3710.1I AIR OPS 2/2/2024 Flashcards
(292 cards)
1
Q
Commanders implementing unit specific syllabi or any other non traditional training, techniques, and procedures shall inform who
A
Office of Aviation Forces CG-711
1-1
2
Q
How do you propose updates and changes to this manual
A
CG-711 via requesting units CO
1-2
3
Q
Who has primary authority for the operation
of aircraft in the Coast Guard under 14 U.S.C. §88 and §93.
A
The Commandant
1-2
4
Q
Who gives PIC clearance for a flight
A
CO- scheduled flights it is obtained via the flight schedule, non scheduled must be obtained prior to departure
1-2
5
Q
Who investigates mishaps and flight violations for the coast guard academy flight club
A
appropriate office of the NTSB
1-3
6
Q
For aviation missions involving multiple aircraft (e.g., fastroping, airborne use of force) an Air Mission Commander (AMC) maybe assigned by who, and will be responsible for the overall mission execution
A
unit Operations Officer
1-3
7
Q
If two or more aircraft are operating jointly for other missions (e.g.,SAR), the responsibility for the mission normally passes to whom
A
to the PIC of the aircraft with the better communications capabilities
1-4
8
Q
No aircraft modifications and changes will be made without specific authorization from who
A
CG-41 and CG-711
1-4
9
Q
No inflight testing will be conducted without specific authorization from who
A
inflight testing specifically from CG-711
1-4
10
Q
The Aircraft Configuration Control Board Process Guide,
A
CGTO PG-85-00-70-A, is maintained by Commandant (CG-41)
1-4
11
Q
What is the risk management manual
A
M3500.3
1-5
12
Q
If a mission is likely to save human life, it warrants a maximum effort.
A
which warrants damage or abuse to the aircraft even if its. unrecoverable
1-5
13
Q
If a mission is likely to prevent or relieve intense pain or suffering, or if it may result in the possibility of saving human life,
A
it warrants the risk of damage to or abuse of the aircraft if recovering the aircraft can be reasonably expected
1-5
14
Q
Damage to the aircraft in order to save government or citizen property is warranted if what
A
the cost of the property is unquestionably more than the damage to the aircraft and the aircraft is expected to be recoverable
1-5
15
Q
Who develops and promulgates standardization flight procedures
A
ATC
1-10
16
Q
What certifies that a pilot or aircrew
member has gained the training and experience necessary to perform basic operation of a specified aircraft type and model
A
designation
1-10
17
Q
What certifies that a member has gained advanced knowledge, skills, and abilities necessary to perform specific missions in Coast Guard aircraft.
A
qualification
1-10
18
Q
How much time in flight hours should be dedicated to training
A
40 % rotary wing
20 % fixed wing
1-10
19
Q
Who allocates program flight hours
A
CG-711
1-11
20
Q
What is the US Coast Guard Maritime Law Enforcement Manual
A
M16247.1
1-12
21
Q
A medium range recovery aircraft (H60) can fly for how long and carry how many passengers
A
100-200 NM radius, 6-15 passengers
1-13
22
Q
A long range surveillance aircraft (C-130) can fly for how long and carry how many passengers
A
1500 NM radius plus 2.5 hours 75 passengers
1-13
23
Q
A medium range surveillance aircraft (C-27) can fly for how long and carry how many passengers
A
400 NM radius
C-27 46 passengers
C-144 40 passengers
1-13
24
Q
A short range recovery aircraft (H65) can fly for how long and carry how many passengers
A
100 NM radius and 1-5 passengers
1-13
25
Atlantic area C-130s are under whose control
OPCON, Operation Control
1-13
26
If possible, make airspace reservations for pre-planned missions _____ in advance.
24 hours
1-14
27
The basic authority for the Coast Guard to operate aircraft is
contained where
in 14 U.S.C. §§2, 88 and 93
2-1
28
The primary responsibility and authority for the operation of coast guard aircraft is vested in what/whom
Commandant
2-1
29
Commanding Officers of units with tactical control of aircraft have authority to approve flights for Mission Requirements use; this approval is embodied by signing the unit flight schedule. This authority can be delegated no lower than whom
assigned Operations Officer
2-2
30
In regards to aircraft modifications, airworthiness certifications, developmental and operational evaluations flights, Flight clearance authority resides with whom
CG-711
2-2
31
A transfer of PIC authority and responsibility maybe authorized only by the _____ of the unit to which the aircraft is attached, or by a higher authority within the unit’s operational chain of command
Commanding Officer
2-6
32
Final responsibility for the safe conduct of a mission rests with whom
PIC
33
If a PIC refuses a mission under unsafe conditions another crew may not be assigned under the same conditions without specific approval from whom and this may not be delegated
CO
2-8
34
Who has authority to clear an aircraft for further flight if the damage is non structural or cosmetic or malfunction is minor or not a threat to safety
CO gives clearance after EO or qualified maintenance officer has evaluated and reported
2-8
35
Who will be the clearance authority for further flights of aircraft with actual or suspected structural damage or major malfunction
CG-711 with concurrence from CG-41 after the units CO has briefed them
2-9
36
A _____ may authorize assigned personnel to fly aboard non-Coast Guard aircraft for operational missions.
commanding officer
OIC
2-9
37
Retain IFR flight planning weather information recorded at a coast guard unit for how long
90 days
3-1
38
How long is a weight and balance form good for
12 months
3-2
39
Fuel reserve shall be at least that required for _____ minutes of flight after reaching the alternate (for fixed-wing aircraft) or ____ minutes of flight after reaching the alternate (for rotary-wing aircraft)
45 minutes for fixed wing
20 minutes for rotary wing
In any case, fuel carried on departure will be at least ten percent more than that required to reach the alternate airfield via the destination
3-1
40
How long do you retain weight and balance forms at a unit
90 days
3-2
41
What is the weight and balance PG
PG 85-00-180
3-2
42
How long should copies of filed flight plans be retained at units
90 days
3-3
43
Manifests maybe recorded in ALMIS or on paper and shall be retained by the aircraft’s home unit for no less than how long
seven years
3-3
44
For ferry flights what is the minimum required pilot assignment for 2 pilot aircraft and single pilot SRR
AC and CP
3-4, 3-6
45
For a SRR helicopter what is the minimum pilot requirement for a maintenance flight
AC
3-5
46
What is the minimum number of aircrew required for SAR or MEDEVAC on C-130
C-130H
SAR- 5: BA, DM,R,N,FE
MEDEVAC- 4: BA, LM, R, FE
C-130J
SAR- 2: DM,LM
3-8, 3-9
47
What is the minimum number of aircrew required for SAR or MEDEVAC on C-144 AND C-27J
Both are 2: BA, DM
3-10, 3-11
48
For other missions, only who of aviation units are authorized to waive the crew utilization requirements of this Paragraph to move an aircraft or a deadheading flight crew to or from a staging area. This authority may not be delegated
Commanding Officers
3-11
49
For SAR missions in which saving life is probable, crew utilization requirements of this Paragraph maybe waived by whom on a calculated risk basis. This authority may not be delegated
Commanding Officers
3-11
50
A new 24-hour period will begin anytime a flight crew or non-crew member has completed how many hours rest, regardless of duty status
10
3-12
51
Unless a flight crew member has
night adapted, the member may not be scheduled for more than
______ consecutive nights of reverse cycle operations
2
3-12
52
Alert crew duty is limited to how long when adequate rest facilities are not available
12 consecutive hours
3-13
53
Flight crew members shall be assigned no more than 24 hours consecutive alert duty and must have how many hours off duty immediately before assuming alert duty. exceptions maybe be authorized by whom on a calculated risk basis
10
CO
3-13
54
Flight crew members shall not be assigned strip or special alert for more than ____ consecutive hours (with adequate crew rest facilities) or ____ consecutive hours (without adequate crew rest facilities)
12 with
8 without
3-13
55
Aircraft events are not authorized within a _____ hour period immediately after simulator or AWT events
12 hour
3-13
56
How many hours off should air crew member have before assuming alert duty or strip alert duty
10 hours
3-13
57
Off duty time must allow how many hours of bed rest
8 hours
3-13
58
For any crew day that ends in a time zone that is four or more hours different from where it began, required hours off duty listed in Table 3-7 shall be increased by how many hours.
3 hours
3-13
59
How much of the number of flight hours spent deadheading shall count as crew mission time
One half
3-13
60
For deployed aircrews, If the average flight hours per day exceed
____ hours during any seven consecutive days ,then the crew member shall be relieved from all duty for no less than _____ hours
04
24
3-14
61
If your individual flight hours are 8 or more and crew mission time is 12 or more how much crew rest shall you have in a 24 hour period
15 hours
3-14
62
A flight crew member shall be relieved from all duty (including collateral duties) for not less than ____ consecutive hours at least once during any ____ consecutive days (192hours)
24 hours
8 days
3-14
63
What are the 7, 30, and 365 day flight hour limitations
7-50
30-125
365-1100
3-14, 15
64
How long after last alcohol intake must aviation personnel abstain from flight
12 hours with no residual affects
3-15
65
How long after hyperbaric exposure (low pressure chamber) can you not fly
12 hours no flight duties with flight above 30,000 ft
May fly as passengers of aircraft that does not exceed 10,000ft
3-15
66
Under normal circumstances, flight personnel shall not fly or participate in low-pressure chamber flights within ____ hours following Self-Contained Underwater Breathing Apparatus (SCUBA) diving,compressed air dives, or high-pressure chamber evolutions
24 hours
3-15
67
For urgent operation requirements Who can clear a member to fly within _____ hours after scuba diving given no symptoms of decompression sickness or air embolism
12
Flight surgeon or other qualifies aviation medical provider
3-15
68
Who gives permission to donate blood and bone marrow
CO
3-15
69
What is the aviation medical manual
M6410.3
3-15
70
What can a pilot not wear during single pilot operations
Contact lenses
3-16
71
Crew members who require corrective lenses to correct to 20/20 vision must have what in their possession
A back up pair of corrective lenses
3-16
72
All flights shall comply with
the weather requirements of this Section based on the actual weather at the point of departure, the forecast weather en route, and the forecast at both the destination and alternate for the period beginning one hour before until _____ after the estimated time of arrival (ETA) at each point
one hour
3-16
73
What are weather take off minimums
Meteorological visibility of one half statute mile for non-operational missions.
*Meteorological visibility of one quarter statute mile for operational missions
3-16
74
Who can give take off permission below minimums
CO and it can be delegated down to the deployed AC
3-16
75
What are the requirements for alternate destinations including one hour before and after landing
RW:
Ceiling is at least 1,000 feet above the airport elevation or at least 400 feet above the lowest compatible approach minimum, whichever is higher
Visibility is at least two statute miles
76
What are RWAI weather requirements
No take off mins,
Have target in sight clear of clouds with visibility no less than 1 statute mile
3-16
77
What is the correct flight path when dealing with volcanic ash
Above or on the upwind side of volcanic dust
maintenance inspection needed to clear flight afterwards
3-19
78
What is the Shipboard Helicopter Operational Procedures Manual
M3710.2
3-18
79
Local modifications to checklists, including partial completions without specific intent for flight operations, are not authorized without approval from whom
Commandant (CG-711)
4-2
80
What is the primary responsibility of flight crews
to execute their assigned duty in aircraft cabin and monitor the flight path of the aircraft during critical phases of flight
4-1
81
for flight control transfer, if verbal transfer is not possible due to excess noise or failed ICS, what is the appropriate manner of transfer
The pilot desiring to be relieved shall pat his or her head with one hand
and then point to the other pilot.
The pilot taking control shall pat his or her head in acknowledgment
and immediately and deliberately move both hands to the flight controls.
The pilot being relieved shall hold both hands over head signifying that
he or she has given up control
4-4
82
Naps shall be limited to ____ minutes, and all crew members shall be awakened ____ hour before an anticipated high-workload event
40 minutes
One hour before
4-5
83
When an aircraft is being taxied within ____ feet of obstructions, a two person (minimum) taxi crew is required. One member will serve as taxi signalman/wing walker, the other as an additional wing walker. Aircraft shall not be taxied at anytime within ____ feet of obstructions
25 ft
5 ft
4-6
84
What is the Physical Security and Force Protection Program manual
COMDTINST M5530.1
4-7
85
Who is responsible for an aircraft if it has been involved in a mishap until relieved by proper authority
PIC unless incapacitated then the responsibility falls on senior crewmember
4-7
86
Proposed changes to flight publications shall be coordinated through what
CG-711
4-8
87
Who may publish minimum equipment list for aircraft and missions for a unit’s guidance for flight crews
CO
4-11
88
What eye test is given to an aircrewman after a laser strike
AMSLER grid eye chart
4-12
89
What is the Safety and Environmental health manual
M5100.47
4-12
90
After a laser strike an aircrew member is assessed medically IAW what manual
M5100.47
Safety and Environmental Health Manual
4-12
91
Who do you report laser strikes to
Local law enforcement, CGIS, OPCON, nearest ATC, the CIO/CDIO, and District Intelligence Staff
4-12, 4-13
92
Resorts and beaches should be avoided by flying aircraft by what distances and altitude
fixed wing- 2000 ft AGL, 1 mile
rotary wing- 500 ft AGL, 1/4 mile
4-13
93
If flying over environmentally sensitive areas, maintain an altitude of no less than how many feet
2,000 ft AGL
4-13
94
Who approves the items inside an aerial delivery container
CG-711
4-15
95
When a single CG aircraft is converging with a flight formation who has the right of way
the formation has the right of way
4-16
96
RWAI: Intercept training shall be conducted at what altitude
minimum 1000 ft AGL
4-17
97
What is the CG maritime law enforcement manual
M16247.1
4-18
98
How may divers be deployed from CG aircraft
rescue basket (tanks deployed separately), ACCB approved harness (inspected by AST and enrolled in MSR ACMS), harness deployments with tanks are limited to water only
4-19
99
How often shall a diver complete the diver helicopter deployment syllabus with a qualified RS or conduct a harness deployment dive mission
Either one within the previous 12 months
4-19
100
The decision to deploy the RescueSwimmer (RS) is initiated by whom, but who has the authority to decline deployment if the RS assesses the situation to be beyond his or her capability.
PIC
RS
4-20
101
The crew shall consider what when deciding to deploy the RS
on scene environmental factors like sea state, water/air temp, marine life, and the RS ability to complete the mission
4-20
102
A RS shall not swim under a capsized object (vessel, vehicle, ice layers, parachutes, aircraft, etc.), but may search under visually while maintaining a grasp of a reference point on the exterior
true
4-20
103
Vertical delivery of boarding team members shall have completed at least one hoist evolution within the preceding ____ calendar months, if no hoist accomplished, member shall complete CG-711 approved initial qual syllabus
12 months
4-20
104
Hoisting of Canine Explosive Detection Teams (CEDT) is authorized. The handler and canine must complete the Commandant (CG-711) approved Canine Handler initial qualification syllabus. Each CEDT shall complete at least one hoist evolution within the preceding ______ calendar months.
12
4-21
105
Who has approval authority for hoisting the CEDT
CO
4-21
106
What are the 3 aircrew survivability factors that should be evaluated by the CO during planning for an offshore mission
estimated time to to loss of useful consciousness
probable survival time
estimated recovery time
4-22
107
Even in situations where fatality from hypothermia is highly improbable, cold water greatly facilitates unconsciousness and/or
death from drowning, often in the first ______, particularly for those not wearing flotation devices.
10 to 15 minutes
4-22
108
Who approves static displays
Area or District Commander
4-25
109
All approved requests for flight or static display shall be filed and maintained at the unit for how long
1 year
4-26
110
What is the Aircraft Transfer PG
PG 85-00-160A
4-27
111
Who directs the transfer of all aircraft
CG-711
4-27
112
Test flights shall be conducted in daylight hours, however who can waive this requirement if the flight can be conducted safely and it may not be delegated
CO
4-27
113
What is the Military Justice manual
M5810.1
4-28
114
Who tasks mobile ATC via memorandum to provide AUF training to specific units
CG-711
4-32
115
The use of deadly force from an aircraft is authorized as
prescribed in what manual
U.S. Coast Guard Maritime Law Enforcement Manual (MLEM), COMDTINST M16247.1(series)
4-33
116
Who approves a portable electronic device
ACCB
4-33
117
Voice recordings maybe considered a form of Personally Identifiable Information (PII) and shall be protected in accordance with what
Privacy Act of 1974
4-37
118
Who keeps flight records and for how long for the following?
a record of each flight with a senior federal official, their spouse, or dependent
*Copy of the passenger manifest.
*Copy of all documents approving the transportation of such passengers on the flight.
*Copy of cost justification where appropriate.
7 years, CG-711
5-1, 5-2
119
Who approves Space Available Travel for non official travel
Vice Commandant
5-5, table 5-1
120
Any transportation of senior Federal officials, their spouses, dependents and any non-Federal travelers during a semi-annual period shall be reported to whom. Reports shall be submitted by 15 October and 15 April
Commandant (CG-711)
5-8
121
Who approves congressional members to fly on CG aircraft and handles all congressional type flights
(including congress members, their staff and dependents)
CG-0921
5-9
122
Who reviews and forwards recommendations to CG-711 for congressional transportation and operational orientation flights
CG-0921
5-9
123
Who is the Assistant Commandant for Intelligence
CG-2
5-9
124
Commanding Officers of air stations conducting aeromedical transportation flights shall maintain, for a minimum of ____ years, a paper record for each aeromedical transportation flight containing the following documents: hard copies of flight record from ALMIS, passenger manifest, and A copy of all documents establishing the cost justification for aeromedical transportation
7 years
5-11
125
With aircraft embarked or deployed who has the authority to approve orientation flights. This authority shall not be delegated.
Commanding Officers of Coast Guard air stations and cutters
5-12
126
Active and reserve military personnel and members of the Department of the Homeland Security are authorized to act as survivors on RS training flights after completing the _____ approved Rescue Swimmer Training Survivor Syllabus. Only graduates of a formal helicopter rescue swimmer training program are permitted to perform free fall deployments
Commandant
(CG-711)
5-15
127
Who may assign an aircraft not meeting all mission capability requirements if he or she determines that the mission will have a reasonable chance of success
Commanding Officer
6-1
128
Who shall ensure the aircraft is suitably equipped to provide a reasonable chance of success
Commanding Officer
6-1
129
The minimum rescue equipment required to be carried aboard coast guard aircraft is described where
M13520.1 and PG 85-00-310-A
6-1
130
To be considered fully mission capable for SAR, a fixed-wing aircraft shall have the following raft abilities during the day and at night
*Deliver a raft for 5 or more survivors
*Deliver rafts for 15 or more survivors (recommended but not required for MRS)
6-1
131
To be considered fully mission capable for SAR, a rotary-wing aircraft shall have the following abilities during the day and at night
*Recover 1 to 5 survivors from a vessel or the water (SRR)
*Recover 6 to 15 survivors from a vessel or the water (MRR)
6-2
132
To provide maximum fire protection, sleeves shall not
be rolled up
6-4
133
Policy, Authorization, and Instructions pertaining to the procurement, configuration, use and maintenance of protective clothing authorized for personnel conducting Coast Guard missions from an aircraft is specified in the
M13520.1 and PG 85-00-310-A
6-4
134
How often shall flight gear be inspected
Annually and reporting aboard
6-4
135
Non-aircrew personnel conducting fast roping or vertical delivery shall wear anti-exposure garments in accordance with
Rescue and Survival Systems Manual, COMDTINST M10470.10
6-5
136
When are anti exposure garment (ADC)required
70°F ≤ Water and Any air temp: Not required
60°F ≤ Water < 70°F and 85°F ≤ Air temp: Not required
60°F ≤ Water < 70°F and Air temp < 85°F: Required
60°F > Water and Any air temp: Required
6-5
137
Non-aircrew personnel with frequent periodic flight requirements shall wear the authorized anti-exposure garments described in
Coast Guard Aviation Life Support Equipment (ALSE) Manual, COMDTINST M13520.1
6-5
138
All non-aircrew personnel may wear anti-exposure coveralls or dry suit ensembles described in the
M10470.10
6-5
139
A Pilot in Command must weigh the performance/degradation of an RS in a wetsuit for periods of longer than
30 minutes
6-6
140
Aircrew shall wear the Aircrew
Dry Coverall or the Aircrew Immersion Coverall garments described in the
Coast Guard Aviation Life Support Equipment (ALSE) Manual,
COMDTINST M13520.1(series)
6-5
141
Underwear and socks worn under flight suits shall be what material
Underwear-100 % cotton or fire retardant moisture wicking
Socks- 80 % cotton or wool
6-5
142
What temperature should the RS wear the dry suit
55 degrees or below
6-6
143
All air craft shall carry enough life rafts of a rated capacity and buoyancy to accommodate all aircraft occupants for flights that remain over water longer than ____ minutes or extend beyond ____ nautical miles from the nearest shore.
30 minutes, 100 nautical miles
6-6
144
Who approves the transport of infectious biological samples
Routed via the chain of command to CG-711 for review and forwarding onto to the director of health safety and work life, CG-11 for final approval.
6-6
145
What manual contains the minimum contents of survival vests
M13520.1
CO may require additional items for local conditions with CG-711 approval
6-7
146
The minimum altitude for oxygen use in an unpressurized aircraft can be extended to 12,000 ft if what
As long as it does not remain above 10,000 ft for more than 30 minutes
6-7
147
What is the minimum altitude for oxygen use in an unpressurized aircraft
10,000 ft MSL
6-7
148
What age shall children occupy their own seat
above the age of 2
6-8
149
When is the required seat harness or seatbelt considered an exception to wearing
Flight above 1000 ft, during medevacs, required flight crew duties, and purposes of stan check duties on C-130 with PIC approval
6-8
150
One first aid kit for treatment of injuries likely to occur in flight or minor accidents shall be provided for every
10 occupants
6-9
151
How is Oxymetazoline spray(AFRIN) procured
From local medical facilities
6-9
152
Where can you find the required number of crash axes for an aircraft
The aircraft’s flight manual
6-9
153
Approved litters aboard cutters or at boat stations shall be marked as
HELICOPTER HOIST-ABLE and maintained in accordance with what manual
Rescue and Survival Systems Manual, COMDTINST M10470.10
6-9
154
Who has the authority to issue or revoke designations and qualifications
CO
7-1
155
Who designates and assigns flight surgeons
Commandant CG-1121
p. 7-1
156
How many hours must an aviation mission specialist have in aircraft to wear insignia permanently
200 R/W
400 F/W
7-2
157
How long are designations valid for
12 months (can be waived to 15 months via CO approval)
7-1
158
For cg aviators, enlisted aircrew, and flight surgeons, insignia is awarded IAW what manual
Aviators (pilots)- M1000.3
Enlisted aircrew- M1000.2
Flight surgeons-M6410.3
COMDTINST
7-1
159
Coast guard aviator and aircrew insignia shall be rescinded IAW what
COMDTINST M1200.1
7-2
160
Who approves the flight syllabi for pilots and aircrew
CG-711
7-2
161
What training is required before beginning flight instruction
*Initial Crew Resource Management (CRM) training
*Low Pressure/Dynamic Hypoxia Training–pressurized aircraft crews
only
*Underwater Egress Training (Dunker)– helicopter crews only
*Aviation Water Survival Training (WetDrill)– not required for Air Station Washington
*Emergency Breathing Device/Shallow Water Egress Training
(EBD/SWET)– helicopter crews only
*Swimtest–not required for Air Station Washington
*Emergency Ground Egress Training–required for each aircraft type
and model in which designation is sought
*Training in installed survival gear
*Training in use of ICS and terminology
7-2
162
What training is required within 60 days of initial designation
Local initial COMSEC/OPSEC
operational hazard awareness
land survival
training in survival equipment and pyrotechnics
designation stan check flight
7-3
163
Dunker/underwater egress training is a _____ month requirement
75
7-3
164
What training has a 12 month requirement
designation stan check
CRM refresher
may be extended to 15 months with CO approval
7-3
165
What training is due once per calendar year
Wet drills
emergency breathing device shallow water egress training
swim test
survival equipment and pyrotechnics land survival
emergency ground egress training
OPSEC/COMSEC
OPHAZ training
laser hazard and employment training (only for aircrew and maintenance personnel of platforms employing class 3b and 4 lasers Physiological training
7-3, 7-4
166
Any pilot deployed aboard a ship who has not flown in his or her primary crew position (in flight or in an approved simulator) during the previous ______ days will be required to fly a warm-up prior to flying in that crew position on an operational mission.
21 days
7-4
167
Warm up flights are required when any member hasn’t flown in ____ days(exception is AMS or FS designation)
30 days
7-4
168
Each crew member shall have performed the duties of his or her designated crew position in flight at least once within the preceding _______ months
at least once in the preceding 6 months
7-4
169
Pilots stationed at the ALC or APO that have not flown in the preceding _____ days shall not be assigned as Pilot-in-Command
45 days
7-4
170
If a flight crew member does not complete periodic training
requirements, fails an evaluated event, or has a designation removed for cause by the Commanding Officer, who has approval to re-designate the member
CO
7-4
171
If a member has no flights in the aircraft type and model in which he or she is designated within the preceding ____ calendar months, the individual must complete a Commandant(CG-711) approved designation or redesignation syllabus.
12 calendar months
7-4
172
If a member has no flights within the previous ____ calendar months, a designation standardization check flight is required for redesignation.
6 calendar months
7-4
173
For crew members designated in more than one model of the same type of aircraft, a Commandant (CG-711) approved _______ syllabus may be substituted for a designation standardization check flight for one of the lapsed designations.
ground
7-5
174
How long are qualifications good for
12 months but may be extended to 15 with CO approval
7-5
175
Who approves entry into the qualification syllabus for all qualifications
Operations Officer
7-6
176
If a member has not performed the mission or periodic training requirements associated with a qualification within the preceding 6 months and 12 months what must be done
6 months- qualification stan check
12 months- qualification syllabus must be completed
7-6
177
A ________ certifies that a member has gained advanced knowledge, skills and abilities necessary to perform specific missions in a type and model of Coast Guard aircraft.
qualification
7-5
178
Your semi annual period may be prorated how long If you are absent for 14-45 days due to PCS, non flying TAD, protracted emergency, sick leave or similar circumstances and this causes you to miss semi annual flight requirements
1 month
7-7
179
Your semi annual period may be prorated how long If you are absent for 46-75 days due to PCS, non flying TAD, protracted emergency, sick leave or similar circumstances and this causes you to miss semi annual flight requirements
2 months
7-7
180
Your semi annual period may be prorated how long If you are absent for 106-135 days due to PCS, non flying TAD, protracted emergency, sick leave or similar circumstances and this causes you to miss semi annual flight requirements
4 months
7-7
181
Your semi annual period may be prorated how long If you are absent for 76-105 days due to PCS, non flying TAD, protracted emergency, sick leave or similar circumstances and this causes you to miss semi annual flight requirements
3 months
7-7
182
Your semi annual period may be prorated how long If you are absent for 136-165 days due to PCS, non flying TAD, protracted emergency, sick leave or similar circumstances and this causes you to miss semi annual flight requirements
5 months
7-7
183
How often must pilots of pressurized aircraft complete low pressure chamber training
12 years
7-9
184
What is the Maritime Law Enforcement Manual
M16247.1
7-15
185
What is the Air Interdiction Procedures manual
M3710.3
7-18
186
Who approves aircraft syllabus for designation
CG-711
7-19 and multiple other pages
187
How long must a C-130H BA be qualified in that position before becoming a flight engineer
1 year
7-19
188
Each HC-130H Flight Engineer shall have completed a proficiency simulator course within the preceding _____calendar months.
12
7-19
189
What is the minimum flight hours requirement for flight surgeons
24 hours per semi annual period
4 hour of night to include 2 hours NVG aided
7-20
190
Prior to beginning the Navigator syllabus(to become a Flight Navigator) the member must be a qualified Radio Operator with at least _____ flight hours in aircraft type
50 hours
7-19
191
How often shall a FM and RS complete asset familiarization training
Biennially, and within 3 months of reporting to new duty station
7-21
192
What are the requirements to maintain a basic hoist qualification
Stan check within the last 12 months(may be extended to 15 with CO approval) and at least 1 hoist within the preceding semi annual period
7-20
193
A RS must complete at least 1 deployment in the last ____ days
90 days
7-22
194
A RS can fly as mission essential personnel, not an air crew member for how long after completing the RS abbreviated qualification syllabus
90 days
7-22
195
Who must an E-7-E-9 notify if intentions are to allow RS qual to lapse and not stand duty
Chief Office of aviation Forces (CG-711)
7-23
196
How many harness/sling deployments shall include the static discharge cable
Minimum of 1
7-23
197
How many direct deploymentsper semi-annual shall employ the double lift
Minimum of 1
7-23
198
How often must an aircraft vector be completed
180 days
7-23
199
A minimum of ___ sling/harness deployment or direct deployment must be completed at night
1
7-23
200
What are the yearly requirements for a RS to attend AHRS
3 years within initial certification and recurrent is every 6 years
7-23
201
How often must a RS complete a vertical surface deployment to maintain qualification
12 months, 15 months with CO approval
7-23
202
How often is stan check due for a fast rope qualified FM
12 months, 15 months with CO approval
7-24
203
Who authorizes pilot and aircrew instructors in writing
CO
7-29
204
Who recommends a member to receive instructor designation
Unit operations officer
7-29
205
How often is an instructor qualification stan check required
12 months
7-29
206
How many syllabus instruction flights are required per semi annual period for an instructor to maintain qualification
Or ground training sessions
3 flights
7-30
207
Who shall authorize all unit
Pilot or Aircrew Flight Examiners in writing
Commanding Officers
7-30
208
For wet drills, how long shall the air crew member enter and remain in the water wearing a flight suit or dry suit and survival vest
At least 10 minutes
7-32
209
What is the preferred site for wet drills (over a swimming pool or lake or sheltered harbor)
Offshore site where moderate sea conditions exist
7-32
210
What shall the trainee do while in the water for wet drills
Inflate the survival vest orally, locate and deploy the survival items, note effort required to swim, and remain in a stable floatation posture, enter a one or multi person raft
7-32
211
Who approves under water egress training (dunker) facility
CG-711
7-32
212
What training provides helicopter air crew members with skills and confidence required to increase the probability of a successful egress under disorienting conditions after the aircraft enters the water and becomes inverted
Emergency breathing device/shallow water egress training
7-33
213
If not current with the emergency breathing device when reporting aboard a new unit, training must be completed within how many days
60 days
7-33
214
What does the swim test evaluate
The members ability to swim a short distance in order to reach a life raft after a water landing
Comfort not form
7-33
215
How long is the air crew member swim test
75 yards
7-33
216
What stroke is used for the air crew swim test
Crawl, breast, back,side, or combination thereof
7-33
217
What is to be worn while performing the air crew 75 yard swim test
Flight suit, boots, uninflated vest with normal gear or 2 lb weights in pockets, not an adc
7-33
218
What type of vest shall be used for air crew swim test
Normally equipped vest or training vest with pocket survival items replaced with 2 pound weights
7-33
219
How long is the water tread for air crew members
2 minutes
7-33
220
How often shall a risk mitigation meeting occur between rotary wing stations and each of their supporting AOR boat stations
Annually
7-33
221
Night adaptation *Visual and vestibular illusions *Potential negative impact of smoking, caffeine, and alcohol *Benefits of physical fitness *Physiological changes that can be anticipated as the body ages are examples of what
Physiological responses to flight environment
7-34
222
What is the risk management manual
Risk Management Instruction 3500.3
7-34
223
Each member shall satisfactorily complete a standardization check flight and a closed-book and open-book (if given) examination within how days of the Stan check flight on critical aircraft systems, emergency procedures and limitations
30 days
80% passing
7-35
224
Who is responsible for maintaining log books and training records to include ALMIS data entries of pilots and air crew members
CO
7-37
225
What are the training record cover sheet forms
Pilot: CG-3700
Air crew member: CG-3701
7-37
226
Upon PCS how is the training record transferred
Sealed and hand carried by member
7-37
227
Who shall maintain records of all check flights administered and qualifications issued or renewed
Unit Flight Examining Boards
7-38
228
Who shall submit a letter report to the CO together with a statement from the flight crew member concerned, whenever a flight crew member fails an evaluated event, fails a written examination, or fails to maintain a qualification or designation
Unit training officer
submitted within 30 days following
the end of the period
7-39
229
Who designates FSB and FEB members in writing
CO
7-39
230
How often shall FEB meet
Quarterly and submit a written report of meeting to unit operations officer
7-40
231
What is the safety and environmental health manual
5100.47
8-1
232
How often does the FSB meet
Quarterly and submit a written report of meeting to unit CO
7-39
233
How many processes does coast guard aviation have for mishaps response
3
a mishap analysis board, administrative major incident investigation, aviator evaluation board
8-1
234
Who manages the mishap analysis process, including participation with investigations between USCG and other agencies
CG-1131
8-2
235
What class mishaps require temporary grounding
Class A and B
8-2
236
What class mishap requires an aviator evaluation board (AEB)
Class A
8-2
237
Temporary grounding after Class C and D mishaps are at the discretion of whom
CO
8-2
238
After a mishap, Aircrew personnel must be evaluated by a flight surgeon and be found physically qualified and aeronautically adaptable for aviation duties prior to resuming flight status. Waiver of this requirement may only be obtained from whom
Commandant (CG-711).
8-2
239
The aircrew members involved in Class A mishaps will remain grounded until the AEB process is complete. Waiver of this requirement may be obtained
from whom
Commandant (CG-711)
8-2
240
Who manages Critical Incident Stress Management (CISM)
Office of Work-Life
8-2
241
How can you access the Employee Assistance Program (for confidential stress or other related issues to a crises
855-CGSUPRT or linking to the website www.cgsuprt.com
8-3
242
Where can you find CISM guidance
Critical Incident Stress Management Instruction COMDTINST 1754.3
8-2
243
Custody and handling of a VFDR
following a mishap shall be in accordance with what
Safety and Environmental Health Manual, COMDTINST M5100.47(series) and Commandant (CG-1131) guidance
8-3
244
The recovery and salvage of a mishap aircraft and the assignment of a salvage officer is the responsibility of the reporting custodian, normally who
Commanding Officer of a Coast Guard aviation unit or Coast Guard cutter with a deployed aircraft
8-3
245
What is the primary directive for aircraft salvage and recovery
M13020.1
8-3
246
Who can approve flight without a VFDR
CO
8-4
247
Report all serious near midair collisions without damage to who and how quickly
Damage during evasive maneuvering shall be reported
Commandant (CG-1131) within 24 hours as Aviation Flight-Related mishaps
within 24 hours as an
Aviation Flight mishap
8-4
248
Serious near midair collisions with injuries or aircraft damage shall be classified in accordance with what
Safety and Environmental
Health Manual, COMDTINST M5100.47
8-4
249
Serious near midair collisions without injuries or aircraft damage shall normally be reported as what
Class D mishaps
8-4
250
A near midair collision is an incident where a possibility of collision occurs as a result of proximity of less than ____ feet to another aircraft
500 ft
8-4
251
Who can authorize temporary deviations from the provisions
of this Section (FLIGHT SAFETY FOR NON-AIRCREW MISSION ESSENTIAL PERSONNEL) for mission essential personnel when necessary to respond to urgent incidents requiring unusual levels of flight activity
Commanding Officers
8-5
252
Who shall ensure flight equipment is maintained in accordance with the manufacturer’s standards or guidance of the Coast Guard Aviation Life Support Equipment (ALSE) Manual, COMDTINST M13520.1
Unit commanding officers
8-5
253
What are the flight requirements for non-aircrew mission essential personnel
*Planned flight every 90-days or less required by a policy to maintain a current qualification or competency
*Planned flight every 30-days or less for longer than six consecutive months to execute approved missions
*Planned flight every 7-days or less during surge operations lasting longer than one month
8-5
254
How often shall non-aircrew mission essential personnel complete underwater egress training
75 months calendar months
8-6
255
Non-aircrew mission essential personnel shall have successfully completed aviation water survival training, and a swim test within the preceding ____ calendar months
24
8-6
256
Non-aircrew mission essential personnel with periodic flight requirements shall review in flight emergency procedures, ditching procedures, use of aircraft safety equipment, use of personal protective equipment, and emergency egress procedures related to the type and model aircraft authorized to fly aboard as well as complete land survival training how often
Annually (each calendar year)
8-6
257
Training records shall be maintained IAW
Information and Life Cycle Management Manual COMDTINST 5212.12
8-6
258
A deployment entry is required whenever an aircraft is away from home station for any period of time greater than how many hours
11.9 hours
9-1
259
How do you calculate flight hours for the fractional minute portion
Calculate the whole hour first. Take the remaining minutes and add 3, then divide that number by 6. Round the result down to the nearest whole digit and divide by 10. This will give the decimal (fractioned) portion of flight hours.
Ex. 128 minutes = 2.1 hours: 120 minutes= 2 hours, 8 minutes=0.1: 8+3=11, 11 divided by 6 =1(1.8333 rounded down) 1 divided by 10=0.1
9-2
260
In the first hour flight of 2 minutes or less are logged as what
0.1 flight time
9-2
261
What are the 4 event statuses assigned to an event at the end of each 24 hour period
1. success
2. delay- delayed more than 15 min.
3. abort- canceled after PIC signed
4. cancel-canceled before PIC signed
9-3
262
How often does the CO review and approve flight records
monthly
9-4
263
When can a flight crew member be placed on flight orders
At least when the initial ground portion of flight syllabus is complete
9-5
264
SDAP shall be managed IAW
Special Duty Assignment Pay COMDTINST 1430.1
9-5
265
All COMDTINST M3710 series manuals will be updated by the OPD and distributed electronically by whom
Commandant (CG-6)
9-6
266
Who promulgates flight manuals and sub manuals (Coast Guard Operational Publications
CG-711
9-6
267
The Recommendation for Change of Publication (CGTO), ______ will be used to correct errors or voids
CG-847 (approved by command before being forwarded)
9-7
268
All air stations will be provided how many copies of checklists per aircraft
04
9-7
269
Who manages changes and updates to CGTOs and operational publications (flight manuals)
OPD
9-6, 9-7
270
Who designates department and assistant department heads in writing
CO
App A-2
271
Who designates the Master at Arms
XO
App. A-2
272
Who acts as senior member of unit safety and health committee
XO
App A-2
273
Who acts as president of unit permanent mishap board
XO
App A-2
274
Who Coordinates and controls movements of aircraft and boats (and vehicles, when operationally employed); establish fuel loadings for aircraft and boats
operations officer
App A-4
275
Who Manages and directs training of pilots and aircrew-men; coordinates training syllabi, both flight and ground, in accordance with pertinent Commandant’s Directive
operations officer
App A-4
276
Who Supervises Flight Examining Board and Flight Standards Board
Operations officer
App A-4
277
Who Oversees flight orders, AvIP, SDAP, and operational/technical qualification programs for assigned enlisted personnel
LCPO
App A-11
278
Who shall Establish programs for fuel and oil contamination prevention, foreign object damage prevention, and corrosion control
EO
App A-7
279
Changes in ready crew assignments shall be made only with
approval of the ________ or a designated representative
Commanding Officer
App A-13
280
What adverse physiological or psychological factors can be
responsible for causing mishaps
fatigue, improper diet, poor physical condition, improper or excessive use of tobacco, alcohol or drugs, minor illness, mental or emotional stresses, and insufficient or irregular sleep
App B-1
281
What is the normal standard amount of sleep for flying personnel
8 continuous hours in a 24 hour period
App B-3,4
282
What is the risk management instruction
M3500.3
App B-1
283
What is considered a redzone mission
0300-sunrise
App B-4
284
What is the most effective time to shift routines to balance daylight for aircraft/cutter maintenance and training and desired night time operations
1400 to 1500 Reveille and 0400 Taps
App B-4
285
For night adaptation for reverse cycle operations, seek sunlight exposure after awakening from sleep at what time
1500
App B-4
286
Define short term reverse cycle operations
less than 2 weeks of continuous operations between 0000-sunrise
App B-6
287
Define long term reverse cycle operations
more than 2 weeks of continuous operations between 0000-sunrise
App B-6
288
Short term reverse cycle adaptation guidelines
night 1- red zone launch 10 hours crew rest after mission completion
night 2-0000-sunrise launch: limited to 4.0 hours of cutter-based flight operations (including training flights)
night 3-no launch between 0000-sunrise with 24 hours crew rest before assuming alert duty from 0000-sunrise
App B-6, 7
## Footnote
redzone: 0300-sunrise
289
Long term reverse cycle adaptation guidelines
requires a minimum of four nights to potentially shift the body’s clock from 0000 to 0600 bedtime
sleep sunrise to 1500
after night 4: ramp down- 24 hours of day operations only
App B-7, 8
290
Light exposure
The light source should be approximately 20 to 30 inches away
from your eyes such that it bathes your face from the side
App B-8
291
The amount of caffeine contained in just _____ cups of coffee appreciably affects the rates of blood flow and respiration
2
App B-10
292
Someone experiencing simulator sickness should not fly for how long after simulator exposure
24 hours
App B-11
