Common Chromosomal Disorders Flashcards

1
Q

Inheritance of an extra copy of one chromosome results in a condition called _____.

A

trisomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Most commonly, trisomies occur when one pair of chromosomes fails to separate properly during meiosis, a problem termed _____.

A

nondisjunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The most common trisomy that results in a live birth is trisomy _____ (#).

A

21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The most common trisomies are _____ (#), _____ (#), and _____ (#), and contain relatively few gene alleles.

A

21, 18, 13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Trisomy of chromosomes containing more alleles is more likely to be embryo _____.

A

lethal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The presence of extra sex chromosomes, especially the _____ chromosome, is relatively common.

A

X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What type of congenital heart defect is most common in trisomy 21?

A

cardiac cushion defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Name the trisomy:

- small, strawberry-shaped head with receding chin, small jaw, and elongated occiput

A

18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Name the trisomy:

- microcephaly, micrognathia, cleft lip

A

13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Name the trisomy:

  • epicanthal folds with upslanting palpebral fissures
  • short neck with limited motion and extra skin folds
  • cardiac cushion defects
A

21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Name the trisomy:

  • atrial-septal defects, ventricular-septal defects, coarctation of the aorta
  • omphalocele
  • esophageal atresia
A

18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Name the trisomy:

  • dextrocardia, atrial-septal defects, ventricular-septal defects, PDA
  • polydactyly, syndactyly
  • umbilical and inguinal hernias
A

13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Name the trisomy:

  • holoproencephaly (fusion of brain hemispheres)
  • low-set ears
  • deafness, vision problems
  • seizures
  • apnea
A

13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Name the trisomy:

  • Brushfield spots (speckling) on iris
  • shorter stature than siblings
  • hypothyroidism
  • increased risk for leukemia
A

21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

_____ with trisomy 21 are sterile.

A

Males

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Females with trisomy 21 have a _____% chance of producing a zygote with trisomy 21.

A

50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Of those that are not stillborn, over _____% of trisomy 18 births die within the first year.

A

90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Of those that are not stillborn, over _____% o trisomy 13 births die within the first year.

A

90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

List the 4 syndromes of extra X chromosomes:

A

trisomy X
tetrasomy X
pentasomy X
Klinefeltier syndrom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

While _____ X is more common with normal phenotype (but usually are taller than average with slight delay in language development and a higher incidence of shyness and lack of self-confidence), _____ X and ______ X are much rarer are are consistently associated with phenotypic abnormalities.

A
  1. trisomy
  2. tetrasomy
  3. pentasomy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Females with _____ X are usually tall and have a greater reduction in IQ (35-70), smaller heads, and minor changes in facial features with increased incidence in skeletal abnormalities and unstable behavior.

A

tetrasomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Fewer than 40 females who have _____ X have been reported and have greatly reduced IQ, short stature, cleft palate, hypotonia, coarse facial features, microcephaly, hypertelorism (large distance between the eyes), and congenital heart defects.

A

pentasomy

23
Q

Men can have an extra X chromosome, resulting in a 47,XXY karyotype, also known as _____ _____.

A

Klinefelter syndrome

24
Q

The cause of _____ _____ is both maternal and paternal nondisjunction and is associated with both maternal and paternal aging with fetal survival about _____%.

A
  1. Klinefelter syndrome

2. 97

25
Q

Features of _____ _____ include: declining testosterone with increased FSH by young adult age, small testes and penis, gynecomastia (50% of cases), azospermia (lack of sperm production), oligospermia, decreased libido, osteoporosis, SLE, thyroid disease, diabetes, breast CA, non-Hodgkin lymphoma, and germ cell tumors.

A

Klinefelter syndrome

26
Q

Features of having an extra _____ chromosome include taller than average, more severe teenage acne, slower motor and language development, learning disabilities, more easily distracted, hyperactive, more easily frustrated, impulsivity, disorganized and aggressive behavior.

A

Y

27
Q

Inheriting only one chromosome of a pair is a condition called _____.

A

monosomy

28
Q

The only common incidence of monosomy is _____ syndrome in which a female is missing one of the X chromosomes and has a karyotype of 45,X, along with very few cases of monosomy 21 reported.

A

Turner

29
Q

_____% of Turner syndrome individuals do not survive the first trimester.

A

99

30
Q

Name the syndrome:
short stature, wide chest, disproportionally large hands and feet, congenital dislocated hip, scoliosis, kyphosis, osteoporosis, pedal edema hygroma, high/arched narrow palate, widely spaced eyes, poor dentition, wide mandible with small chin, low posterior hairline.

A

Turner

31
Q

What are possible cardiovascular problems associated with Turner syndrome?

A
  1. Coarctation of the aorta
  2. bicuspid aortic valve
  3. aortic dissection
  4. hypertension
  5. coronary artery disease
  6. long Q-T syndrome
  7. partial anomalous pulmonary connection
32
Q

What are possible endocrine problems associated with Turner syndrome?

A
  1. hypothyroidism

2. Diabetes mellitus types 1 and 2

33
Q

What are possible renal problems associated with Turner syndrome?

A
  1. collecting-system malformations
  2. horseshoe-shaped kidney
  3. malrotation of one or both kidneys
34
Q

What are possible eye and vision problems associated with Turner syndrome?

A
  1. epicanthal folds (skinfold of upper eyelid)
  2. drooping eyelids
  3. uptilted palpebral fissures (opening between the upper and lower eyelids)
  4. red-green color blindness
  5. strabismus (misalignment of the eyes)
  6. hyperopia (farsightedness)
35
Q

What are possible ear and hearing problems associated with Turner syndrome?

A
  1. malformed ears
  2. unusual relationship between position of eustachian tube and middle ear
  3. excessively high incidence of otitis media
  4. conductive hearing loss
  5. progressive sensorineural hearing loss (adults)
  6. cholesteatoma formation (abnormal skin growth in the middle ear behind the ear drum)
36
Q

What are possible secondary sexual features (without hormone supplementation) associated with Turner syndrome?

A
  1. absent or delayed menses
  2. poor breast development
  3. infertility
  4. ovarian dysgenesis with loss of ova and fibrotic changes
  5. small, underdeveloped uterus
37
Q

_____ is the inheritance of an extra copy of each chromosome, resulting in a person who has 69 chromosomes per cell instead of 46, usually lethal, with none reaching first birthday.

A

Triploidy

38
Q

Unlike trisomy and monosomy, most partial chromosome duplications and deletions are _____ events that result from chromosomal breakage and structural rearrangement, usually during gametogenesis, not related to paternal age, with usually no reproductive capability.

A

random

39
Q

WAGR syndrome is a _____ syndrome standing for:

A
  1. deletion

2. Wilm’s tumor (nephroblastoma), Aniridia (absence of the iris), Genitourinary malformations, and Retardation

40
Q

While the other features of WAGR syndrome are always present, the risk for Wilm’s tumor is _____%.

A

40

41
Q

More rarely occurring, the inherited type of _____ is missing the RB gene on at least one chromosome 13 whose role is a cancer suppressor gene in preventing transcription factors from enhancing cell division.

A

retinoblastoma

42
Q

Name the deletion syndrome:
microcephaly, cleft lip and palate, hypertelorism (widely spaced eyes), epicanthal folds, low-set earts with few folds, small chin, a variety of heart defects, decreased cognition.

A

Cri Du Chat

43
Q

Name the deletion syndrome:
normal appearance at birth, feeding difficulties, developmental delay, slow gain of head circumference, unsteady or clumsy gait with jerky motions, frequent smiles and laughs regardless of circumstances, easily excited personality and hand waving or flapping motions, impaired speech, seizures, occipital groove, protruding tongue, large mouth with widely spaced teeth, drooling, strabismus, and lighter pigmentation than parents and siblings

A

Angelman

44
Q

Name the deletion syndrome:
normal appearance at birth, narrow face, lighter pigmentation than family members, hypotonia, poor sucking reflex, failure to thrive, short stature, small hands and feet, developmental delays with reduced cognition, small gonads, insatiable appetite, behavioral problems, delayed puberty, infertility

A

Prader-Willi

45
Q

True or false:

Angelman and Prader-Willi syndromes are both a result of the deletion of chromosome 15 from q11 to q13.

A

True

46
Q

_____ syndrome is maternally derived and _____ syndrome is paternally derived from the deletion of chromosome 15 from q11 to q13.

A
  1. Angelman

2. Prader-Willi

47
Q

Genomic _____ is an epigenetic event in which a gene (or gene allele) is inactivated by means other than mutation, so the DNA sequence of the gene remains normal but its expression is inhibited.

A

imprinting

48
Q

When a gene or genes have been iprinted during gametogenesis, the effect of an imprinted gene allele from one parent means that only the nonimprinted gene allele from the other parent is _____.

A

expressed

49
Q

For the most part, when the nonimprinted gene allele is _____, its sole expression is not a problem.

A

normal

50
Q

In _____ _____ (UPD), both chromosomes of a pair come from just one parent.

A

uniparental disomy

51
Q

When a child has uniparental disomy (UPD) of chromosome 15 with both chromosomes being derived from the father, and there is no deletion of material on either chromosome, _____ syndrome results.

A

Angelman

52
Q

When a child has uniparental disomy (UPD) of chromosome 15 with both chromosomes being derived from the mother, and there is no deletion of material on either chromosome, _____ results.

A

Prader-Willi

53
Q

_____ is a condition in which two (or more) different karyotypes are consistently present in one individual.

A

Mosaicism

54
Q

_____ can be tissue-specific, meaning that some tissues can express a mixture of normal and abnormal karyotypes, and other tissues may express all or nearly all of just one type.

A

Mosaicism