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MLT 240- Special Clinical Microbiology > MLT 240 Final Exam Study Guide > Flashcards

MLT 240 Final Exam Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q

List the asexual and sexual spores of fungi and give an example of an organism which exhibits each type.

A

know asexual

arthospores, blastospores, chlamydospres

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2
Q

Thick-walled, broad-based yeast

A

Blastomyces dermatiditis

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3
Q

Spherules filled with endospores

A

Coccidioides imitis

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4
Q

Thick-wall barrel-shaped arthrospores

A

Coccidioides imits

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5
Q

Spiny tuberculate macroconidia

A

Histoplasma capsulatum

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6
Q

Brown sclerotic bodies

A

Chromomycosis dermatiaceous fungi

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7
Q

Thick-walled, spindle-shaped macroconidia

A

Microsporum canis

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8
Q

Colony has a red reverse

A

Trichtophyton rubrum

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9
Q

Thin-walled, club-shaped macroconidia in clusters

A

Epidermophyton

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10
Q

Produces germ tube

A

Candida albicans

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11
Q

Causes epidemic scalp ringworm

A

Trichtophyton tonsurans

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12
Q

Broad, non-septate hypae in tissue

A

Mucor/Rhizopus

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13
Q

Brown, gritty deposits in sputum

A

Aspergillis

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14
Q

Multiple buds in tissue

A

Paracoccidioides

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15
Q

Causes Phycomycoses

A

Mucor/Rhizopus

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16
Q

List the species of rickettsia, their mode of transmission (vectors), and the diseases they cause

A

know RMSF
deer tick
R. rickettsi

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17
Q

How do rickettsia differ from chlamydia

A

no vectors for Chlamydia

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18
Q

What diseases are caused by chlamydia and how are they spread

A

psittacosis

aerosol; birds

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19
Q

Burkitt’s lymphoma

A

EB

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20
Q

Infectious mononucleosis

A

EB

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21
Q

Large, red intranuclear inclusions

A

CMV

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22
Q

Negri bodies

A

Rabies

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23
Q

Shingles

A

Varicella Zoster

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24
Q

host in which the adult(sexual stage) of the life cycle occurs

A

definitive host

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25
Q

host in which the larval(asexual stage) of the life cycle occurs

A

intermediate host

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26
Q

animals other than man that harbor human parasites; serve as a source of infection

A

reservoir host

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27
Q

List the four classes of protozoa and their means of motility

A

sarcodina - pseudopods
ciliata - cilia
mastigophora - flagella
sporozoa - no means of motility

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28
Q

Sluggish random motility

A

Entamoeba coli

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29
Q

Fine, even peripheral chromatin

A

Entamoeba histolytica

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30
Q

Oval cyst has large, blot-like karyosome

A

Endolimax nana

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31
Q

Large glycogen vacuole stains deeply with iodine

A

Iodamoeba butschlii

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32
Q

Lacks a cyst form

A

Dientamoeba fragilis
Entamoeba gingivalis
Trichomonas vaginalis

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33
Q

Troph is bilaterally symmetrical

A

Giardia lamblia

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34
Q

Pear-shaped troph with jerky motility is found in urine

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

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35
Q

Cyst is lemon-shaped with “nipple” on end

A

Chilomastix mesnili

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36
Q

How are most protozoan diseases transmitted

A

fecal-oral route

infective cyst stage

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37
Q

What morphological form of the blood and tissue flagellates is intracellular?
Which species exist in this form in human cells?

A

Leischmanial form L-D bodies

Leischmania sp and Trypansoma cruzii

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38
Q

West African/Gambian sleeping sickness, tsetse fly

A

Trypansoma gambiense

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39
Q

Kala-azar, LD bodies, sand fly

A

Leischmania donovani

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40
Q

espundia, sand fly

A

Leischmania braziliensis

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41
Q

oriental sore, Baghdad/Delhi boil, sand fly

A

Leischmani tropica

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42
Q

Chaga’s disease, kissing bug

A

Tyrpansoma cruzii

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43
Q

East african/Rhodesian sleeping sickness, tsetse fly

A

Trypansoma rhodesiense

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44
Q

Phlebotomas

A

sandflies

45
Q

Describe the principle and interpretation of the Sabin-Feldman dye test

A

In a positive test, Toxoplasma gondii will not take up the dye.
In absence of the antibodies it will stain blue

46
Q

What is the first intermediate host of all human flukes

A

snails

47
Q

Usual parasite of sheep has an extremely large egg

A

Fasciola hepatica

48
Q

Largest fluke found in man

A

Fasciolopsis buski

49
Q

Ova often confused with Diphyllobothrium latum

A

Paragonimus westermani

50
Q

Egg has prominent shoulders and resembles a light bulb

A

Clonorchis sinensis

51
Q

“Bladder fluke” associated with bladder cancer

A

Schistosoma haematobium

52
Q

Ova can appear in the stool or sputum

A

Paragonimus wetermani

53
Q

larval stage of Echinococcus granulosis; tapeworm larvae large bladder filled cyst

A

hydatid cyst

54
Q

individual segments of a tapeworm

A

proglottid

55
Q

narrowest part of the tapeworm, located just behind the scolex

A

neck

56
Q

fleshy extension of scolex

A

rostellum

57
Q

head of a tapeworm may have suckers (4), bothria (2) or hooks; organ for attachment

A

scolex

58
Q

general term for entire tapeworm

A

strobila

59
Q

definitive host: man
*intermediate host: freshwater fish
diagnostic stage:egg
*infective stage: plerocercoid

A

Diphyllobothrium latum

60
Q

definitive host: man
*intermediate host: cow
diagnostic stage: egg
*infective stage: cysticercus bovis

A

Taenia saginata; more branches, no hooks

61
Q

definitive host: man
intermediate host: pig
diagnostic stage:egg
infective stage: cysticercus cellulosae

A

Taenia solium; 7-13 branches, hooks(armed)

62
Q

definitive host: man
intermediate host: none
diagnostic stage: egg
infective stage: fully embryonated egg

A

Hymenolepsis nana - dwarf tapeworm; polar filaments

63
Q

definitive host: rat
intermediate host: grain beetle, flea
diagnostic stage:egg
infective stage: cystercoid

A

Hymenolepsis diminuta

64
Q

Echinoccus granulosus definitive host: canines
intermediate host: sheep
diagnostic stage: hydatid cyst which is found in man
infective stage: egg

A

Echinoccus granulosus

65
Q

How can Taenia saginata and Taenia solium be differentiated?

A

eggs of each are indistinguishable. Uterus of T. solium has only 7-15 lateral branches.

T. saginata has more uterine branches, no hooks on scolex.

Man can be infected by T. solium eggs but not by T. saginata eggs

66
Q

How can Hymeolepis nana and Hymenolepis dimunata be differentiated?

Which is the dwarf tapeworm?

A

H. diminuta eggs are larger and have no polar filaments

H. nana

67
Q

What are spicules?

A

associated in nematode with ejaculating duct- in males; necessary for reproduction

68
Q

How does the life cycle of nematodes differ from that of trematodes?

A

nematodes have a more simple life cycle, 1 host and external environment, alternate between free living and parasitic

trematodes have at least 1 if not 2 intermediate hosts parasitic

69
Q

definitive host: man
intermediate host: none
diagnostic stage: egg
infective stage: embryonated egg

A

Ascaris lumbricoides -roundworm

70
Q

definitive host: man
intermediate host: none
diagnostic stage: egg
**infective stage: embryonated egg

A

Enterobius vermicularis - pinworm

71
Q

definitive host: man
intermediate host: none
diagnostic stage: egg
infective stage: filariform larvae

A

Necator americanus - hookworm

72
Q

definitive host: man
intermediate host: none
diagnostic stage: rhadbitiform larvae
infective stage: filariform larvae

A

Strongyloides stercoralis - threadworm

73
Q

definitive host: man
intermediate host: pig
diagnostic stage: encysted larvae
infective stage: encysted larvae in muscle

A

Trichinella spiralis - pork tapeworm

74
Q 
definitive host: man
intermediate host: none
diagnostic stage: egg
*infective stage: embryonated egg*
*polar plugs, barrel shaped*
A

Trichuris trichiuria - whipworm

75
Q

How can the rhabditiform larvae of hookworm and Strongyloides be differentiated?

How are infections due to these organisms usually acquired?

A

rhabditiform (N. americanus)- long buccal cavity
strongyloides-short buccal cavity

penetration of skin by filariform larvae

76
Q

In the life cycle of Strongylodies, what do the terms autoinfection, direct development, and indirect development refer to?

A
  • person infects themselves

- like hookworm rhabditifom directly develops into filariform -rhabditiform develops into a free living adults

77
Q

What is visceral larval migrans and what is it cause by?

Cutaneous larval migrans (creeping eruptions)?

A

Toxocara canis

Ancylostoma braziliense

78
Q

List several species of protozoa or helminthes which can be diagnosed by observation of a stained blood smear.

A

plasmodium
trypansoma
leischmania
microfilaria

79
Q

List several distinctive features of filarial worms.

A

presence of nuclei (in tail) helps to id
some have sheath derived from eggshell
have periodicity; female gives birth to live larvae

80
Q

How do Wuchereria bancrofti and Brugia malaya differ?

A

both cause elephantiasis and live in lymphatic system.
BRUGIA HAS A MUCH HIGHER NUMBER OF MICROFILARIA IN THE BLOODSTREAM
bancrofti is sheathed and Malaya is not

81
Q

intermediate host: mosquito
specimen needed for diagnosis: blood
disease caused: elephantiasis
diagnostic stage: microfilaria

A

Brugia malaya

82
Q

intermediate host: Cyclops/copepod
specimen needed for diagnosis: skin
disease caused: dracunculosis
diagnostic stage: rhabditiform larvae

A

Dracunculus medinnesis-guniea worm

83
Q

intermediate host: chrysops fly (deer fly)
specimen needed for diagnosis: blood
*disease caused: loiasis (severe eye disease)**
diagnostic stage: microfilaria

A

Loa Loa

84
Q

intermediate host: simulium fly (black fly)
specimen needed for diagnosis: skin*
disease caused: river blindness
diagnostic stage:microfilaria

A

Onchocerca volvulus

85
Q

intermediate host: mosquito
specimen needed for diagnosis: blood
disease caused: elephantiasis
diagnostic stage:microfilaria

A

Wuchereria bancrofti

86
Q

If an ova and parasite exam can not be performed right away, what procedure should be followed?

A

perform quick macro and micro exam, add preservative and refrigerate within 30 min

87
Q

What preservative is usually used for the trichrome stain?

A

PVA

88
Q

What is the main use of a permanent stained smear?

A

to see protozoan cyst and trophs

89
Q

List the two major concentration procedures and the principle of each.

What is the specific gravity of the solution employed in the flotation method?

A

formalin ether- sedimentation
zinc sulfate-flotation

1.18

90
Q

If negative results were obtained using the zinc sulfate method, what would be the best course to follow if the doctor still felt the patient had a parasitic disease?

A

Repeat using formalin ether

91
Q

What parasite often causes pneumonitis in children?

A

Ascaris

92
Q

In which two parasitic infections is autoinfection most common?

A

pinworm

strongyloides

93
Q

List several species of parasites which can be transmitted by contaminated drinking water

A

E. histolytica, all schistosomes (not HOOKWORMS)

94
Q

List several environmental or climatic factors which are important in the spread and/or prevention of parasitic infections

A

temp, sand, soil, controlling insect population, water filtration

95
Q

*bilhariasis

A

*Schistosoma sp.

96
Q

blackwater fever

A

Plasmodium falciparum

97
Q

guinea worm

A

Dracunculus medinensis

98
Q

thread worm

A

Strongyloides stercoralis

99
Q

eye worm

A

Loa Loa

100
Q

whip worm

A

Trichuris trichiura

101
Q

split ring forms

A

P. falciparum

102
Q

oval, irregular cytoplasm (fimbriated)

A

P. ovale

103
Q

9 merozoites

A

P. malariae

104
Q

rbc’s enlarged ,infects retics, Schufners granules

A

P. vivax

105
Q

intermediate host:
common name: blood fluke
infective stage: penetration of hosts skin by circaria

A

Schistosma sp.

106
Q

common name: Chinese liver fluke
intermediate host: fish
infective stage: eating infected fish

A

Clonorchis sinensis

107
Q

common name: intestinal fluke
intermediate host: water plants
infective stage: eating infected water plants (watercress)

A

Fasciolopsis buski

108
Q

common name: lung fluke
intermediate host: snails
infective stage: eating infected freshwater crustaceans

A

Paragonimus westermani

MLT 240- Special Clinical Microbiology (5 decks)

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