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Conditions II > Test 2 > Flashcards

Test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 5 causes of orthopedic injuries?

A

Trauma (MVA,Fall, Sports, Work)

Cumulative Trauma (repetitive stress)

Cogenital Abnormality

Avascular Necrosis

Tumors

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2
Q

The impact of falls causes these things?

A

Creates fear: decreased participation, can be emotionally, physically and financially costly.

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3
Q

What is the Role of an OT in the Acute Stage?

A

Pain Management

Decrease Edema

Wound Care

Positioning and Alignment

Restore Functioning

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4
Q

What is the Role of an OT in the Chronic Stage?

A

Lifestyle Changes

Compensation

Use of adaptive equipment.

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5
Q

In what ways can a fracture occur?

A

Direct Trauma

Spontaneous fracture in bone weakened by pathological condition (tumor)

Weakened by osteoporosis, osteopenia, osteoarthritis.

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6
Q

Where are the most common osteoporosis related fractures?

A

Neck of Femur

Humerus

Distal Radius

Compression

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7
Q

Describe Closed vs. Open Fractures?

A

Open = penetrates the skin. Worse because of infection risk

Closed = Doesn’t Penetrate Skin

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8
Q

Describe an open reduction vs closed reduction medical management for fractures

A

Closed Reduction = Not opening the skin to fix fracture (casting and splinting)

Open Reduction = Performing surgery to fix. (ORIF, screws, plates,rods)

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9
Q

What are 6 factors that impede healing?

A

Type of Injury

Severity of Injury

Location of Injury

Premorbid Health

Smoking

Complications in healing

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10
Q

What are the 3 types of abnormal healing?

A

Malunion = Normal time but bones not aligned

Delayed Union = Increased time to heal

Non Union = Fails to heal

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11
Q

What are some (6) complications in fractures?

A

Infection

DVT

Phlebitis

Vascular Damage

Blood Loss

Compartment Syndrome

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12
Q

What is OT treatment for fractures?

A

Goal is to reintegrate limb into function

Edema Control

Modalities

Splinting

Scar Management

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13
Q

What are the goals for shoulder fracture management?

A

Relieve pain

Restore Movement

Restore Strength

Allow for Callus Formation

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14
Q

This type of splint may be used to protect arm in humeral fracture?

A

Bivalve & Sarmiento

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15
Q

What is done in Phase 1 of humerus fracture?

A

Positioning

Codmen’s Pendulum Exercises

Passive/Assistive Exercises

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16
Q

What is done in Phase 2 of humerus fracture?

A

Active and Early Resistive Exercises

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17
Q

What is done in Phase 3 of humerus fracture?

A

Advanced Stretching and Strengthening

Use of UE

Full Weight Bearing

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18
Q

What are the two most common types of Elbow Fractures?

A

Supracondylar

Radial Head Fracture

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19
Q

What is the proper way to splint an elbow fracture?

A

Casted in mid range flexion 90 degrees.

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20
Q

What are the most difficult motions to achieve after an elbow fracture?

A

Elbow Extension

Forearm Supination

21
Q

This is the name of the common fracture of the upper extremity

A

Distal Radius Fracture

Colle’s Fracture

This fracture is casted to above elbow and progresses to forearm splint.

22
Q

What is the most common fracture of those 55 years and older?

A

Hip Fracture

23
Q

What are the weight bearing precautions?

A

NWB = Non-Weight Bearing 25-30%

TTWB = Toe Touch Weight Bearing 10%

PWB = Partial WB 25 - 30%

WBAT = Weight Bearing As Tolerated

FWB = Full Weight Bearing 100%

24
Q

What are the 3 stages of fracture healing?

A

Callus Visible = 2 - 3 weeks

Union = 4 - 6 weeks (UE) and 8 - 12 weeks (LE)

Consolidation = 6 -8 weeks (UE) and 12 - 16 weeks (LE)

25
Q

What are some symptoms of RA?

A

Prolonged morning stiffness

Arthritis of three or more joint areas.

Rheumatoid nodules

Lab Value: Increased ESR, Serum Rheumatoid factor positive.

26
Q

True or False: RA has an unknown cause and is incurable.

A

True

27
Q

What are the 3 progressive stages of RA?

A
  1. Swelling causing warmth, pain, stiffness, and redness of joint.
  2. Rapid division and growth of cells causing synovium to thicken.
  3. Inflamed cells that release enzymes that may destroy bone and cartilage.
28
Q

What are 5 benefits to diagnosis of RA?

A

Limits damage to joints

Limits loss of movement

Increases likelihood to remain working

Decrease medical cost

Decrease need for surgery

29
Q

What are the 7 joints most commonly involved in RA?

A

Wrist

MCP

PIP

DIP

Elbow

Toes

TMJ

30
Q

What are the 4 classes of functional capacity in RA?

A

Class I: Complete Function, no handicap

Class II: Adequate Function, able to conduct activity despite handicap.

Class III: Incomplete Function, Performs only a few or none of usual occupations.

Class IV: Largely incapacitated, bedridden or confined to wheelchair

31
Q

Describe OA

A

Degenerative Joint Disease, characterized by the breakdown of the joint’s cartilage causing bones to rub against each other.

32
Q

What are the symptoms of OA?

A

Brief morning stiffness,

Unilateral Joint Involvement,

Lab Values: ESR mild-mod increased. Serum rheumatoid negative.

33
Q

What are some causes of OA?

A

Age

Heredity

Obesity

Muscle Weakness

Injury and Overuse

Nerve Injury

34
Q

Name some RA/OA Functioning Assessments?

A

Moberg pick up test

9 Hole Peg Test

Purdue Peg Test

Jebsen Test of Hand Function

MAM-16

MRMT

35
Q

What are some interventions of RA/OA

A

Family Education

Joint Protection and Work Simplification

Fatigue Management

Maintain Joint Mobility

Strengthening

Modify Environment

Assistive Devices

36
Q

True or False: Arthrogryposis is genetic

A

False.

37
Q

Developmental Dyspraxia has a prevalence of how much?

A

10%

38
Q

This disorder is a neurological disorder that is characterized by repetitive, stereotyped, involuntary movements and vocalizations called tics.

A

Tourette’s Syndrome

39
Q

True or False: Tics are voluntary and can be suppressed.

A

False, tics are non-voluntary and can only be managed but not suppressed.

40
Q

This disorder is characterized by a physical presentation of abnormal facial features like narrow, small, wide-set eyes, a small head, a smooth, thin upper lip and a short upturned nose.

A

Fetal Alcohol Syndrome

41
Q

This term is an overarching term describing 20 types of seizure disorders

A

Epilepsy

42
Q

What is the cause of epilepsy?

A

A disruption of electrical connections between neurons and the brain.

43
Q

This condition is the 4th most common neurological problem

A

Epilepsy

44
Q

What are some causes for BPPV (Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo)?

A

Minor head injury, repetitive head movements, viral infections, nerve inflammation, side effects of medication and surgeries involving the ear.

45
Q

This term describes an inflammatory disease that affects multiple organs in the body, but mostly the lungs and lymph glands. It appears briefly and then disappears without an individual knowing.

A

Sarcoidosis

46
Q

This disease is commonly confused with asthma because it has the same symptoms of wheezing, coughing, and chest tightness.

A

Pulmonary Sarcoidosis

47
Q

Huntington’s takes approximately this amount of time to progress without remission from symptoms

A

10-25 years

48
Q

Depression is most commonly associated psychiatric disorder associated with this diagnosis?

A

Huntington’s

Conditions II (4 decks)

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