Infection Prevention and Control Flashcards

1
Q

Pathogen

A

Infectious Agent

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2
Q

Colonization

A

Organism that multiplies within a host but does not cause infection

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3
Q

Infectious disease

A

Illness such as viral meningitis or pneumonia

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4
Q

Communicable disease

A

An infectious disease that is transmitted directly from one person to another

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5
Q

pH

A

Acidity of the environment

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6
Q

Portal of exit

A

Sites such as blood, mucous membranes, respiratory tract, genitourinary tract, and gastrointestinal tract

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7
Q

Major route of transmission

A

Unwashed hands of a health care worker

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8
Q

Virulence

A

Ability to survive in the host or outside the body

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9
Q

Susceptibility

A

Individuals degree of resistance to pathogen

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10
Q

Immunocompromised

A

Having and impaired immune system

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11
Q

Reservoir

A

A place where a pathogen survives

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12
Q

Carriers

A

Persons who show no symptoms of illness but who have the pathogens that are transferred to others.

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13
Q

Aerobic Bacteria

A

Bacteria that require oxygen for survival

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14
Q

Anaerobic Bacteria

A

Bacteria that thrive with little or no free oxygen

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15
Q

Bacteriastasis

A

Prevention of the growth and reproduction of bacteria by cold temperatures

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16
Q

Bactericidal

A

A temperature or chemical that destroys bacteria

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17
Q

Development of an infection occurs in a cycle that depends on the following elements

A

a. An infectious agent or pathogen
b. Reservoir or source for the pathogen to grow
c. port of exit from the reservoir
d. mode of transmission
e. port of entry to a host
f. a susceptible host

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18
Q

Direct mode of transmission:

A

People to people or physical source and susceptible host

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19
Q

Indirect mode of transmission:

A

Personal contact of susceptible host with a contaminated inanimate object

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20
Q

Droplet mode of transmission

A

Large particles that travel up to 3 ft and come in contact with the host (coughing, sneezing, talking)

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21
Q

Airborne mode of transmission:

A

Droplets that suspend in the air

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22
Q

Vehicles mode of transmission:

A

Contaminated items (Water, drugs, blood, food)

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23
Q

Vector mode of transmission:

A

Internal and external transmissions such as parasitic conditions between vector and host (Mosquito, flea, tick)

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24
Q

Localized infections

A

Wound infection; patient experiences localized symptoms (pain tenderness, redness around wound)

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25
Q

Systemic infections

A

Infects the entire body instead of just a single organ. Can be fatal if intreated

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26
Q

Normal flora

A

The body contains microorganisms that reside on the surface and deep layers of the skin in saliva and oral mucousa, and in the intestinal walls and genitourinary tract that maintain health

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27
Q

Body system defenses

A

The skin, mouth, eyes, respiratory tract, urinary tract, genitourinary tract, and vagina have unique defenses against infection

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28
Q

Inflammation

A

The body’s response to injury, infection, or irritation. It is a protective vascular reaction that delivers fluid, blood products, and nutrients to an area of injury.

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29
Q

Vascular and cellular responses to cellular injury.

A

Acute inflammation: rapid vasodilation that causes redness at the site of localized warmth, allowing phagocytosis to occur.

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30
Q

Inflammatory exudate responses to cellular injury.

A

the accumulation of fluid and dead tissue cells; WBC’s form at the site. Exudate may be serous, sanguineous or purulent.

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31
Q

Tissue repair

A

Healing involves the defensive, reconstructive, and maturative stages.

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32
Q

Exogenous

A

infection that comes from microorganisms outside the individual that do not exist in normal floras

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33
Q

Endogeous

A

Infection that occurs when part of the patient’s flora become altered and an overgrowth results

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34
Q

Identify sites and causes of health care associated infections

A

a. UTI
b. Surgical or traumatic wounds
c. Respiratory tract
d. Bloodstream

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35
Q

Causes of a UTI as a health care associated infection

A

Unsterile catheter, improper tube position, open drainage, disconnect of catheter, urine reentering bladder

36
Q

Causes of Surgical or traumatic wounds as a health care associated infection

A

Improper skin prep, failure to clean skin, no/poor asceptic technique, contaminated asceptic solution

37
Q

Causes of respiratory tract infections as a health care associated infection

A

Contaminated equipment, no/poor asceptic technique, improper disposals

38
Q

Causes of bloodstream infections as a health care associated infection

A

Contamination of IV fluids by tubing, improper care of needle insertion site, contaminated needles and catheters.

39
Q

Explain how AGE influences a persons susceptibility to infection

A
  • Infants have immature defenses
  • Breastfed babes have greater immunity
  • viruses are common in middle aged adults
  • Older adults cell-mediated immunity declines
40
Q

Explain how NUTRITIONAL STATUS influences a persons susceptibility to infection

A

A reduction in the intake of protein, carbohydrates, and fats reduces the body’s defenses and impairs wound healing

41
Q

Explain how STRESS influences a persons susceptibility to infection

A

Basal metabolic rate increases; increase serum glucose levels and decrease anti-inflammatory responses with elevated cortisone levels

42
Q

Explain how DISEASE PROCESS influences a persons susceptibility to infection

A

People with diseases of the immune system (leukemia, AIDS) and chronic diseases (AODM) have weakened defenses against infection

43
Q

WBC Count

A

Normal: 5,000-10,000/mm3

Indication of infection: WBC’s increase in an acute infection and decrease in viral infections

44
Q

Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

A

Normal: Up to 15 mm/hr for men and 20mm/hr for women

Indication of infection: elevation in presence of inflammatory process

45
Q

Iron Level

A

Normal: 60-90 g/100 mL

Indication of infection: Decreased in chronic infection

46
Q

Cultures of urine and blood

A

Normal: Sterile without microbe growth

Indication of infection: Microorganism growth

47
Q

Cultures of gram stain of wound, sputum, and throat

A

Normal: No WBC on gram stain, possible normal flora

Indication of infection: Presence of infections, microoraganism growth and WBC’s on gram stain.

48
Q

Neutrophils

A

Normal: 55-70%
Indication of infection: Increase in acute suppurative (pus forming) infection, decrease in overwhelming bacterial infection in older adult

49
Q

Lymphocytes

A

Normal: 20-40%

Indication of infection: Increase in chronic bacterial and viral infections. decrease in sepsis

50
Q

Monocytes

A

Normal: 5-10%

Indication of infection: Increase in protozoan, rickettsial, and TB infections

51
Q

Eosinophils

A

Normal: 1-4%

Indication of infections: Increase in parasitic infection

52
Q

Basophils

A

Normal: 0.5-1.5%

Indication of infection: Normal during infection

53
Q

Common nursing diagnoses that apply to patients at risk or who have an actual infection

A

a. Risk for infection
b. imbalanced nutrition: decreased body regulation
c. impaired oral mucous membrane
d. risk for impaired skin integrity
e. social isolation
f. impaired tissue integrity
g. readiness for enhanced immunization status

54
Q

List four common goals for a patient with an actual or potential risk for infection

A
  • preventing exposure to infectious organisms
  • controlling or reducing the extent of infection
  • maintaining resistance to infection
  • verbalizing understanding of infection prevention and control techniques.
55
Q

List ways a nurse can teach patients and their families to prevent an infection from developing or spreading

A

a. Nutrition
b. immunizations
c. personal hygiene
d. regular rest and exercise
e. eliminate reservoirs of infection
f. Control portals of exit and entry

56
Q

Control of asepsis

A

The absence of pathogenic microorganisms; the technique refers to practices or procedures that assist in reducing the risk of infections

57
Q

Medical asepsis

A

Clean technique: hand hygiene, using clean gloves, cleaning the environment routinely.

58
Q

Hand hygiene

A

includes washing hands with soap and water followed by a stream of water for 15 sec

59
Q

Alcohol based hand rubs

A

are recommended by Center for disease control and prevention to improve hand hygiene practices, protect health care workers hands, and reduce pathogens to patients

60
Q

Disinfection

A

Is a process that eliminated many or all microorganisms with the exceptions of bacterial spores from inanimate objects

61
Q

Sterilizations

A

the complete elimination or destruction of all microorganisms, including spores.

62
Q

Bathing

A

use soap and water to remove drainage, dried secretions, and excess perspiration.

63
Q

Dressing changes

A

Change when they are wet or soiled

64
Q

Contaminated articles

A

Place tissues, soiled dressings, or soiled linens in fluid resistant bags

65
Q

Contaminated Sharps

A

Place all needles, safety needles, and needless systems into puncture proof containers

66
Q

Bedside unit

A

Keep surfaces clean and dry

67
Q

Bottled solutions

A

Do not leave bottled solutions open; date and discard them in 24 hours

68
Q

Surgical wounds

A

Keep drainage bags and collection bags patent

69
Q

Drainage bottles or bags

A

Wear gloves and protective eye wear and empty all drainage systems at the end of the shift.

70
Q

The elements of a respiratory hygiene or cough etiquette are:

A

a. Education of health care facility staff and visitors
b. Posters and written material for agency and visitors
c. Education on how to cover your nose and mouth when you cough, using a tissue, and prompt disposal of the contaminated tissue
d. Placing a surgical mask on the patient if it will not compromise respiratory function or is applicable
e. Hand hygiene after contact with contaminated respiratory secretions
f. Spatial separation greater than 3ft from person with respiratory infection

71
Q

Standard precautions (tier 1)

A

Designed for all patients in all settings regardless of the diagnosis; they apply to contact with blood, body fluid, nonintact skin and mucous membranes

72
Q

Isolation precautions (tier 2)

A

based on the mode of transmission of disease. They are termed airborne; droplet; contact and a new category, protective environment

73
Q

Rationale for gowns

A

Prevent soiling clothing during contact with patients

74
Q

Rationale for a mask

A

Should be worn when you anticipate splashing or spraying of blood or bloody fluid into your face and to satisfy droplet or airborne precautions

75
Q

Rationale for protective eyewear

A

Should be worn for procedures that generate splashes or splatters.

76
Q

Rationale for gloves

A

prevent transmission of pathogens by direct and indirect contact

77
Q

Identify some common waste materials that are considered infectious

A

Wounds, blood, stool, urine

78
Q

List nine responsibilities of infection control professionals

A

a. provide staff education
b. develop and review infection prevention and control policies and procedures
c. recommend appropriate isolation procedures.
d. screen patient records
e. Consult with heath departments
f. Gather statistics regarding the epidemiology
g. Notify the public health department of incidences of communicable diseases
h. Consult with all departments to investigate unusual events or clusters
i. monitor anti-biotic-resistant organisms

79
Q

Identify the clinical situations in which a nurse would use surgical asepsis

A

a. During procedures that require intentional perforation of the patients skin.
b. When the skins integrity is broken
c. During procedures that involve insertion of catheters.

80
Q

List the seven principles of surgical asepsis

A

a. A sterile object remains sterile only when touched by another sterile object
b. Place only sterile objects on a sterile field
c. A sterile object or field out of the range of vision or an object below a persons waist is contaminated
d. A sterile object or field becomes contaminated by prolonged exposure to air
e. When a sterile surface comes in contact with a wet contaminated surface, the sterile object or field becomes contaminated by capillary action
f. Because fluid flows in direction of gravity, a sterile object become contaminated if gravity causes contaminated liquid to flow over the objects surface
g. The edges of the sterile field or container are considered to be contaminated

81
Q

List in order the steps for performing a sterile procedure

A

a. Assemble all equipment
b. Don caps, masks, and eyewear
c. Open sterile packages
d. Open sterile items on a flat surface
e. open a sterile item while holding it
f. prepare a sterile field
g. pour sterile solutions
h. surgical scrub
i. apply sterile gloves
j. Don a sterile gown

82
Q

The expected outcome is the absence of signs and symptoms of infection. List some ways the nurse can monitor the patient

A

a. Monitor the patients postoperative, including surgical site, invasive sites, and respiratory tract, and the urinary tract.
b. Examine all invasive and surgical sites for swelling, erythema, or purulent drainage.
c. Monitor breath sounds
d. Review lab results

83
Q

Which of the following is not an element in the development or chain of infection?

a. Means of transmission
b. Infectious agent or pathogen
c. Formation of immunoglobin
4. Reservoir for pathogen growth

A

C. Formation of immunoglobin

84
Q

The severity of a patients illness depends on all the following except:

a. Incubation period
b. Extent of infection
c. Susceptibility of host
d. Pathogenicity of the microorganism

A

A. Incubation period

85
Q

Which of the following best describes an iatrogenic infection?

a. It results from a diagnostic or therapeutic procedure
b. It results from an extended infection of the urinary tract
c. It involved an incubation period of 3-4 weeks before it can be detected
d. It occurs when patients are infected with their own organisms as a result of immunodeficiency

A

D

86
Q

The nurse sets up a nonbarrier sterile field on the patients over bed table. In which of the following instances is the field contaminated?

A

A. Sterile saline solution is spilled on the field

87
Q

When a patient on a respiratory isolation must be transported to another part of the hospital, the nurse:

A

A. Places a mask on the patient before leaving the room.