualty, nearly dying after a massive blood loss in an accident. There is not much time to match blood groups, so the physician decides to order one of the following blood groups. Which of the following blood groups should the physician decide?
A. O positive
B. ABpositive
C. ABnegative
D. O negative
E. B negative
D
37
15. Which of the following statements about a person with an “O” blood type is correct?
A. They have both A and B antigens and do not make antibodies to A or B.
B. They have both A and B antigens and make antibodies to A or B.
C. They lack both A and B antigens and make antibodies to both A and B.
D. They lack B antigens and make antibodies to B.
E. They lack A antigens and make antibodies to A.
C
38
16. Which of the following tests the donor’s red cells with the recipient’s serum to determine the presence of any antibodies that may cause hemolysis or agglutination of the donor’s red cells?
A. Minor cross match
B. RhDtyping
C. ABOtyping
D. Kelly typing
E. Major cross match
E
