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Surg Tech 126 > Surg 126--Final > Flashcards

Surg 126--Final Flashcards

1
Q

aa

A

of each

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2
Q

ad

A

to, up to

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3
Q

ad lib

A

as desired

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4
Q

amt

A

amount

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5
Q

c (with line over it)

A

with

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6
Q

KVO, TKO

A

keep vein open, to keep open

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7
Q

npo, NPO

A

nothing by mouth

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8
Q

per

A

by means of, by

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9
Q

Rx

A

take

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10
Q

s (with line over it)

A

without

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11
Q

sig

A

label

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12
Q

sos

A

once if necessary

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13
Q

stat

A

immediately

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14
Q

bid

A

twice a day

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15
Q

H, hr

A

hour

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16
Q

PRN, prn

A

as necessary (pro re nata)

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17
Q

q

A

every

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18
Q

qh

A

every hour

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19
Q

q2h

A

every 2 hours

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20
Q

qid

A

four times a day

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21
Q

tid

A

three times a day

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22
Q

cap

A

capsule

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23
Q

tab

A

tablet

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24
Q

gtts

A

drops

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25
Q

soin

A

solution

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26
Q

susp

A

suspension

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27
Q

ung

A

ointment

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28
Q

im

A

intramuscular

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29
Q

iv

A

intravenous

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30
Q

PO, po

A

per os, orally

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31
Q

Absorption is the process _____.

A

by which a drug is taken into the body and moves from the site of administration into the blood

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32
Q

Oral absorption varies depending on the drug’s chemical structure as well as the _____ and _____ of the gastrointestinal tract.

A

pH (acidity), motility

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33
Q

Synergists are _____.

A

drugs that enhance the effect of another drug

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34
Q

The Controlled Substance Act was passed in _____.

A

1970

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35
Q

The Controlled Substance Act _____.

A
  1. established the DEA
  2. set tighter controls on drugs capable of being abused
  3. required stricter security controls for anyone who dispenses, receives, sells, or destroys controlled substances
  4. set limits on the use of prescriptions: established guidelines for the number of times drugs can be prescribed in a period of time, and set rules on which preparations may be prescribed over the phone to the pharmacy
  5. required each prescriber register with DEA, and obtain DEA number
  6. identified drugs that can be abused and that are addicting, classifying them into schedules according to the degree of danger
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36
Q

What are state practice acts and what do they govern?

A

they govern the ordering, dispensing and administration of medication

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37
Q

All new medicines and first tested on _____.

A

animals

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38
Q

Atleast _____ species of _____ must be used for testing on animals.

A

two, mammals (both genders must be used)

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39
Q

“What drug is required?”

A

right drug

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40
Q

“How much of the drug is required in what concentration?”

A

right dose

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41
Q

“How will the drug be administered?”

A

right route

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42
Q

“Who will receive the drug?”

A

right patient

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43
Q

“When will the drug be administered?”

A

right time

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44
Q

“Accurately recorded?”

A

right documentation

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45
Q

Medication must be carefully identified by both the _____ and _____.

A

circulator and scrub

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46
Q

Scrub must always state the _____ and _____ of the drug aloud as he hands it to the surgeon.

A

name and strength

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47
Q

Why must the scrub always state the name and strength of the drug aloud as he hands it to the surgeon?

A

Serves as confirmation that the medication is correct

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48
Q

True or False: The name should be spoken aloud even if the syringe (or other delivery container) is labeled

A

True

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49
Q

What are the six steps is medication identification?

A

Step 1-Circulator reads the label
Step 2-Circulator reads labels aloud to the scrub
Step 3-Circulator shows label to the scrub
Step 4-Scrub states medication information aloud
Step 5-Scrub accepts medication
Step 6-Scrub labels medication containers immediately

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50
Q

What are antibiotics?

A

Natural chemicals (or metabolites) produced by microorganisms that inhibit the growth of other microorganisms.

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51
Q

The natural substances that make up antibiotics include _____ and _____.

A

Fungi (and molds) and bacteria

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52
Q

What percentage of antibiotics in the U.S. are prescribed for prophylaxis of infections?

A

30 – 50%

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53
Q

Surgical site infections, are they exogenous or endogenous?

A

endogenous

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54
Q

Preoperatively and intraoperatively, medications are given _____.

A

intravenously

55
Q

Which antibiotic has 4 generations?

A

cephalosporins

56
Q

Ampicillin is generic for _____.

A

aminopenicillin

57
Q

To perform a radiopaque contrast media test, a _____ is injected into the circulatory system or instilled into a body cavity; then a radiograph is taken.

A

contrast medium

58
Q

Pharmacologic agents called _____ are used in certain diagnostic radiographic tests.

A

radiopaque contrast media (ROCM)

59
Q

Many contrast media contain _____ or _____, which are radiopaque.

A

iodine

barium

60
Q

_____ are solutions that color or mark tissue for identification.

A

Dyes

61
Q

Dyes may be used to mark _____.

A

skin incisions

62
Q

Dyes may be used to delineate normal _____.

A

tissue planes

63
Q

Dyes may be used to _____ of certain anatomic structures during a surgical procedure.

A

enhance visualization

64
Q

_____ are used in surgery to help visually identify abnormal cells.

A

Staining agents

65
Q

Staining agents are most frequently used in procedures on the _____.

A

cervix

66
Q

_____ are chemicals in solution that react differently with abnormal cells from the way the react with normal cells.

A

Staining agents

67
Q

_____ are high-density pharmacological agents used to visualize low-contrast body tissues.

A

Contrast media

68
Q

Contrast media are used to visualize _____, _____, _____, and the _____.

A

vascular structures
the urinary bladder
the gastrointestinal tract
the biliary tree

69
Q

Contrast media can be easily confused with other medications on the sterile back table because they are _____.

A

clear in color

70
Q

Methylene blue is most often used in surgery during procedures on the _____ or _____.

A

urinary bladder

fallopian tubes

71
Q

To detect possible injury, _____ is instilled into the bladder through an indwelling urinary catheter.

A

Methylene blue

72
Q

Methylene blue is used to check for leaks or tears in the _____.

A

bladder

73
Q

In gynecology, methylene blue is used to demonstrate _____ of the fallopian tubes.

A

patency

74
Q

Methylene blue is used to check the fallopian tubes in a procedure called _____.

A

tubal dye study (TDS)

75
Q

Delineation of lymphatic vessels for sentinel lymph node biopsy.

A

lymphazurin

76
Q

Given to color the urine for verification of bladder integrity or kidney function. Excreted by the kidneys usually with in 10 minutes after injection.

A

indigo carmine

77
Q

Dyes used for skin marking.

A

gentian violet

78
Q

Staining agents may be used in surgery to help identify _____ for biopsy or excision. Used in GYN to locate areas of cervical dysplasia.

A

abnormal tissue

79
Q

Normal level of potassium

A

3.5 to 5.0

80
Q

Too much potassium is _____.

A

Hyperkalemia

81
Q

Where are nephrons found?

A

Bowmans capsule

82
Q

Medications administered to prevent reabsorption of sodium and water by the kidneys?

A

Diuretics

83
Q

What is the trade name for furosemide?

A

Lasix

84
Q

Lasix (furosemide) is a _____ diuretic.

A

loop

85
Q

Lasix is _____ ceiling diuretic.

A

high

86
Q

Low potency diuretics commonly used to treat edema and hypertension and to help restore potassium levels in hypokalemic patients.

A

Potassium-sparring drugs

87
Q

What type of diuretic is hydrochlorothiazide?

A

Thiazide diuretic

88
Q

What is the most common cardiac dysfunction requiring treatment with diuretics?

A

CHF (congestive heart failure)

89
Q

Used to treat acute renal failure after cardiac surgery, to treat intracranial pressure, and to reduce intraocular pressure in the open globe.

A

osmotic diuretics

90
Q

Given to necessitate placement of indwelling catheters.

A

Osmitrol

91
Q

Critical for the development of male sex organs and maintenance of secondary sex characteristics.

A

androgens, primarily testosterone

92
Q

What gland secretes oxytocin?

A

the neurohypophysis of the pituitary gland

93
Q

What are steroid hormones derived from?

A

cholesterol

94
Q

The simplest hormones are _____, derived from amino acids.

A

amines

95
Q

Hormones made of short chains of amino acids are called _____.

A

peptide hormones

96
Q

What is the generic name for pitressin?

A

vasopressin

97
Q

What is pitressin used to stabilize?

A

fluid balance

98
Q

What are the symptoms of hypothyroidism?

A

sleepy, tire easy, less mentally alert, reduced endurance, slow heart rate

99
Q

Hormones produced by medulla of Adrenal glands are collectively called?

A

catecholamines

100
Q

What initiates the “Fight or Flight Response”?

A

epinephrine & norepinephrine

101
Q

What gland produces Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone (TSH)?

A

Anterior lobe of the pituitary (adenohypophysis)

102
Q

What hormone is used with local anesthetics?

A

epinephrine

103
Q

What steroid maintains sodium levels in blood?

A

alsosterone

104
Q

What is the generic for Decadron?

A

Dexamethasone

105
Q

What organ functions as exocrine and endocrine gland?

A

pancreas

106
Q

What are the ovarian hormones?

A
  • Estrogens
    • Progestins
    • Inhibin
107
Q

What are the stages of clotting?

A

a. Thromboplastin is formed
b. Thromboplastin converts to prothrombin to thrombin
c. Thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin

108
Q

What is a natural clot-dissolving enzyme?

A

Fibrinolysin

109
Q

What vitamin plays role in coagulation?

A

vitamin K

110
Q

What procedure is done to remove blood clot?

A

arterial embolectomy

111
Q

Types of microfibrillar collagen?

A
  • avitene

- instat MCH

112
Q

How is avitene applied?

A

dry instruments only

113
Q

A mechanical barrier used in Ortho and neurosurgery to control bleeding on bone surface.

A

bone wax

114
Q

Example of a cauterizing agent.

A

silver nitrate

115
Q

Calcium salts are contraindicated in patients with _____.

A

Malignant Hyperthermia (MH)

116
Q

Why are anticoagulants used?

A

to help prevent clot formation

117
Q

In AV fistulas _____ units of heparin in _____ mL of saline is used.

A

5000

1000

118
Q

What is the onset and duration of Heparin?

A

Rapid, with in 5 min, with duration of 2 to 4 hrs

119
Q

Generic name for Coumadin?

A

warfarin

120
Q

What drug is used to reverse heparin

A

protamine sulfate

121
Q

Why are oral anticoagulants used?

A

for long-term medical management of thromboembolic disease such as DVT or pulmonary embolism

122
Q

Name 9 electrolytes…

A
  1. sodium
  2. chloride
  3. potassium
  4. calcium
  5. magnesium
  6. phosphate
  7. bicarbonate
  8. sulfate
  9. carbonic acid
123
Q

What are normal hemoglobin levels in adult females?

A

12 to 16 g/100mL

124
Q

What are normal hemoglobin levels in adult males?

A

14 to 18 g/100mL

125
Q

Normal hematocrit levels in females?

A

35-46%

126
Q

Normal hematocrit levels in males?

A

40-52%

127
Q

What blood test measures oxygen carrying capacities of the blood?

A

hematocrit

128
Q

What blood component contains hemoglobin?

A

RBC

129
Q

What are some risks associated with donor blood?

A

transmission of blood-borne pathogens such as Hep B and C and HIV.

130
Q

How long after thawing must plasma be used?

A

within 6 hours

131
Q

Which formed element of blood is necessary for clotting?

A

platelets

132
Q

Which form of donor blood contains RBC’s?

A

whole blood

133
Q

What is auto transfusion?

A

Involves the collection, processing, and reinfusing of the patient’s own blood during surgery using “cell saver” technology. Results in little damage to RBC’s.

134
Q

When is cell saver used?

A

-emergency procedures when rapid infusion is required

Surg Tech 126 (9 decks)

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