Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Nursing Exam > Nursing 107 Exam #4 > Flashcards

Nursing 107 Exam #4 Flashcards

1
Q

What are normal components of urine?

A

Water, sodium, chloride, potassium, calcium, bicarbonate, urea, creatinine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What components should not be in urine?

A

Glucose, protein, blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does very pale yellow urine represent?

A

Diluted urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does dark amber urine represent?

A

Concentrated urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does Dark red/brown urine represent?

A

Blood in urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does tea brown colored urine represent?

A

Bilirubin in urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does green colored urine represent?

A

Gentimycin (antibiotic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does orange colored urine represent?

A

pyridium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does red urine represent?

A

rifampin & myoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does smokey colored urine represent?

A

Red blood cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does cloudy turbidity of urine mean?

A

infection, high levels of urinary protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the normal urine specific gravity?

A

1.005-1.030

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What causes a specific gravity of less than 1.005 (diluted urine) mean?

A

Diuretics, fluid overload, diabetes insipidus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What causes a specific gravity of more than 1.030 (concentrated urine)

A

Dehydration, SIADH, decreased renal perfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the average and normal pH of urine?

A 
Average = 6
Normal range (4.6-8)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Why do changes occur in the pH of urine?

A

Diet, medications, acid base imbalance, altered renal function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does the positive finding of protein in urine mean?

A

Renal disease, stress, infection, and strenuous exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does glucose in urine mean?

A

Reflects hyperglycemia in the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What happens when the blood sugar >180?

A

The renal threshold for what kidneys can save has been exceeded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does urine that is positive for ketones mean?

A

Incomplete metabolism of fatty acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What causes ketones in urine?

A

DKA, prolonged fasting, anorexia nervosa, adkins diet (high protein that causes the body to breakdown fats for fuel)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What causes the urine to test positive for nitrites?

A

Presence of nitrite-forming bacteria including E. coli, Citrobacter, Enterobacter, Klebsiella, Proteus, Pseudomonas, Salmonella & some species of staphylococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the normal reading of RBC in urine?

A

0-2 per high power field

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What causes a increased reading of RBC in urine?

A

catheterization, menses, abnormal tumors, stones, trauma, glomerular disorders, cystitis, or bleeding disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the normal reading of WBC in urine?

A

0-3 in males

0-5 in females

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What causes increased numbers of WBC in the Urine

A

Infection or inflammation anywhere in the renal/urinary tract, renal transplant rejection, fever, or exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the normal reading of Casts in urine?

A

few or none

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What causes an increase in Casts in urine?

A

renal disease, infections, transplant rejection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the normal reading of crystals in the urine?

A

none

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are crystals?

A

Crystals are salts that precipitate in the urine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Large number of crystals are common in what patients?

A

urolithiasis (kidney stone), gout, high dietary intake of foods rich in purines, or receiving chemotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the normal count of bacteria found in the urine?

A

Normal is less than 1000 colonies/ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the normal reading of parasites in the urine?

A

none

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What does the presence of Trichomonas vaginalis indicate?

A

infection, usually of the urethera, prostate or vagina

Considered STI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the most common organism in community acquired infection from fecal organism?

A

E. Coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What organisms cause infection in hospitalized patients?

A

Staph, Klebsiella, Proteus, Enterobacter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the risk factors in UTI development?

A

Age, altered immunity, DM, obstruction of urine flow, (BPH, kidney stone) sexual activity (diaphragm use), pregnancy, urinary stasis, catheterization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the s/s for a UTI?

A

Frequency, urgency, dysuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the nonspecific s/s for UTI in the elderly?

A

Lethargy, altered sensorium (LOC), low grade fever, anorexia, new onset of incontinence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are some common drug treatments for UTI?

A

Antibiotics, Urinary Antiseptics, and Bladder Analgesics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is are two lower UTI’s names?

A

Cystitis and Urethritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Describe Cystitis

A

Bladder inflammation
Acute or chronic
Urgency, frequency, pain, spasms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Describe s/s of Urethritis

A

Painful urination
Discharge
Neisseria gonorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Describe an upper UTI?

A

Inflammation of renal pelvis and kidney
Usually results from bacterial infection ascended from bladder
Sudden onset of fever & chills, dull flank pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are some complications of Pyelonephritis (Upper UTI)?

A

Chronic renal failure
Inflamed pelvis
Dilated ureter
Scar tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is Glomerulonephritis?

A

Acute nephritic syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

How is Glomerulonephritis contracted?

A

Usually follows upper respiratory infection caused by Streptococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the s/s of Glomerulonephritis?

A

Hematuria, proteinuria, red cell casts, oliguria, edema, pruritus, nausea, constipation, hypertension, increasing BUN & Creatinine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is BUN?

A

Blood Urea Nitrogen

Urea=nitrogen compound formed in the liver from ammonia as an end product of protein metabolism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What does BUN tell us?

A

Reflects both protein intake and renal excretion function.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are the normal levels of BUN?

A

Newborn: 5-17 mgdL
Youth: 7-17 mg/dL
14 yo - adult: 8-21 mg/dL
Adult >90 yo: 10-31 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are some reasons for abnormal high BUN?

A

Acute renal failure, chronic glomerulonephritis, HF, decreased renal perfusion, excess protein intake, GI bleeding, muscle wasting from starvation, dehydration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are some reasons for abnormal low BUN?

A

Inadequate dietary protein intake, malabsorption syndrome, pregnancy, overhydration, severe liver disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is Serum (blood) Creatinine?

A

End product of creatine metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are normal levels of Serum (blood) creatinine?

A

1-5 yo: 0.3-0.5 mg/dL
6-10 yo: 0.5-0.8 mg/dL
Adult male: 0.6-1.2 mg/dL
Adult female: 0.5-1.1 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are some reasons for high creatinine levels?

A

Increased muscle mass, decreased renal blood flow (HF, shock), decreased renal excretion, released from damaged muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are some reasons for low creatinine levels?

A

Decreased muscle mass (increasing age, muscular dystrophy, small stature, inadequate protein intake), increased GFR (Hyperthyroidism)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is Creatinine Clearance?

A

Ideal substance for determining renal clearance

Measures a blood sample with urine sample to determine rate at which the kidneys are clearing creatinine from the blood.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR)?

A

Best indication of overall kidney function based on 24hr urine collection. Shows how well the renal system clears creatinine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the normal BUN/Creatinine ratio?

A

10:1 and 20:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

A ratio > than 20:1 indicates what in BUN/Creatinine ratio?

A

decreased renal perfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

A ration < than 10:1 indicates what in BUN/Creatinine ratio?

A

diminished protein intake or liver dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Ratio of BUN/Creatinine can remain normal with intra-renal failure? T or F

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Which is drawn up first in a Peak & Trough level test?

A

Trough is drawn 1st, then Peak 2nd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What drugs require peak/trough testing?

A

Aminoglycosides, Amphotericin B, Antibiotics, Systemic antifungals, ACE inhibitors, NSAIDS, Radiographic contrast agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

A quantitative analysis of a composite urine sample for levels of creatinine, urea nitrogen, sodium, chloride, calcium or catecholamine is called?

A

24 hour urine test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

X-ray of the kidneys, ureters, and bladder to screen for presence of 2 kidneys, measure kidney size, and to detect gross obstruction is called what?

A

KUB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Uses sound waves to identify the size of the kidneys, obstruction, tumor, or cysts. Minimal risk to the client. This is called?

A

Ultrasound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

This procedure has a radiopaque dye the is injected intravenously. The dye circulates into the kidney blood vessels and excreted in the urine. A series of x-rays are taken at various times after injection. Helps evaluate kidney function, renal calculi, and trauma is called?

A

IVP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Blood test that provides information about renal impairment is?

A

BUN, CR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

This is performed under general anesthesia or local anesthesia with sedation. Scope goes through the urethra and into the bladder to examine for trauma, obstruction, tumor, or enlarged prostate gland?

A

Cystoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

The catheter is inserted into the femoral artery and threaded into the renal arteries. Radiopaque dye is injected into vessel and x-rays taken to determine areas of narrowing or obstruction. Bleeding from the insertion site is the most common complication.

A

Renal angiogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

This provides information on components present in urine sample. Abnormal results include blood, protein, glucose, white blood cells.

A

UA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

This analyzes presence of bacteria and determines which drugs are effective at killing or stopping growth of the bacteria?

A

C & S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

A decrease in this occurs with increased fluid intake, diuretic administration, and diabetes inspidus. An increase occurs with dehydration, ADH, and decreased renal perfusion.

A

Specific gravity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Provides 3-dimentional information about the kidneys, ureters, bladder, and surrounding tissues. May be performed with contrast medium.

A

CT Scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Urine test used to screen for urinary tract infection?

A

UA

78
Q

Most common type of this problem. Associated with childbirth?

A

Stress Incontinence

79
Q

Blood test used to evaluate hydration status & kidney function?

A

BUN

80
Q

Abnormal substance found in urine with diabetes mellitus?

A

Glucose

81
Q

Spread of infection from the urinary tract to the bloodstream?

A

Urosepsis

82
Q

Involuntary loss of urine assocated with strong desire to urinate?

A

Urge Incontinence

83
Q

Definitive lab used to diagnosis renal function. Associated with amount of muscle mass?

A

Creatinine

84
Q

Abnormal finding in urine. Passes thru damaged glomerular membranes?

A

Protein

85
Q

Type of exercise used to strengthen pelvic floor muscles?

A

Kegel

86
Q

Detrusor muscle fails to contract and bladder becomes overdistended?

A

Overflow incontinence

87
Q

Density of urine compared with water. Increased amount occurs with dehydration?

A

Specific Gravity

88
Q

Presence of this substance indicates incomplete metabolism of fatty acids?

A

Ketones

89
Q

Plural form of calculus. Another name for kidney stone?

A

Calculi

90
Q

Decline in cognitive function contributes to this disorder rather than bladder or urethra problems?

A

Functional Incontinence

91
Q

Used for diagnostic or treatment of bladder problems. Requires OR permit?

A

Cystoscopy

92
Q

Abnormal finding in UA that indicates presence of bacteria that form this substance?

A

Nitrite

93
Q

Term that means blood in urine?

A

Hematuria

94
Q

Condition that develops after infectious & autoimmune diseases cause intra-renal damage. Classic symptom is morning facial edema?

A

Glomerulonephritis

95
Q

Diagnostic exam where dye is injected into the kidney. Contrast dye can cause kidney damage?

A

IVP

96
Q

Rare to find this substance in fresh urine sample. Can form into kidney stones?

A

Crystals

97
Q

Painful symptom assoc with movment of kidney stones through ureters?

A

Colic

98
Q

Presence of active organisms in kidney or effects of kidney infections?

A

Pyelonephritis

99
Q

Test that requires a full bladder to allow visualization of GU organs. Test can identify obstructions, tumors, cysts, and other masses with contrast dye?

A

Ultrasound

100
Q

Increased # of this substance in urine indicates need for culture to determine infection?

A

Bacteria

101
Q

Increased # of cells and enlargement of prostate leads to urine flow problems?

A

BPH

102
Q

Most common type of cancer in men. Only diagnosed by biopsy?

A

Prostate CA

103
Q

May be the only symptom elderly patients who have UTI present with?

A

Confusion

104
Q

“Plain film” of the abdomen that can show anatomic features, stones, strictures, calcifications in urinary tract?

A

KUB x-ray

105
Q

Inflammation of the prostate gland. May be bacterial, viral, STD, or autoimmune?

A

Prostatitis

106
Q

Most common cause of this inflammation is bacterial infection or complication of STD. Symptoms of pain along injuinal canal & along vas deferens. Untreated it can cause abscess that requires orchiectomy.

A

Epididymitis

107
Q

Most common cause of hospital acquired infection?

A

CAUTI

108
Q

AKA impotence. 2 main classifications: organic and functional?

A

ED

109
Q

What three drugs are commonly used for treating a UTI?

A

Macrodantin
Septra DS
Ciprofloxin

110
Q

What are the nursing considerations for Macrodantin?

A 
Take with food to avoid GI upset
Avoid taking with antacid
Encourage fluids
Monitor i/o
Check urine culture and sensitivity results
111
Q

What is low dose Macrodantin prescribed for?

A

bacteriostatic for chronic UTI

112
Q

What is high dose Macrodantin prescribed for?

A

bactericidal

113
Q

What are the adverse effects for Macrodantin?

A

GI disturbances, N/V, diarrhea, abdominal pain, dyspnea, chest pain, fever and cough.
In long term use peripheral Neuropathy

114
Q

This commonly prescribed drug for UTI is usually given in double strength due to resistance and has been around for nearly forever. Can be in the first line treatment, for 3 days. Need to be careful of sun exposure. Also causes increased risk of SJS?

A

Septra DS

115
Q

This drug commonly given for UTI can be used for other infections such as penumonia?

A

Quinolones: example are ciprofloxacin “Cipro”

116
Q

This drug has been on the market for over 40 yrs. Used to treat the pain, urgency and frequency of a UTI. May cause GI upset, Nausea. May also cause nephrotoxicity and hepatotoxicity. It does not treat the infection. Urine becomes reddish orange?

A

Pyridium = Urinary Analgesics

117
Q

What type of drug would be prescribed for bladder function decreased due to neurogenic bladder due to spinal cord injury, head injury, or other CNS lesion?

A

Bladder Stimulants

118
Q

This drug type can be used to stimulate micturition; it is a direct acting parasympathomimetic; it increases the tone of the detrusor urinary muscle, which produces a contraction strong enough to stimulate urination.

A

Urecholine

119
Q

Give two examples of Urinary antispasmodics?

A

Ditropan and Detrol

120
Q

These drugs decrease the urge urinary incontinence and is used to control overactive bladder?

A

Ditropan and Detrol

121
Q

Urinary antispasmodics have anticholinergic side effects, what are they?

A

Hot flashes, mouth drys out, blurred vision, confusion, redness, urinary retention.

122
Q

Who is contraindicated in urinary antispasmodics?

A

Cardiac, renal hepatic and patients with prostate problems

123
Q

Problems of BPH are?

A

Bladder fullness, frequency, nocturia, and erectile dysfunction

124
Q

How is BPH treated?

A

5 Alpha-Reductase Inhibitors (Proscar)

Alpha-Adrenergic Blocking Agents (Flomax)

125
Q

This 5 Alpha-reductase inhibitors lowers the levels of DHT (testosterone) with the goal of shrinking the prostate gland. May take 6 months?

A

Proscar

126
Q

What are the side effects of Proscar (5-Alpha-Reductase Inhibitor)?

A

decreased libido, erectile dysfunction. Not recommended for women.

127
Q

What are some off label use for Propecia?

A

promotes hair regrowth in patients with male pattern baldness. Much lower doses (5 times lower)

128
Q

What is the generic name for Alpha-Adrenergic Blockers?

A

Flomax

129
Q

What are some side effects of Flomax?

A

first dose hypotension, syncope, dizziness, avoid alcohol and activities requiring alertness until effects are known.

130
Q

This gland enlarges under the influence of testosterone in males. Enlarged gland creates physical obstruction of urethra?

A

Prostate gland

131
Q

This interferes with testosterone metabolism?

A

Alpha-reductase inhibitors

132
Q

This prevents the activation of alpha receptors? Which causes the smooth muscle in the urethra and neck of bladder to relax and open the lumen?

A

Alpha-adrenergic blockers

133
Q

What is the prototype drug for Androgen Hormones?

A

Testosterone

134
Q

This may be use for hypogonadism - failure of the testes to produce androgen, sperm or both? It can result in defective primary or secondary sexual development which may result in infertility. It is usually started with a six month trial, then rest and reevaluate. If long term therapy is needed either injections or a patch can be used.

A

Testosterone

135
Q

This drug can be given for growth delay: may be due to an androgen deficiency or a deficiency of growth hormone. Therapy will be initiated after age 14, but before growth plates are closed.

A

Testosterone

136
Q

What are the side effects of Androgen (Testosterone)?

A

Abdominal pain, nausea, insomnia, diarrhea and constipation. May cause an increase in blood cholesterol levels.

137
Q

This increases protein synthesis within cells, resulting in buildup of cellular tissue = larger muscles

A

Anabolic androgenic steroids

138
Q

What are some of the side effects of AAS?

A

Can cause sudden increase in weight and size, mood changes, person can become more aggressive and physical. Excessive intake can cause increase in cholesterol levels, acne, high blood pressure, liver damage and changes in the left ventricle of the heart. Effects may not be seen until years later.

139
Q

What are Anti androgens used for?

A

Treatment of prostate cancer

140
Q

What do Anti androgens do?

A

block conversion of testosterone to its active form. By blocking androgens, the drugs prevent androgens from encouraging the cancer to grow.

141
Q

What are some examples of Anti-androgens?

A

Eulexin
Cyproterone Acetate
Proscar

142
Q

What are the side effects of Anti-androgen?

A

Mood and cognitive changes (especially depression), muscle strength, loss of libido, gynecomastia (male breasts that enlarge and become tender).

143
Q

This drug relaxes smooth muscle, allowing for increased blood flow to the penis?

A

Viagra

144
Q

What are the side effects and contraindications?

A

Hypotension

Contraindicated with nitrates due to unsafe drop in BP.

145
Q

What is orchitis?

A

Testicle inflammation in males

146
Q

What are some s/s of STD?

A

Urethral discharge, and & swelling in scrotum & groin, pain on ejaculation, blood in semen and risk for sterility.

147
Q

Define Hypercalcuria?

A

Hypercalciuria, or excessive urinary calcium excretion, is the most common identifiable cause of calcium kidney stone disease.

148
Q

What is Nephrotic Syndrome?

A

A kidney disease where the protein is found in the urine

149
Q

What are some s/s of Nephrotic Syndrome?

A

Severe edema around the eyes, ankles and feet, foamy urine caused by excess protein in urine, and weight gain due to excess fluid retention.

150
Q

What is Vesicoureteral reflux in pediatrics?

A

Backflow of urine from the bladder into the ureters during voiding.

151
Q

What are the s/s of a UTI in children?

A

Newborn: non specific, may have fever or hypothermia, FTT, poor feeding, vomiting, diarrhea, strong-smelling urine, irritability.
Toddle years begin classic s/s

152
Q

What is myelomeningocele in a pediatrics?

A

When the spinal cord does not develop normally and it interrupts to nerve supply to the bladder resulting in a neurogenic bladder.

153
Q

What is Enuresis in pediatrics?

A

Repeated involuntary voiding by a child old enough that bladder control is expected ~5-6

154
Q

What are some risk factors for Enuresis in pediatrics?

A

Family hx of bedwetting, smaller functional capacity of bladder, children are harder to arouse, lack of circadian rhythm of vaspressin, obstructive sleep apnea, constipation.

155
Q

What are some medications that might help with Enuresis in Pediatrics?

A

Imipramine: tricyclic antidepressant
Desmopressin: ADH effect, $$ save for sleepovers
Oxybutynin: daytime urgency & frequency

156
Q

What drugs are used to treat a UTI?

A

Macrodantin, Septra DS, Ciprofloxin

157
Q

What are some nursing concerns with Macrodantin?

A

Take with food to avoid GI upset, do not take with antacid, encourage fluids, monitor I/O, check urine culture

158
Q

What are some SE of Macrodantin?

A

GI disturbances, n/v, diarrhea, abd pain, dyspnea, chest pain, fever and cough.

159
Q

What are some SE of Pyridium?

A

GI upset, nausea, neprotoxicity and hepatotoxicity

160
Q

Why are bladder stimulants prescribed?

A

Bladder function decreased due to neurogenic bladder,

Due to spinal cord, head or other CNS injury.

161
Q

What drugs are used to stimulate the bladder and how do they work?

A

Urecholine, which is a direct actying parasympathomimetic; it increases the tone of the urinary muscle, which produces a contraction to urinate.

162
Q

What is an example of a Urinary Antispasmodic and what do they do?

A

Ditropan

decrease the urge of urinary incontinence

163
Q

What are the SE of Ditropan and who is it contraindicated for?

A

Pt should report signs of urinary retention, blurred vision, palpitations, confusion.
contraindicated with cardiac, renal hepatic and prostate problems.

164
Q

What drug is BPH treated with?

A

Proscar and Flomax

165
Q

How does Proscar (BPH) work?

A

Lowers the DHT levels with the goal of shrinking the prostate gland.

166
Q

What are the SE of Proscar?

A

Decreased libido, ED and may take 6 months to work.

167
Q

What are the therapeutic effects of Flomax (BPH)?

A

Decreased symptoms of prostatic hyperplasia.

168
Q

What are the SE of Flomax?

A

first dose hypotension and syncope, dizziness, avoid alcohol and activities requiring alertness.

169
Q

What drug is a Androgen Hormone and why is it used?

A

Testosterone - used for hypogonadism (failure of the testes to produce androgen, sperm or both).

170
Q

What are the SE of Androgen (Testosterone) use?

A

abd pain, nausea, insomnia, diarrhea & constipation, may increase blood cholesterol levels, Women may develop secondary male characteristics: facial hair, acne and husky voice.

171
Q

What are Anti-androgens used for and how do they work?

A

They block conversion of testosterone to its active form. Used in the treatment of prostate cancer.

172
Q

What are some SE of Anti-androgens?

A

Mood and cognitive changes, muscle strength, loss of libido, gynecomastia (breasts in men)

173
Q

When does the Foramen Ovale completely close in an infant?

A

The Foramen Ovale can take several months to completely close.

174
Q

When does the Ductus Arteriosus completely close in an infant?

A

Ductus closes within 15-72 hrs of birth and becomes permanently sealed within the 1st month of life.

175
Q

What are the two main categories of defects in pediatric cardiology?

A

Acyanotic and Cyanotic

176
Q

Where does the blood flow in acyanotic defect?

A

Left to right (shunt) due to opening present between the right and left sides of the heart.

177
Q

What effect does an acyanotic defect cause?

A

Increases the volume of blood flowing to the lungs.

178
Q

What are the s/s of acyanotic defect?

A

Increased cardiac workload, right ventricular strain, right ventricular hypertrophy, CHF, pulmonary hypertension.

179
Q

What are three examples of acyanotic defects?

A

Patent ductus arterious (PDA)
Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD)
Atrial Septal Defect (ASD)

180
Q

What is a clinical manifestation of Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA)?

A

Fatigue, sweating, tachypnea, dyspnea, disinterest or tiring while feeding, FTT, freq pulmonary infections

181
Q

What is a clinical manifestation of Tetralogy of Fallot (TET)?

A

Difficulty feeding, FTT and Cyanotic or TET spells

182
Q

What is a clinical manifestation of Transposition of the great arteries (TGA)?

A

Prominent cyanosis, Tachypnea >60 with retractions, dyspnea, tachycardia, cool, clammy skin.

183
Q

What is the long term outlook for infants with PDA?

A

If left untreated: life span will be decreased due to pulmonary hypertension and development of vascular obstructive disease. Uncomplicated PDA repair will live normal, healthy lives.

184
Q

What is Tetralogy of Fallot?

A

Most common cyanotic congenital heart defect that refers to 4 heart problems: pulmonary artery stenosis, pulmonary artery is narrowed and stiff, right ventricular hypertrophy, over-riding aorta

185
Q

What is the long term outlook of TET?

A

Not all children are cured by surgery, but they do have improved quality of life and longevity. Uncomplicated repair will live normal healthy lives.

186
Q

What is the log term outlook of TGA?

A

Fatal without surgery, many will grow and develop normally. Tachy, brady, or irregular arrhythmias.

187
Q

What is the therapeutic effects of indomethacin?

A

Stimulates the muscles inside the artery to constrict and causes closure of PDA 75-80% of the time.

188
Q

What is the therapeutic effects of prostaglandin E?

A

It keeps the smooth muscle in the ductus relaxed in the ventricular septal defect.

189
Q

What causes a TET spell in a child?

A

Crying, feeding, BM or exertion temporarily increases the pressure in the lungs.

190
Q

What happens to myocardial cell function during periods of hypoxemia?

A

Triggers the kidneys to produce erythropoietin to stimulate the bone marrow to produce RBC.

191
Q

What are the long term effects of chronic hypoxia?

A

Impaired cognitive and psychomotor development

192
Q

Explain the surgical procedure involved in TET?

A

Usually done at 3-12 mos

VSD patched, pul artery is enlarged, and a palliative shunt.

Nursing Exam (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions